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148 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
There are two types of "preflight inspections" a "detailed inspection" and a "general inspection", when is a detailed inspection required?
Prior to the first flight of the day, after significant Mx has been performed or anytime the aircraft's condition is in question
What does an item with an asterisk (*) next to it indicate on the "Preflight Inspection"?
An item must be checked during the aircraft security search as directed by the FOM.
Before conducting the "APU Fire Test" during the Flight Deck Safety Check, what must you ensure?
Before commencing the fire test, ensure that there is no APU FIRE FAIL caution message on the EICAS primary page.
What is the minimum voltage required on the APU and main batteries prior to starting the APU?
22 volts
At what %RPM does the APU starter normally cut out during an APU start?
50% RPM
When does the APU Green "AVAIL" indication light illuminate?
95% RPM +4 seconds
What does the APU Green "AVAIL" light mean?
The AVAIL light indicates that the APU is available for bleed-air extraction
After the APU is started, how long must you wait before applying bleed air loads?
2 minutes, except when the APU is used for emergencies or abnormal conditions.
What does the " * " next to items mean on the Flight Deck Inspection?
First Flight of Day Items.
What precaution must be taken prior to turning hydraulic pump 3A on during the Safety Check?
Confirm the Nose Wheel Area is clear or Nose Door Closed.
How quickly must AC electrical power be established after the Battery Master switch has been turned on?
5 minutes, to prevent EICAS overheating
Reference the Cleared to Start Check "Boxed Items". When checking the "Fuel Check Valve", what is the procedure if you do not get the R FUEL LO PRESS caution message after 20 seconds?
-Initiate the right engine start
-Prior to introducing fuel to the R ENG, the R FUEL LO PRESS caution message should display momentarily as residual fuel pressure is reduced.
If during the above procedure you still do not get the R FUEL LO PRESS message, what should you do?
Discontinue the R ENG START and notify maintenance.
When can the Wing ANTI-ICE Test be completed?
The Wing anti-Ice Test can only be performed with both engines operating.
When conducting Singe Engine Taxi Procedures, when should the second engine be started?
This checklist is accomplished when approximately number four for take off, but no less than two minutes prior to departure.
Who does the Second Engine Start Checklist during single engine taxi?
The checklist is only accomplished during normal single engine taxi operations by the First Officer.
During APU shut down, what %RPM must the APU be below before selecting the APU PWR FUEL Switch light off?
What is the minimum fuel for takeoff?
Minimum Fuel for takeoff is calculated by adding BURN, ALTN and RESV fuels from the dispatch release.
When are the recognition and ice light required to be ON?
Recognition and ice lights are required for all operations conducted below 10,000 feet, as long as their use does not create a distraction to the Flight Crew.
When are the boxed items on the CLIMB CHECK completed?
The boxed items are performed upon reaching 10,000 feet MSL, or cruise altitude if lower.
When is the DESCENT CHECK completed?
Once the descent preparation is completed, the Crew performs the Descent Check. It is normally initiated after passing through FL180 (transition) but prior to entering the destination terminal area.
When is the APPROACH CHECK completed, and who completes it?
Normally, this checklist is called for by the pilot flying and accomplished by the pilot monitoring upon descending through 10,000 feet MSL.
When is it required to start the APU during the Approach Check?
If icing conditions are expected, start the APU and transfer the 10th stage bleeds to the APU.
When completing the After Landing Checklist, when are we required to leave the flaps to 20 degrees?
If the approach was made in icing conditions or if the runway was covered with slush or snow, limit retraction to 20 degrees.
What is the purpose of the "Exit Checklist"?
To leave the aircraft powered and unattended for short periods of time.
What is the purpose of the "Termination Check"?
To remove electrical power from the aircraft.
What is the difference between the Termination and Exit Checklists or what determines which to perform after the Shutdown Checklist?
Time. If leaving aircraft unattended for 5 minutes to 1 hour- Exit Check. Greater than 1 hour - Termination Check.
What are the required certificates, to operate as SIC?
-A Commercial pilot Certificate, with appropriate SIC type rating
-Instrument Rating
-Airplane Multi-engine Land Class Rating
-A valid Second Class Medical Certificate
-Company issued photo ID
-FCC License
-Valid Passport
When must a Crewmember turn in a copy of their new medical?
Medical Certificates should be turned in to the Chief Pilot's Office on or before the twenty-fifth (25th) of the expiration month of the old medical.
How long is a Temporary Certificate Valid?
Temporary Airman Certificates are valid for no more than one hundered-twenty (120) days from the date of issuance.
How many days after your address changes must you notify the FAA?
Each Flight Crewmember must notify the FAA within thirty (30) days of a change in their permanent mailing address.
No Crewmember is allowed to consume alcohol, including beer and wine (including deadheading Crewmembers) within how many hours prior to duty?
