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120 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
What type of promise does Cost Reimbursement contract provide you
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Best Effort
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What type of promise does Fixed Price contract provide you
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Shall Deliver
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What type of contract pushes risk on the government
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Cost Reimbursement
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What type of contact pushes risk on the contractor
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Fixed Price
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___________ type of contract are best for Vague technical requirements; labor and material costs uncertain
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Cost Plus
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___________ type of contract are best for Technical requirements defined; fair & reasonable prices determinable
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Fixed Price
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________________ shall NOT be used in lieu of Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF) or Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)when objective measurement is feasible
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Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF)
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What type of contract puts the Greatest Risk to the Government
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Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)
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What type of contract puts the Greatest Risk to the Contractor
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Firm Fixed Price (FFP)
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What type of contract do you need if the contractor must deliver quality product even if their cost exceeds negotiated price
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Firm Fixed Price (FFP)
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What type of contract could drive contractor into negative profit
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Firm Fixed Price (FFP)
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Cost at which the contractor assumes all cost risk the contractor can still earn profit up until the Ceiling Price (CP)
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Point of Total Assumption (PTA)
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The contractor can still earn profit after Point of Total Assumption (PTA) up until the ___________
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Ceiling Price (CP)
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Non-commercial payments include:
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1) Advance payments 2) Loan guarantees 3) Progress payments (based on costs) 4) Performance based payments
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The Government's preferred payment method of contract financing for fixed price contracts
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Performance Based Payments (PBPs)
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A form of Government financing in recognition of the need for working capital, for long lead items, and work in-process expenditures
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Progress Payments
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At what milestone does the Milestone Decision Authority (MDA) select contract type for Major Defense Acquisition Program (MDAP)
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MS B
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______________ shall select contract type at MS B for Major Defense Acquisition Program (MDAP)
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Milestone Decision Authority (MDA)
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Initial Product Baseline established in what phase
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Engineering Manufacturing Development (EMD) (MS B)
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In the 2007 National Defense Authorization Act, Congress provided statutory direction regarding the contract type that the Milestone Decision Authority (MDA) may select for development programs at Milestone _______
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MS B
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What Technology Readiness Level (TRL) should MS B be at
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TRL 6
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What Technology Readiness Level (TRL) should MS C be at
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TRL 7
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What is the Entrance Criteria common to all programs (Entrance Criteria is Mandatory for all Programs!!!)
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DoD 5000.02
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______________ is one of the key entrance criteria that a program must meet to enter the acquisition process at any given point
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Technology Maturity
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Exit Criteria for each phase are found in ____________________ as approved by the Milestone Decision Authority. (Exit Criteria is Program Specific)
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Acquisition Decision Memorandum (ADM)
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Exit Criteria for each phase are found in Acquisition Decision Memorandums (ADMs), as approved by the _________________
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Milestone Decision Authority
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This is any acquisition program or technology project that includes participation by one or more foreign nations, through an international agreement, during any phase of a system's life cycle
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International Cooperative Program
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What is the requirement for an International Cooperative Agreement
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1) *Analysis must be complete before 1st milestone * 2) DoD 500.01 required for all MDAP
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What are the key objectives for the International Cooperative Agreement
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1) *Reduce weapon system Acquisition Cost * 2) Enhance Interoperability with coalition partners
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What must the DoD obtain permission to operate any radiating equipment
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Spectrum Certification
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The mechanism for initiating frequency supportability within DoD begins with the submission of a ___________, Application for Equipment Frequency Allocation
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DD Form 1494
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What Milestone is a Spectrum Certification required
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A/B/C
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US Statutory requirement for Spectrum Certification Compliance provides detailed system information for spectrum allocation across 4 stages, ______, _______, ________, ________
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1) Conceptual (MSA Phase) 2) Experimental (TD Phase) 3) Developmental (EMD Phse) 4) Operational (P&D Phase)
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What congressional act states that Compliance must be completed before an Information Technology (IT) contract award or Acquisition Milestone decision
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Clinger-Cohen Act (CCA) 1996, Title 40 Compliance
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Who is the confirmation official for the Clinger-Cohen Act (CCA)
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Department of Defense Chief Information Officer
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A Program Manager MAY NOT be authorized what without the Confirmation of Clinger-Cohen Act (CCA) Compliance
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1) Initiate a Program 2) Approve entry into any phase of the Acquisition process 3) Award a Contract
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Clinger-Cohen Act (CCA) is required for all _______ and __________
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Major Defense Acquisition Programs (MDAPs) and Major Automated Information Systems (MAIS)
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Directs federal agencies to:"Conduct their environmental, transportation, and energy-related activities under the law in support of their respective missions in an environmentally, economically and fiscally sound, integrated, continuously improving, efficient and sustainable manner."
