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94 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The aggregate of individual attitudes or beliefs shared by some portion of the adult population is called
a. public compromise.
b. a mandate.
c. survey data.
d. unanimous consent.
e. public opinion.
e
In looking at public opinion, because of the large number of people in the U.S., what we do is describe the ______ of opinions about a particular question.
a. bias
b. honesty
c. validity
d. distribution
e. severity
d
General agreement among the citizenry on an issue is
a. a consensus.
b. divisive opinion.
c. reconciliation.
d. poll agreement.
e. no longer public opinion.
a
If the results of an opinion poll look like the following: (Favor: 44%; Oppose: 45%; No opinion: 11%), the results show an example of _______ opinion.
a. consensus
b. divided
c. dubious
d. favorable
e. unified
b
Private opinion becomes public opinion when
a. that opinion, regardless of its subject matter, is publicly expressed.
b. it is publicly expressed and concerns public issues.
c. an individual is polled by a major polling organization.
d. it is not divided.
e. it is articulated to at least ten other people.
a
The process by which people acquire political beliefs and attitudes is called
a. opinion leadership.
b. political socialization.
c. agenda setting.
d. peer grouping.
e. consensus building.
b
The transmission of political values
a. is less likely to occur from children to parents.
b. is less likely to occur from parents to children.
c. is just as likely to occur from children to parents as it is to occur from parents to children.
d. is exceptionally rare in families.
e. never occurs from children to parents.
a
Generally, the more education a person receives, the more likely it is that the person will
a. opt out of the political process.
b. be interested in politics.
c. be misinformed about political issues.
d. vote only in national elections.
e. look to his or her children for information on political issues.
b
Political attitudes are more likely to be shaped by peer groups when
a. people are over the age of fifty.
b. it is not an election year.
c. people within the peer group do not have strong party identification.
d. the peer groups are involved directly in political activities.
e. members of the peer group are all of the same gender.
d
An opinion leader is
a. one who is able to influence the opinions of others because of position, expertise, or personality.
b. a pollster.
c. always someone whose job is to sway public opinion, such as a member of Congress.
d. a public relations expert.
e. someone who relies on position or expertise, rather than something like personality.
a
Determining which public policy questions will be debated or considered is a process known as
a. roll call.
b. subconscious influence.
c. lobbying.
d. media dominance.
e. agenda setting.
e
Many people contend that the media’s influence on public opinion
a. has remained constant.
b. is decreasing.
c. has grown to equal the influence of the family.
d. is negligible.
e. is not, nor has it ever been, a significant factor.
c
New forms of media
a. have decreased the polarization that characterizes American politics.
b. are all Internet-based.
c. were made possible by the enforcement of the Fairness Doctrine.
d. include talk radio and cable television.
e. are all equally influential.
d
Which of the following is TRUE regarding political socialization?
a. Older Americans tend to be more liberal than younger Americans.
b. The experience of marriage and raising a family has a measurable liberalizing effect.
c. A more important factor than age is the impact of momentous political events that shape the political attitudes of an entire generation.
d. Voters who grew up during the Great Depression were likely to form lifelong attachments to the Republican Party.
e. The years of economic prosperity under Ronald Reagan in the 1980s led many young people to identify with the Democratic Party.
c
The generational effect in politics refers to
a. the way in which political socialization produces opinions.
b. the increased tension between the two major political parties.
c. the tendency for persons to become more conservative as they grow older.
d. the long-lasting effect of the events of a particular time on the political opinions of those who came of age at that time.
e. the way in which the family influences voting.
d
Those with high incomes tend to
a. lean toward the left.
b. vote Democratic.
c. favor government action to promote economic equality .
d. oppose government intervention in the economy.
e. favor government action to benefit the poor.
d
Which of the following groups are more likely to vote Republican?
a. factory workers
b. union members
c. small-business owners
d. attorneys
e. college instructors
d
Jewish voters are notably
a. more likely to vote for candidates that are politically conservative.
