Pilot Exam Questions 1

Front 1

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is

Back 1

500 feet.

Front 2

No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than

Back 2

3 miles.

Front 3

The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a

Back 3

review of the maintenance records.

Front 4

During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?

Back 4

Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.

Front 5

Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to

Back 5

decrease engine performance.

Front 6

During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?

Back 6

Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight.

Front 7

Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?

Back 7

When standard atmospheric conditions exist.

Front 8

Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of

Back 8

stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.

Front 9

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?

Back 9

Continuous updraft.

Front 10

What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?

Back 10

Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.

Front 11

Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?

Back 11

Steam fog.

Front 12

Which items are included in the empty weight of an aircraft?

Back 12

Unusable fuel and undrainable oil.

Front 13

During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

Back 13

The other aircraft is crossing to the left.

Front 14

To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating an aircraft's position, the aircraft must have a

Back 14

VHF transmitter and receiver.

Front 15

What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?

Back 15

Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace.

Front 16

The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is

Back 16

heavy, clean, and slow.

Front 17

The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by

Back 17

having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs.

Front 18

A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is defined as

Back 18

spatial disorientation.

Front 19

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Resignation"?

Back 19

I am not helpless.

Front 20

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?

Back 20

Normal, utility, acrobatic.

Front 21

Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?

Back 21

VA.

Front 22

Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service?

Back 22

Private or Commercial pilot.

Front 23

What is the definition of a high-performance airplane?

Back 23

An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.

Front 24

Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least

Back 24

1,000 feet and 3 miles.

Front 25

No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with

Back 25

.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

Front 26

In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to

Back 26

determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.

Front 27

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight

Back 27

except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.

Front 28

What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?

Back 28

The aircraft on the left shall give way.

Front 29

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

Back 29

Aircraft towing other aircraft.

Front 30

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

Back 30

Glider.

Front 31

When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

Back 31

200 knots.

Front 32

Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall

Back 32

maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.

Front 33

An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in

Back 33

Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.

Front 34

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?

Back 34

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

Front 35

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?

Back 35

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

Front 36

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is

Back 36

2,000 feet.

Front 37

What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?

Back 37

3 miles.

Front 38

The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is

Back 38

500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

Front 39

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is

Back 39

500 feet.

Front 40

The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the

Back 40

owner or operator.

Front 41

If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated

Back 41

with passengers aboard.

Front 42

Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

Back 42

Flight control system malfunction or failure.

Front 43

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days?

Back 43

10.

Front 44

The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the

Back 44

propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.

Front 45

If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with

Back 45

too much power and with the mixture set too lean.

Front 46

The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the

Back 46

difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.

Front 47

The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to

Back 47

decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.

Front 48

While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?

Back 48

The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.

Front 49

The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting

Back 49

a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.

Front 50

With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be

Back 50

more susceptible to icing.

Front 51

Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when

Back 51

the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.

Front 52

Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?

Back 52

Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating.

Front 53

What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?
Your answer:

Back 53

The next higher octane aviation gas.

Front 54

Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will

Back 54

prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.

Front 55

An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by

Back 55

the oil level being too low.

Front 56

How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?

Back 56

Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.

Front 57

Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the

Back 57

magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.

Front 58

In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate

Back 58

correctly when on a north or south heading.

Front 59

An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be

Back 59

difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition.

Front 60

Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be

Back 60

less stable at all speeds.

Front 61

Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a

Back 61

heat exchange.

Front 62

What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points?

Back 62

Unequal heating of the Earth's surface.

Front 63

The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by

Back 63

terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night.

Front 64

If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type clouds can be expected?

Back 64

Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence.

Front 65

In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate?

Back 65

Freezing rain.

Front 66

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

Back 66

Precipitation beginning to fall.

Front 67

Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?

Back 67

An abbreviated briefing.

Front 68

What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms?

Back 68

Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers.

Front 69

Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms?

Back 69

SIGMET.

Front 70

When the term 'light and variable' is used in reference to a Winds Aloft Forecast, the coded group and windspeed is

Back 70

9900 and less than 5 knots.

Front 71

When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state

Back 71

the aircraft identification or the pilot’s name .

Front 72

A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to

Back 72

avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.

Front 73

Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot

Back 73

be at the controls in the cockpit.

Front 74

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use

Back 74

peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing.

Front 75

To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, then click it

Back 75

five times.

Front 76

When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?

Back 76

1200.

Front 77

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use

Back 77

a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector.

Front 78

Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as

Back 78

altitude increases.

Front 79

A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is defined as

Back 79

spatial disorientation.

Front 80

What is it often called when a pilot pushes his or her capabilities and the aircraft's limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceiling?

Back 80

Scud running.

Front 81

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Macho"?

Back 81

Taking chances is foolish.

Front 82

Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate?

Back 82

The pilot.