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Executive Order (E.O.) 13423 "Strengthening Federal Environmental, Energy, and Transportation Mngt" (Green Procurement)
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What Executive Order directs Federal Agencies to Green Procurement
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Executive Order (E.O.) 13423
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Approach to identifying, reducing or eliminating ESOH risks, and implementing controls for managing those ESOH risks where the program cannot avoid the___________________________
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Programmatic Environment, Safety, and Occupational Health Evaluation (PESHE)
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What are the Four general cost estimating methods for Life Cycle Cost (LCCE)
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1)Analogy 2) Parametric (Statistical) 3) Engineering (Bottom Up) 4) Actual
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___________ Life Cycle Cost method is a technique used to estimate a cost based on historical data for an system or subsystem
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Analogy
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____________ Life Cycle Cost method technique uses regression or other statistical methods to develop Cost Estimating Relationships (CERs)
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Parametric (Statistical)
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____________ Life Cycle Cost method the system being costed is broken down into lower-level components (such as parts or assemblies), each of which is costed separately for direct labor, direct material, and other costs. (Bottom Up)
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Engineering (Bottom Up)
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____________ Life Cycle Cost method this technique, actual cost experience or trends (from prototypes, engineering development models, and/or early production items) are used to project estimates of future costs for the same system
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Actual
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______________ provides the contactor more flexibility and opportunity to come up with innovative solutions than the traditional Statement of Work (SOW). (What we want)
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Statement of Objectives (SOO)
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More directive than SOO; Specifies systems development tasks (How to do it)
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Statement of Work (SOW)
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The purpose of ____________ is to improve DoD access to technology, encourage technology-driven prototype efforts to increase military capabilities, reduce total ownership costs, and reduce fielding times
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Other Transaction Authority (OTA)
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_____________ is the Authority to grant Other Transaction
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USD(AT&L)
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What make a contractor eligible a Nontraditional Defense Contractor
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<$500K on procurement contract in the past year
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On Other Transactions how much does an Traditional Defense Contractor have to be willing fund
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Willing to fund 1/3 of project
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On Other Transaction what is the Service approval funding Cap
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$20M -100M
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On Other Transaction what is the (USD(AT&L)) approval funding Cap
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>$100 M
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Is Other Transaction a Contract
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NOT a CONTRACT. Generally not subject to the federal laws and regulations that guide procurement contracts (i.e., FAR/DFARS) since it is an AGREEMENT
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What will make an item a Unique Identification (UID) if it is (Less Than) < $5000
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1) Serially Managed 2) Mission Essential 3) Controlled 4) Requiring activity determines that permanent ID is required
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______________ of items is a contractual requirement for all solicitations after 1 January 2004 for which property items delivered to the government exceed (Greater Than) > $5000 or which meet other criteria noted in the DoD Guide for Uniquely Identifying Items
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Unique Identification (UID)
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What are your Source Selection Criteria (Section M)
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1) Cost 2) Performance 3) Schedule 4) Management 5) Past Performance
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What are the Competition Barriers
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1) Impediments across components 2) Unique/critical mission or technical requirements 3) Industry move toward consolidation 4) Urgent requirement in support of war operations 5) Congressional adds or earmarks 6) Proprietary data rights developed at private expense 7) Insufficient technical data packages 8) Contracting personnel shortages and increased workload 9) Time Restraints
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What are the 8 Technical Processes
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1) Stakeholder Requirements Definition 2) Requirements Analysis 3) Architecture Design 4) Implementation 5) Integration 6) Verification 7) Validation 8) Transition
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Translating stakeholder needs into Technical Requirements
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Stakeholder Requirements Definitions
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To improve understanding of requirements and their relationships
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Requirements Analysis
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To develop alternative design solutions and select a final design
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Architecture Design
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Creating (making, buying or reusing) low-level system elements
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Implementation
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Incorporation of lower-level system elements into higher level ones
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Integration
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Confirming system elements meet design-to or build-to specifications "Did we build it right”
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Verification
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Confirming system elements meets Stakeholder Requirements "Did we build the right thing”
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Validation
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Moving a system element to the next development stage or, for the End Product, to the user
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Transition
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What are the 8 Technical Management Processes
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1) Decision Analysis 2) Technical Planning 3) Technical Assessment 4) Requirements Management 5) Risk Management 6) Configuration Management 7) Technical Data Management 8) Interface Management
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Provides the basis for evaluation and selection of technical alternatives when decisions need to be made
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Decision Analysis
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Ensuring the proper application of Systems Engineering processes
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Technical Planning
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Measuring technical progress and the effectiveness of plans and requirements
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Technical Assessment Providing traceability of system and subsystem requirements ultimately back to user-defined capabilities and needs. Tracking and managing requirement changes
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Requirements Management
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Examination of the technical risk of deviating from program plans
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Risk Management
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The establishment and maintenance of the consistency of a product's attributes with its requirements and configuration information
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Configuration Management
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Planning for, acquiring, accessing, managing, protecting and using data of a technical nature for supporting the total life cycle of a system
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Technical Data Management
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Ensuring interface definition and compliance among Systems Engineer elements including other systems
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Interface Management
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The Preliminary Design Review (PDR), PDR Report; and Post-PDR Assessment done prior to:
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MS B (Technology Development Phase)