10 hours, 8 hours for training.
Crewmembers are not allowed to take Viagra within how many hours prior to flying?
12 hours
After donating blood or a transfusion, how long is a Crewmember restricted from flying?
24 hours
Crewmembers are strongly recommended to refrain from scuba diving within how many hours of any scheduled flight duty?
24 hours
What is the policy on commercial flying outside Pinnacle Airlines?
No Company Flight Crewmember may engage in commercial flying other than that performed for the company.
What is the required report time for duty while at your Domicile?
Flight Crewmembers are required to report for duty a minimum of forty-five (45) minutes prior to scheduled departure time.
What is the required report time for duty while at an Outstation?
Flight Crewmembers are required to report for duty a minimum of thirty (30) minutes prior to scheduled departure time at the departure gate of their scheduled flight.
How many hours can a Crewmember be scheduled to fly between required rest periods?
8 hours
How many hours can a Crewmember be scheduled in seven (7) consecutive days?
30 hours
How many hours can a Crewmember be scheduled in a calendar month?
100 hours
How many hours can a Crewmember be scheduled in a calendar year?
1000 hours
What is the maximum duty time a Crewmember is allowed to work?
16 hours
What is the minimum required rest for a Crewmember that has exceeded a fifteen (15) hour duty period?
A minimum of ten (10) hours, prior to commencing FAR Part 121 revenue operations.
How many hours must a pilot fly, for consolidation of knowledge, upon completing their initial proficiency check or type rating if new to an aircraft type?
100 hours line operation within 120 days.
Can a First Officer with less than 100 hours conduct a CAT II approach?
No, First Officers must have 100 hours in type, at Pinnacle, for CAT II operations.
What are the landing requirements for Flight Crewmembers?
Three (3) takeoffs and landings within the last 90 days in the aircraft type in which the Flight Crewmember is to serve.
When a second-in-command has less than 100 hours of flight time in revenue operations for the Company as Second-In-Command in the type airplane being flown, and the PIC is not a Check Airman, the PIC must make all takeoffs and landings under what conditions?
-Prevailing vis in the latest weather report for the airport is at or below 3/4 mile.
-RVR for the runway is at or below 4000 feet
-Runway to be used has water, snow, slush, or similar conditions that my adversely affect aircraft performance
-Braking action on the runway to be used is reported less than "Good"
-Crosswind component for the runway to be used is greater than 15kts
-Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport
-Any other conditions the PIC deems appropriate
When is the Fasten Seatbelt sign required to be "ON"?
While the aircraft is taxiing, during takeoff and landing operations, and during turbulent air conditions.
What is the minimum safe rate of climb must you be able to maintain before reporting it to ATC?
500 Feet Per Minute
What does the term "Minimum Fuel" mean?
The Term "Minimum Fuel" is used to advise ATC the existing fuel supply is sufficient to complete the flight providing undue delays are not encountered.
Are illuminated hand wands required for marshalling the aircraft at night?
Yes, illuminated wands are required at night without exception.
What is the maximum the Fuel on Board can be over the Release Fuel and not require and amended release?
How do we determine whether we need an "Alternate" at a non-CAT II airport?
-When the destination weather from 1 hour before to one hour after the ETA is forecast to be at least 2000 ft. agl and 3 mi visibility.
-Captain/Dispatcher determines or requests one
-Braking action reports is poor/nil
-Crosswind component is greater than 25kts.
-"CA or Dispatcher Brakes Wind on a Canadian Charter"
When do we need to file a "Takeoff Alternate"?
A takeoff alternate must be specified on the release unless, after takeoff, the Crew would be legal to return to land at the departure airport given the current weather conditions, airplane status, and Crew qualifications.
What are the requirements for a takeoff alternate?
Takeoff alternates must not be more than one hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. Takeoff alternate airport and weather conditions must meet the requirements described in the "Alternate Weather Minimums" section of the FOM.
Unless an emergency exists what is the lowest reported braking action report we are allowed to land with?
What does a braking action report of "NIL" mean?
A braking action report of "NIL" on a specific runway would preclude operations on that runway but would not preclude operations on different runways or taxiways.
How many types of hydroplaning are there that Flight Crews can experience?
Three: Dynamic, Viscous and Reverted Rubber
What are the primary sources of electrical power?
Two engine and one APU driven generators.
What is the normal source of DC power?
Five Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs)
How many batteries are installed and where are they located?
Two nicad batteries located in the aft equipment bay.
Under what conditions should an IDG automatically disconnect from the engine?
If an over temperature or over torque condition occurs.
How can an IDG be manually disconnected from its engine?
By pressing the IDG DISC switch on the Electrical Services Panel.
Once disconnected, can the IDG be reconnected in flight?
What does a green AVAIL light illuminated on the AC External switchlight indicate?