b. more liberal than members of other groups on cultural issues, but more conservative on economic issues.
c. focused almost totally on domestic issues.
d. more liberal than members of other groups on both economic and cultural issues.
e. similar to the overall population in their political preferences.
b
In recent years, Protestants and Catholics have
a. both become more likely to abstain from voting.
b. both become more likely to vote Democratic.
c. moved toward Jewish voters politically.
d. moved farther apart from each other politically.
e. grown closer to each other politically.
e
African Americans of all religious tendencies have been
a. more likely than Catholics, but less likely than Protestants, to vote Republican.
b. in line with non-African American religious voters with regard to their voting tendencies.
c. evenly split between Republicans and Democrats.
d. strongly supportive of Democrats.
e. strongly supportive of Republicans.
d
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. The majority of Hispanic Americans vote Democratic.
b. Cuban Americans are usually Republican.
c. Most Asian American groups lean toward the Democrats.
d. A majority of Muslim Americans of Middle Eastern ancestry voted Republican in 2000.
e. African Americans have voted principally for Democrats since the 1880s.
e
The difference between the percentage of women who vote for a particular candidate and the percentage of men who vote for the candidate is called
a. the feminization of politics.
b. political socialization.
c. the ideology spectrum.
d. an opinion poll.
e. the gender gap.
e
Politically speaking, American women are
a. more likely than men to support capital punishment.
b. less likely than men to be concerned about the environment.
c. more likely than men to support social welfare programs.
d. more likely than men to support interventions abroad.
e. less likely than men to support extending civil rights to gay men and lesbians.
c
Currently, which of the following regions are more supportive of the Republicans than the Democrats?
a. the West Coast and the Northeast
b. the South and the Northeast
c. the South, the Great Plains, and several of the Rocky Mountain states
d. the Midwest and the West Coast
e. the West Coast, the Great Plains, and several of the Rocky Mountain states
c
People in large cities tend to be
a. evenly split between Republican and Democratic voters.
b. conservative and Republican.
c. liberal but vote Republican.
d. conservative but vote Democratic.
e. liberal and Democratic.
e
A method of systematically questioning a small, selected sample of respondents who are deemed representative of the total population is
a. sampling error.
b. an opinion poll.
c. a population census.
d. sampling bias.
e. data mining.
b
The principle of randomness in sampling means that
a. every person should have a known chance, and especially an equal chance, of being sampled.
b. there is no preplanning in the selection process.
c. every person in the target population who is encountered is selected.
d. researchers decide how many persons of certain types they need in the survey.
e. the poll is unscientific.
a
The survey technique where researchers decide how many persons of certain types they need and then send out interviewers to find the necessary number of those types is
a. quota sampling.
b. random sampling.
c. high-accuracy sampling.
d. snowball sampling.
e. existential sampling.
a
Usually, the Gallup and Roper polls interview
a. 3 percent of the U.S. population.
b. about 1,500 individuals.
c. over 100,000 individuals in each random sample for presidential elections.
d. people who have been selected based on their intelligence.
e. using quota samples.
b
The difference between a sample result and the true result if the entire population had been interviewed is
a. the generational effect.
b. the socioeconomic effect.
c. interviewer bias.
d. census error.
e. sampling error.
e
Sampling error can generally be controlled by
a. surveying more highly educated respondents.
b. processing survey results in a timely manner.
c. conducting telephone polls.
d. taking a large enough random sample.
e. taking a large enough quota sample.
d
The answers given by respondents to poll questions are influenced by all of the following EXCEPT
a. the order in which questions are asked.
b. wanting to please the interviewer.
c. a yes/no format that restricts the respondents’ choices.
d. the size of the sample.
e. the possible answers from which the respondents are allowed to choose.
d
Critical consumers should watch out for surveys with ______ and other types of skewed samples.