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System-level Critical Design Review (CDR) - accomplished during ___________________ Phase
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Engineering and Manufacturing Development (EMD)
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What phase of the Acquisition Life-cycle is the Allocated Baseline established
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Technology Development (TD)
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What phase of the Acquisition Life-cycle do you first see the Product Baseline
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Engineering Manufacturing Development (EMD)
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Provides access rights to various personnel to different portions of the data
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Data Management
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What are among the most common sources of failure in complex systems
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Interfaces
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What are the four verification methods
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1) Analysis 2) Examination 3) Demonstration 4) Testing
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What is the preferred verification method
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Testing
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Test and Evaluation Master Plan (TEMP) supports the ________________
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Systems Engineering Plan (SEP)
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What must the PM obtain approval at each Milestone (MS)
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Systems Engineering Plan (SEP)
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Configuration Management (CM) is addressed in the ________
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System Engineering Plan (SEP)
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A _______________ is a tool that allows managers to quickly determine the reliability and associated confidence level of a system based on the number of trials (sample size) and failures experienced during those trials, assuming the testing environment has met certain assumptions
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Nomograph
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In Performance-Based Life Cycle (Category 1) when the Provider/Contractor assumes least financial risk. How does this affect the (Goverment) PM
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(Goverment) PM assumes the Most Risk
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In Performance-Based Life Cycle (Category 4)Provider/Contractor assumes most financial risk. How does this affect the (Goverment) PM
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(Goverment) PM assumes the Least Risk
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What are the Software Systems Development Approaches
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1) Incremental 2) Spiral 3) Waterfall
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What Software Systems approach determines user needs and defines the overall architecture, but then delivers the system in a series of increments ("software builds")
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Incremental
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What Software Systems approach is a risk-driven controlled prototyping approach that develops prototypes early in the development process to specifically address risk areas followed by assessment of prototyping results and further determination of risk areas to prototype
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Spiral
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What Software Systems approach development activities are performed in order, with possibly minor overlap, but with little or no iteration between activities
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Waterfall
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What are the established baselines
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1) Functional: System Functional Review (SFR) (TD Phase) 2) Allocated: Preliminary Design Review (PDR)(Before MS B) (TD Phase) 3) Product: Critical Design Review (CDR) (Before MS C) (EM&D Phase)
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Issues address _______
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Now
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Risk addresses the ______
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Future
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Likelihood (of root cause) + Consequence =
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Risk Level
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What are the Risk Components
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1) Future Root Cause 2) Likelihood 3) Consequence
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What are the stages of the Risk Management Process
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1) Identification "What can go wrong" 2) Analysis "How big is the risk" 3) Mitigation Planning "What is the program approach for addressing this potential unfavorable consequence"4) Mitigation Plan Implementation "How can the planned risk mitigation be implemented" 5) Tracking "How are things going"
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What stage of the Risk Management Process ask: "What can go wrong"
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*Identification*
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What stage of the Risk Management Process ask:"How big is the risk"
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*Analysis*
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What stage of the Risk Management Process ask: "What is the program approach for addressing this potential unfavorable consequence
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Mitigation Planning
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What stage of the Risk Management Process ask: "How can the planned risk mitigation be implemented
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Mitigation Plan Implementation
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What stages of the Risk Management Process ask: "How are things going
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Tracking
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What is the program approach for addressing potential unfavorable consequence
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Risk Mitigation Planning
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What are the four types of Risk Mitigation
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1) Avoid 2) Control 3) Assume 4) **Transfer***
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Which risk mitigation plan eliminate the root cause
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Avoid
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Which risk mitigation plan decrease probability &/or consequence
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Control
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Which risk mitigation plan continue on path "Do nothing default"
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Assume
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Which risk mitigation plan uses (warranties, FP contracts, etc.) "MOSTOFTEN USED"
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Transfer
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In accordance with DoD Instruction 5000.02, PMs are required to conduct _______________ on All cost or incentive contracts that required EVM (contract value >$20M)
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Integrated Baseline Review (IBR)
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In accordance with DoD Instruction 5000.02, PMs are required to conduct Integrated Baseline Review (IBR) on All cost or incentive contracts that required EVM (contract value $___________ )
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(Greater Than) >$20M
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How many days after Contract Award would you conduct the Integrated Baseline Review (IBR)
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180 days
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At the end of an Integrated Baseline Review (IBR) you establish _____________
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Baseline
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This type of testing is Controlled by Program Manager, Controlled Environment, Contractor Environment and Trained, experienced operator
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Development Test
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This type of test is Controlled by Independent Agency, Realistic/Tactical environment with operational scenario, No system contractor involvement and User troops recently trained
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Operational Test
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What type a test is a Verification test
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Development Test
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What type of test is a Validation test
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Operational Test
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Who is in control of a Development/Verification Test
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Program Manager
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Who is in control of an Operational/ValidationTest
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Independent Agency
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