Power is connected and is of correct phase, voltage, and frequency.
What is the function of the AC ESS XFER switchlight?
To manually transfer, or indicate autmatic transfer of the AC ESS Bus to an alternate source. The light indicates that the AC ESS bus is not powered from its normal source (AC Bus 1)
When will power to the AC Essential Bus automatically switch from AC Bus 1 to AC Bus2?
When AC Bus 1 is not powered.
What is the power source priority for AC Bus1, AC Bus2?
AC Bus 1-IDG 1, APU, IDG 2, External power

AC Bus 2-IDG 2, APU, IDG 1, External power
How can AUTO XFER be manually inhibited?
By pushing the AUTO XFER switchlight on the electrical services panel.
Which DC BUS TIE will not operate automatically?
What is the function of the DC SERVICE switch?
It controls power to the DC Services.
IF AC external power is to be utilized, explain how AC power is properly established?
If the green AVAIL light is illuminated, press the external AC switchlight to supply the electrical system.
What areas are protected by the fire and overheat detection system?
Engines, jetpipe, pylon, APU and main landing gear.
How many Firex bottles are provided for engine fire extinguishing?
2 Halon bottles.
How many Firex bottles are provided for APU fire extinguishing?
1 Halon bottle.
When will APU fire extinguishing activate automatically?
On the ground in the event of an APU fire.
What powers the fuel system ejector pumps (transfer, scavenger, main)?
Motive flow.
How can fuel be manually transferred from the left wing tank to the right wing tank?
Normal crossflow is automatic, but manual crossflow is accomplished by selecting the XFLOW AUTO OVERRIDE to MAN, then selecting the wing you wish to send fuel to (R XFLOW). Fuel can also be balanced using GRVITY XFLOW valve.
When is automatic fuel transfer initiated (wing tank to wing tank)?
When 200-lb imbalance exist.
How is fuel transferred from the center tank to the wing tanks?
Through motive flow (transfer ejectors)
An Amber FUEL BALANCE caution message is displayed when?
When the fuel imbalance reaches 800-lbs.
Where is the engine fuel feed temperature displayed?
On the fuel synoptic page.
Where is bulk fuel temperature displayed?
On the fuel synoptic page.
Can fuel be transferred from the center tank to the wing tanks with the engines shut down?
No, needs motive flow (transfer ejectors).
Are the fuel check valves that are checked during the first flight of the day checks depicted on the FUEL synoptic page?
How are the primary flight controls actuated?
Hydraulic power.
The rudder system is powered by which hydraulic system?
All three systems.
How many hydraulic systems are there on the CRJ?
Which of the hydraulic systems have engine driven pumps as well as electric pumps?
Systems 1 & 2.
What does the AUTO position on HYD 1 & 2 and 3B do?
Causes the B pumps to operate when their respective bus is powered, the associated generator is operating and the flaps are out of 0 degrees.
Do the B pumps activate automatically after an engine failure?
What happens to ACMP 2B if the left engine fails?
Cross side ACMPs are load shed when the opposite side generator fails.
Which ACMP runs continuously during normal operations?
With both IDGs operating and pumps 1B and 2B selected to the AUTO position, when will the pumps operate?
When the flaps are out of the 0 degree position.
Which hydraulic pump automatically operates from the ADG Bus during ADG deployment?
Pump 3B
How does the crew know there is adequate hydraulic fluid and quantity?
By checking the HYD synoptic page, and verifying fluid quantities are green.
What is the Normal/usual Hydraulic quantities?
Normally, green quantity indications.
If the left engine fails or is shut down, which hydraulic pumps will NOT be available?
Pumps 1 EDP and 2B.
What does the EICAS caution message "ELT ON" mean?
ELT is transmitting.
How is cabin pressurization maintained?
Cabin pressurization is maintained be regulating the amount of air leaked through two outflow valves located at the bottom of the aft pressure bulkhead.
What does the LND ELEV knob on the pressurization control panel do?
Sets the landing elevation on the status page.
What happens when EMER DEPR switchlight is pressed on?
Pressing the EMER DEPR switchlight causes the Cabin Pressure Controller to drive outflow valves to full open, climbing the cabin to 14,250 +/- 750 feet.
What does pressing the PRESS CONTROL switchlight twice do?
Switches Pressure Controllers.
Flying at FL200, the EMER DEPRESS switchlight is pressed, what pressure altitude should the cabin reach?
14,250 +/- 750 feet.
Where is the unpressurized takeoff procedure found?
Where is the unpressurized landing procedure found?
When might you be required to perform an unpressurized takeoff?
APU deferred and either the airport analysis requires bleeds closed or the anti-ice is being used for takeoff.
Under what conditions might you have to perform an unpressurized landing?
APU deferred and with the airport analysis requires bleeds closed or the anti-ice is being used for landing.