a. margins of error greater than one percent
b. large numbers of respondents
c. quota-sampled respondents
d. randomly-sampled respondents
e. self-selected respondents
e
36. Which of the following is NOT true of American political culture?
a. It can be described as a set of attitudes and ideas about the nation and government.
b. It consists of symbols such as the American flag, the Liberty Bell, and the Statue of Liberty.
c. It provides support for the political system.
d. It is only shared by Americans of similar backgrounds.
e. It includes shared beliefs about the most important values, including liberty, equality, and property.
d
The degree to which individuals express trust in political institutions is called
a. partisan identification.
b. political trust.
c. universal suffrage.
d. public opinion.
e. political mandate.
b
Since the early 1990s, the American public has consistently had more confidence in ____ than in any other institution that has been surveyed.
a. the military
b. the U.S. Supreme Court
c. the public schools
d. newspapers
e. Congress
a
The public tends to emphasize problems that are
a. long-term.
b. immediate.
c. education-related.
d. easily solved.
e. most likely to affect future generations.
b
Today, ______ of Americans use television news as their primary source of information.
a. less than 10 percent
b. 25 percent
c. 50 percent
d. 75 percent
e. more than 90 percent
e
By far, the greatest number of radio and television hours are dedicated to
a. identifying public problems.
b. reporting the news.
c. entertaining the public.
d. providing a political forum.
e. educating the public.
c
The public agenda is
a. decided by the public through ballot initiatives.
b. issues that are perceived by the political community as meriting public attention and governmental action.
c. never influenced by the mass media.
d. also called the Massachusetts ballot.
e. an explicit agreement among media providers about what topics to cover and how.
b
For the most part, the media depend on ______ for their revenues.
a. private endowments
b. state and local grants
c. federal grants
d. advertisers
e. individual consumers
d
A brief, memorable comment that can easily be fit into news broadcasts is a
a. falsehood.
b. story line.
c. multimedia platform.
d. sound bite.
e. unit of analysis.
d
Negative political ads can backfire when
a. there are only two candidates in the race.
b. there are three or more candidates in the race.
c. they mention atomic attacks.
d. they decrease the profitability of television station owners.
e. they are run by Democratic candidates.
d
A political advisor who tries to convince journalists of the truth of a particular interpretation of events is called a
a. news consultant.
b. flip-flopper.
c. spin doctor.
d. fact checker.
e. win engineer.
c
Blogs and the Internet have
a. improved candidates’ management of sound bites.
b. made it more difficult for candidates to manage the news coverage of their campaigns.
c. prevented news organizations from using video clips and other online materials.
d. had little effect on campaigns.
e. made it more difficult for campaigns to raise funds.
b
In 1996, Congress passed the ________ that had far-reaching implications for the communications industry.
a. Profanity Restriction Act
b. Cable TV Protection Act
c. Media Antitrust Act
d. Truth in Advertising Act
e. Telecommunications Act
e
An inclination or preference that interferes with impartial judgment is called
a. bias.
b. proprietary information.
c. spin.
d. public opinion.
e. intellectual programming.
a
Studies of bias in the media have reached
a. different conclusions: some found a liberal bias, while others found a conservative bias.
b. a clear conclusion: there is a liberal bias in the media.
c. a clear conclusion: there is a conservative bias in the media.
d. a clear conclusion: there is no bias in the media.
e. the conclusions that it is impossible to test for bias.
a
An interest group is
a. any association of individuals.
b. an organized group of individuals who want to gain control of the government.
c. an organized group of individuals sharing common objectives who actively attempt to influence policymakers.
d. any organization that requires members to pay dues.
e. an organized group of individuals who support a specific candidate for public office.
c
A political party is a group of political activists who
a. agree on all policy issues.
b. organize to win elections, operate the government, and determine public policy.
c. pay monthly dues to an ideological organization.
d. have been previously elected to office.
