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182 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Tears flowing across eyeball helps wash away foreign particles, help with diffusion of O2 & CO2 and contain bactericidal enzyme
Lacrimal Apparatus
______ is perception of light emitted or reflected from objects in the environment
Vision (sight)
*Light enters the eye through the pupil
*Light must pass through the lens to form tiny inverted image on retina
Formation of an Image
______ stimulation narrows the pupil
parasympathetic
_______ stimulation widens the pupil to admit more light
sympathetic
* Posterior layer of retina is pigment epithelium

* Photoreceptors cells are next layer
Retinal Cells
Retinal Cells for night vision?
Rod cells
Retinal Cells for color vision in bright light?
Cone cells
Visual pigment of the rod cells is called:
rhodopsin (visual purple)
2 major parts to rhodopsin

-protein called (1)
-vitamin A derivative called (2)
1. opsin

2. retinal
Cones contain ________
-3 kinds of cones absorbing
different wavelengths of light
produce color vision
photopsin
Describe the Photochemical Reaction in Rod Cells.
When rhodopsin absorbs light, it is converted from the bent shape (cis-retinal) to the straight (trans-retinal) form which dissociates from the opsin (bleaching)
Generating Visual Signal in the Dark?
Rods produce steady ion flow in the dark that causes an IPSP that produces no signal in optic nerve
Generating Visual Signal in the Light?
When rod absorbs light, dark current ceases and no inhibition occurs so EPSP occurs in optic nerve
Endocrine System consists of:
* Hormone
* Target cells
* Endocrine glands
* Endocrine system
Chemical messenger secreted into bloodstream, stimulates response in another tissue or organ?
Hormone
_____ have receptors for hormone.
Target cells
______ produce hormones.
Endocrine glands
______ includes hormone producing cells in organs such as brain, heart and small intestine.
Endocrine system
Nervous and Endocrine Systems?

electrical impulses and neurotransmitters, adapts quickly to continual stimulation
Nervous System
Nervous and Endocrine Systems?

hormones in blood, adapts slowly (days to weeks)
Endocrine System
Nervous and Endocrine Systems?

reacts quickly (1 - 10 msec), stops quickly
Nervous System
Nervous and Endocrine Systems?

reacts slowly (seconds to days), may continue long after stimulus stops
Endocrine System
Nervous and Endocrine Systems?

local, specific effects on target organs
Nervous System
Nervous and Endocrine Systems?

general, widespread effects on many organs
Endocrine System
Hypothalamo-Hypophyseal Portal System & Tract

refers to Anterior Pituitary...
Adenohypophysis
Hypothalamo-Hypophyseal Portal System & Tract