What is the maximum cabin pressure differential for opening the cabin door at the gate?
The cabin must be completely depressurized prior to opening any of the airplane doors.
What does the FAN position on the CARGO switch provide?
Recirculated cabin exhaust air to the cargo compartment.
What does the COND AIR position of the CARGO switch provide?
Recirculated cabin exhaust air mixed with fresh air warmed by a thermal heater to the cargo bay area.
When is COND AIR required to be used in the CARGO compartment?
When live cargo is carried.
Why does the "CARGO OVERHEAT" abnormal procedure have you select the FAN position?
Overheat protection is only provided in COND AIR, power for the over-temperature circuit is removed when in FAN.
What happens to the pack during a "PACK HI PRESS" condition?
The affected pack turns off, the 10th stage isolation valve. pack valve and the associated 10th stage shutoff valve close when the engine is supplied bleed air.
What happens to the pack during a "PACK HI TEMP" condition?
The affected pack turns off.
What is the bleed air source for the wing and cowl anti-ice?
14th stage bleed air.
With the APU deferred what procedures need to be used when operating in icing condition?
Since both 10th and 14th stage bleed air cannot be extracted from the engine at the same time, if anti-ice has to be used for takeoff or landing, the unpressurized takeoff or landing procedure must be accomplished.
What does the red OVHT light in the wing OVHT/DUCT FAIL indicate?
Associated with an EICAS warning message and indicates and overheat condition in either the left or right wing anti-ice duct.
What is PTOG?
Planned Takeoff Gross Weight.
How much fuel is required to be boarded for flight?
Release fuel, +200/-0
How much fuel is required to takeoff?
Fuel to destination, plus alternate (if required), plus reserve.
What does the "decision fuel 2.6" on the release mean?
When the EFOA reaches 2600#'s, there is enough fuel to continue to destination, plus alternate (if required), plus reserve fuel. This is the point that operational decisions are executed.
What does "minimum fuel 1.4" on the release mean?
When EFOA reaches 1400#'s, minimum fuel is declared. There is enough fuel to continue to destination plus 30mins. No delays can be accepted.
What does "emergency fuel 1.0" on the release mean?
When EFOA reaches 1000#'s, and emergency is declared. There is enough fuel to continue to destination plus 20 mins.
During flight, fuel planning should ensure landing with at least what minimum amount?
Reserve fuel.
On the closeout MGL, what is an RTOG?
Most restrictive weight of: Runway limit, climb limit, structural limit.
What is Flex ROTG?
The max weight that the assumed (flex) temperature can be used for takeoff.
What is XOTG?
The maximum takeoff weight gross weight considering all limiting factors. (ROTG, landing limit, max zero fuel weight limit, flight plan limit)
What is a landing limit?
The maximum takeoff weight that allows a landing at destination and alternate considering planned fuel burn. (Landing Weight Limited)
What is a flight plan limit?
The maximum takeoff weight based on PTOG + 500 pounds.
How do we get contaminated runway data for landing?
In addition for normal landing calculations for a wet runway, contaminated charts in CFM ch. 8 must be used.
What is the primary function of the APU?
To provide AC electrical power.
What is the secondary function of the APU?
To provide pneumatic power to the 10th stage manifold system.
What DC voltage is required to start the APU from battery power?
22 volts.
What does the white START light illuminated in the APU PWR FUEL switchlight indicate?
APU start motor is engaged.
What does the green AVAIL light illuminating in the APU PWR FUEL switchlight indicate?
APU is available for bleed air extraction.
What indications are you looking for when the START/STOP switch is pressed for APU start?
Amber START light switch illuminates, APU START status message appears, and at 50% RPM, START light and status message go out.
What 4 indications are you looking for when the APU PWR FUEL switch is pushed?
APU IN BITE status message, APU SOV OPEN status message, APU gauges appear and APU door opens.
During APU start, at what RPM should the white status APU START and the START light in the START/STOP switchlight go out?
What does amber - - - to the right of the APU DOOR status indicate (on the status page)?
APU door position is unknown.
If the APU is being used for air conditioning what are the proper bleed switch positions?
When shutting down the APU, and transferring the bleed source from the APU to the engines, what is the correct switch sequence?
Above what RPM may the starter not be engaged?
Under what conditions will both ignition systems be activated regardless of switch position?
During a Stall Warning or if the CONT IGNITION switchlight has been selected.
What does 10th stage bleed air supply?
Engine starting, air conditioning, pressurization and avionics cooling.
What does 14th stage bleed air supply?
Wing and cowl anti-ice systems and thrust reversers.
What are the two ways/methods to calculate Pilot Descent Points?
Timed Method:
Subtract 10% of the HAT from the calculated time to MAP.

Distance Method:
Divide the HAT by glideslope X 100.

Reference CFM 10-38