e. organize to stage protests.
b
A political party differs from an interest group in that
a. political parties want to operate the government and interest groups do not.
b. political parties do not want to operate the government and interest groups do.
c. individuals must pay dues to a political party but not to an interest group.
d. individuals in a political party agree on all major policy issues.
e. political parties are protected by the First Amendment and the right to join an interest group is not.
a
Lobbyists are best defined as
a. any association of individuals.
b. representatives of one of the two major political parties.
c. organizations or individuals who attempt to influence legislation and the government’s administrative decisions.
d. members of Congress who challenge the majority position.
e. members of the congressional leadership who are in a position to shape the legislative agenda in a way that benefits powerful interest groups.
c
A movement that represents the demands of a large segment of the population for political, economic, or social change is called a
a. radical movement.
b. subversive movement.
c. public movement.
d. popular mandate.
e. social movement.
e
More interest groups are formed to represent ______ interests than any other set of interests.
a. economic
b. social
c. liberal
d. environmental
e. professional
a
Umbrella groups” represent
a. collections of businesses or other entities.
b. umbrella manufacturers.
c. only small businesses.
d. only manufacturing businesses.
e. only international entities looking to do business with U.S. companies.
a
Which types of interest groups are defined as economic interest groups?
a. business, labor, and public-interest groups
b. labor, agriculture, and single-issue groups.
c. business, labor, and professional organizations.
d. business, labor, and foreign governments.
e. professionals, agriculture, and foreign governments.
c
______ interest groups have probably been more successful than any other groups in obtaining subsidies from American taxpayers.
a. Public safety
b. Environmental
c. Professional organization
d. Economic
e. Agricultural
e
Because of the decline in the ______ sector of the economy, national unions are looking to nontraditional areas for their membership.
a. nonprofit
b. migrant worker
c. agricultural
d. industrial
e. service
d
The American Bar Association and the American Medical Association are examples of
a. interest groups that do not engage in lobbying.
b. interest groups with small memberships (less than 1,000 members).
c. interest groups with relatively little influence.
d. interest groups of professionals.
e. public-interest groups.
d
Some have argued that the system of interest group politics leaves out
a. upper-middle-class Americans.
b. poor Americans.
c. professional workers.
d. public sector workers.
e. the interests of consumers.
b
The Audubon Society and the National Wildlife Federation are examples of
a. environmental interest groups.
b. economic interest groups.
c. agricultural interest groups.
d. relatively ineffective interest groups.
e. professional interest groups.
a
All of the following statements about public-interest groups are true EXCEPT
a. a variety of lobbying organizations have been formed “in the public interest.”
b. the best-known and perhaps most effective public-interest groups are those founded under the leadership of consumer activist Ralph Nader.
c. public-interest groups work for issues that will benefit only the narrow interests of a particular group.
d. public-interest groups are concerned with the overall community.
e. conservative public-interest groups have formed in response to Nader organizations.
c
Common Cause, a public-interest group,
a. helped with ratification of the Eighteenth Amendment to the Constitution, establishing prohibition.
b. exists in order to obtain a major revision of the Internal Revenue Service.
c. works to make governmental institutions more responsive to the needs of the public.
d. is one of the smallest public-interest groups.
e. is free to join.
c
This is TRUE of single-issue interest groups.
a. They focus on goals to help those people who are not married.
b. They include the Consumer Federation of America, an alliance of nonprofit organizations interested in consumer protection.
c. They are mostly related to health care.
d. They are narrowly focused with simple and straightforward goals.
e. They are mostly founded by Ralph Nader.
d
The National Right to Life Committee and the National Rifle Association are examples of
a. economic interest groups.
b. single-interest groups.
c. public-interest groups.
d. foreign interest groups.
e. fringe interest groups.
b
When it comes to influencing the U.S. government, foreign governments
a. only engage in lobbying when the nation they are representing is large.
b. frequently hire former members of Congress to promote their positions on Capitol Hill.
c. engage only in official diplomatic processes.
d. are rarely interested in policy debates concerning trade issues.
e. are prohibited by law from attempting to influence U.S. policy.
b
Successful interest groups and their representatives try to cultivate long-term relationships with
a. foreign ambassadors.
b. legislators and government officials.
c. federal judges.
d. business leaders.
e. police commissioners and chiefs of police.
b
When an interest group and its lobbyists approach officials personally to present their case, they are engaging in
a. closed-door negotiations.
b. a breach of trust.
c. illegal fraternizing.
d. indirect techniques.
e. direct techniques.
e
With indirect techniques, an interest group
a. testifies before a Congressional committee.
b. lobbies for legislation its members might not approve of.
c. uses the general public or individual constituents to influence government officials.
d. approaches officials personally in an attempt to influence them.
e. suggests nominations for federal appointments to the executive branch.
c
______ are a shorthand way of describing congressional members’ voting records for interested citizens.
a. Newspaper op-eds
b. Official legislator evaluations
c. Ratings
d. “Astroturf lobbying” activities
e. Power rankings
c
Interest groups recognize that the greatest concern of legislators is to
a. support the principles of their political party.
b. be reelected.
c. vote for the ideas of the constituents.
d. be totally informed on issues they will have to vote on.
e. please the congressional leadership.
b
When interest groups try to generate public pressure, this activity is intended to
a. convince policymakers that public opinion supports the group’s position.
b. mislead the public on environmental issues.
c. bypass the legislative process.
d. force bureaucrats to answer to Congressional committees.
e. lobby lawmakers directly.
a
Legislation to reform the regulation of federal lobbying in 1995 resulted in all of the following EXCEPT
a. lobbyists were forced to register.
b. lobbying efforts had to be disclosed in semiannual reports.
c. the Senate adopted a flat ban on gifts provided by lobbyists.
d. a lobbyist was defined as someone who spent at least 20 percent of his or her time lobbying Congress, their staffs, or executive-branch officials.
e. the House adopted a flat ban on gifts provided by lobbyists.
b
A voter or a candidate who does NOT identify with a political party is called
a. a naysayer.
b. an independent.
c. a liberal.
d. a conservative.
e. a libertarian.
b
Which of the following is TRUE regarding political party membership?
a. One must pay dues to be a member of a political party.
b. An oath of allegiance is required by most political parties from its members.
c. To be a member of a political party, one must be a card-carrying member.
d. Nothing is required to be a member of a political party.
e. One must pass an examination to be a member of a political party.
d
A group or bloc in a legislature or political party acting in pursuit of some special interest or position is called a(n)
a. minority opinion.
b. independent party.
c. exclusive committee.
d. interest group.
e. faction.
e
Functions of political parties in the United States include all of the following EXCEPT
a. accepting responsibility for operating the government.
b. acting as the organized opposition to the party in power.
c. signing up large numbers of committed, dues-paying members.
d. recruiting candidates for public office.
e. presenting alternative policies to the electorate.
c
A political system in which only two parties have a reasonable chance of winning is called
a. a bipartisan government.
b. a two-party system.
c. a bicameral system.
d. bifurcated government.
e. representative democracy.
b
The first partisan political division in the United States was between
a. the Democrats and the Republicans.
b. the Whigs and the Democrats.
c. the Federalists and the Anti-Federalists.
d. the Whigs and the Tories.
e. the Whigs and the Republicans.
c
George Washington viewed political parties as a
a. necessity for the functioning of democracy.
b. tradition from colonial times that would always exist.
c. threat to national unity and the concept of popular government.
d. legitimate means for interest groups to attempt to gain control of the government.
e. vestige of politics under Great Britain and thus a thing of the past.
c
Under Woodrow Wilson, the Democratic Party
a. rejected progressivism.
b. continued to adhere to the same basic policies that it did in the nineteenth century.
c. began a radical change by becoming at least as receptive as the Republicans to government action in the economy.
d. permanently split into three antagonistic factions.
e. adopted a policy of isolating the United States from the affairs of the rest of the world.
c
Which of the following is TRUE regarding politics and the Great Depression?
a. The Great Depression shattered the working-class belief in Democratic economic competence.
b. Hoover supported federal relief for the unemployed and the destitute.
c. Roosevelt’s relief programs were generally not available to African Americans, resulting in African Americans’ antagonism toward the Democratic Party that lasted for decades.
d. The Great Depression shattered the working-class belief in Republican economic competence.
e. The Republican ascendancy lasted from the early 1930s until the late 1960s.
d
After 1968, there was a slow-motion realignment that left the nation
a. less divided politically than ever before.
b. majority independent.
c. majority Democratic.
d. majority Republican.
e. almost evenly divided in politics.
e
A major development in the run-up to the 2010 elections was the growth of the ______ movement.
a. Tea Party
b. Socialist
c. Atheist
d. Neo-Whig
e. Labor
a
The party organization is
a. the members of the general public who identify with a political party.
b. the formal structure and leadership of a political party.
c. all of the elected and appointed officials who identify with a party.
d. the urban machines that distribute social benefits.
e. responsible only for mundane matters such as printing signs and scheduling events.
b
As part of the national party organization, the national convention
a. is held every two years.
b. officially nominates the presidential and vice-presidential candidates.
c. is inconspicuous and held behind closed doors.
d. gets rid of members who have failed to support the party.
e. passes legislation that will prevent the development of third parties.
b
The document drawn up at each national convention outlining the policies, positions, and principles of the party is called the
a. rulebook.
b. statement of intent.
c. party platform.
d. national promise.
e. political covenant.
c
For a political party, the national committee
a. is not authorized to play any role in financing the party’s activities.
b. is the strongest and most powerful part of the party.
c. is dissolved after presidential elections.
d. chooses the party’s nominee for president.
e. directs and coordinates party activities between national party conventions.
e
The practice of rewarding faithful party workers and followers with government employment and contracts is called
a. patronage.
b. nepotism.
c. horse-trading.
d. equal opportunity.
e. incentivizing.
a
Divided government is best understood as
a. the situation when a person votes for candidates of two parties for different offices.
b. the situation when the presidency and Congress are controlled by different parties.
c. another name for federalism.
d. increasing the control of the winning party in an election.
e. the indication of a strong party identification among voters.
b
What is a plurality system?
a. Whoever gets the most votes wins.
b. Candidates must get more than 50 percent of votes cast to win.
c. Votes are allocated to candidates on a proportional basis.
d. Only parties receiving more than 5 percent of the vote are allocated seats.
e. A party must have competed in a previous election to be placed on the ballot.
a
Many political scientists believe that third parties
a. have consistently failed because they never reflect the political mood of the nation.
b. have acted as safety valves for dissident groups, preventing major confrontations and political unrest.
c. can only come into existence if they are organized around a single charismatic leader.
d. can only come into existence if they split off from one of the major political parties.
e. are incapable of being formed from scratch by individuals who are committed to a particular issue or ideology.
b
One of the main ways third parties have influenced American politics is by
a. refusing to allow their policies to be adopted by a major party.
b. sometimes determining the outcome of an election by pulling votes from one of the major-party candidates.
c. focusing their efforts on getting judges appointed to the bench rather than winning elections for the executive or legislative branches.
d. winning elections to state legislative bodies.
e. gaining control of several municipal governments.
b
Which of the following is TRUE regarding voting habits?
a. Straight-ticket voting is now nearly universal.
b. The number of voters who identify as independents has never been greater.
c. Party identification has been increasing.
d. Most voters who call themselves independents are true independents who do not lean toward either party.
e. Split-ticket voting is declining.
d