refers to Posterior Pituitary...
Neurohypophysis
Gonadotropin- releasing hormone
controls FSH + LH release
Thyrotropin- releasing hormone
Corticotropin- releasing hormone
Prolactin- releasing factor
Prolactin- inhibiting factor
GH- releasing hormone
GH- inhibiting hormone
Released from Hypothalmus
Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
Adrenocorticotropic Hrmn. (ACTH)
Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
Prolactin (PRL)
Growth Hormone (GH)
Released from Anterior Pituitary
Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
Oxytocin (OT)
Released from Posterior Pituitary
_____ hormones target other endocrine glands
--gonadotropins target gonads
*(FSH & LH)
--TSH --ACTH --GH
Tropic
Which hormone
- ovaries, stimulates development of eggs and follicles
- testes, stimulates production of
sperm
Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
Which hormone
- females, stimulates ovulation and corpus luteum to secrete progesterone
- males, stimulates interstitial cells of testes to secrete testosterone
Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
Which hormone
-regulates response to stress, effect on adrenal cortex and secretion of glucocorticoids
Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH)
Which hormone
- female, milk synthesis
- male, increase LH sensitivity, thus increase testosterone secretion
Prolactin (PRL)
Which hormone
- targets the thyroid gland
- Promotes growth of thyroid gland and the secretion of thyroid hormones
Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH) or Thyrotropin
Which hormone targets liver to produce somatomedins (IGFs) increase mitosis + cellular differentiation for tissue growth; effect protein synthesis, lipid metabolism, carbohydrate metabolism, electrolyte balance
Growth Hormone (GH) or Somatotropin
NOTE: GH in ** Childhood
--bone, cartilage and muscle growth
** Adulthood
--osteoblastic activity, appositional growth affecting bone thickening and remodeling
NOTE: Levels of GH:
- higher during first 2 hr deep sleep, after high protein meals, after vigorous exercise
- lower after high CHO meals
- decline with age
Which hormone
- targets kidneys to increase water retention, reduce urine
- also called vasopressin (vasoconstriction) or arginine vasopressin (brain neurotransmitter
Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
Which hormone
- labor contractions, lactation
- possible role sperm transport, emotional bonding
Oxytocin (OT)
___ & ______are produced in hypothalamus, transported down to posterior lobe by hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract & stored in the posterior pituitary
OT & ADH
Which lobe controls releasing hormones and inhibiting hormones of hypothalamus?
Anterior lobe
Which lobe controls neuroendocrine reflexes?
Posterior lobe
Give example of hormone release in response to nervous system signals.
Suckling infant--> stimulates nerve endings --> hypothalamus --> posterior lobe --> oxytocin --> milk ejection
Give an example of hormone release in response to higher brain centers.
Milk ejection reflex can be triggered by a baby's cry
ADH is released through increased _____ or _______.
Osmolarity or sStretch
** pituitary dwarfism
-childhood decrease GH
**diabetes insipidus
-decrease ADH, 10x normal
urine output
Hypopituitarism
**childhood
-gigantism
**adult
-acromegaly - thickening of bones,
soft tissues of hands, feet and face
Hyperpituitarism
* Peak secretion 1-5 yr, by puberty 75%lower
* Serotonin/day ==> Melatonin/night
* ? regulate time of puberty
* Melatonin increase in SAD + PMS, decrease by phototherapy
Pineal Gland
*ON: mediastinum, superior to heart
*Involution after puberty
*Secretes hormones (thymopoietin & thymosin) that regulate development and later activation of T-lymphocytes
Thymus
* Largest endocrine gland
* Anterior and lateral sides of trachea
* 2 large lobes connected by isthmus
Thyroid Gland
Thyroid follicles
-filled with colloid and lined with simple cuboidal epith. (follicular cells) that secretes WHAT 2 hormones
T3 (triiodothyronine)
&
T4 (tetraiodothyronin or thyroxine)
Effects of Thyroid hormone?
* Increase body’s metabolic rate & O2 consumption
*Calorigenic effect - increase heat production
*Increase hrt rate & contraction strength
*Increase respiratory rate
______ produce calcitonin that decrease blood Ca+2, promotes Ca+2 deposition and bone formation especially in children
Parafollicular cells
Name Thyroid Gland Disorders
Congenital hypothyroidism
Myxedema
Endemic goiter
Toxic goiter
Which Thyroid Gland Disorder
- infant suffers abnormal bone development, thickened facial features, low temperature, lethargy, brain damage
Congenital hypothyroidism
(decrease TH)
{cretinism}
Which Thyroid Gland Disorder
- low metabolic rate, sluggishness, sleepiness, weight gain, constipation, dry skin and hair, cold sensitivity, increase blood pressure and tissue swelling
Myxedema
adult hypothyroidism, decrease TH)
Which Thyroid Gland Disorder
- dietary iodine deficiency, no TH, no - feedback, increase TSH
Endemic goiter
(goiter = enlarged thyroid gland)
Which Thyroid Gland Disorder
- antibodies mimic TSH, increaseTH, exophthalmos [eyes buldge]
Toxic goiter
(Graves disease)
{autoimmune}
Parathyroid glands secrete PTH, which ....
**increase blood Ca+2
-increase absorption
-decrease urinary excretion
-bone resorption
NOTE:
* Hypoparathyroid
- surgical excision
- fatal tetany 3-4 days
NOTE:
*Hyperparathyroid
-tumor; causes soft, fragile and
deformed bones, increase blood
Ca+2, renal calculi
Releasing/inhibiting factors and hormones are produce & release from:
A. hypothalamus
B. ant. lobe of the pituitary gland
C. post. lobe of the pituitary gland.
A. hypothalamus
Adrenal Cortex synthesizes:
Corticosteroids
list the 3 types of corticosteroids:
1. mineralocorticoids (act on the kidneys)
2. glucocorticoids (released in response to ACTH)
3. sex steroids
Which corticosteroid:
* control electrolyte balance
* principal mineralcorticoid is aldosterone
Mineralocorticoids
Aldosterone ...
* promotes Na+ retention & K + excretion
* released in response to hypotension, hyponatremia, & hyperkalemia
Which corticosteroid:
* Cortisol (hydrocortisone), stimulates fat + protein catabolism, gluconeogenesis (from a.a.’s + FA’s) and release of fatty acids and glucose into blood to repair damaged tissues
Glucocorticoids
Which corticosteroid:
* Long-term secretion suppresses the immune system
* Anti-inflammatory effect
Glucocorticoids
Which corticosteroid:
*androgens, including (DHEA) dehydroepiandrosterone (other tissues convert to testosterone) and estrogen (after menopause)
Sex steroids
Which adrenal disorder?
* causes hyperglycemia, hypertension, weakness, edema
* muscle, bone loss with fat deposition shoulders + face
Cushing syndrome (adrenal tumor, excess ACTH)
* causes enlargement of penis or clitoris & premature onset of puberty
* girls can result in masculinized genitals
* women deep voice, beard, body hair
Adrenogenital Syndrome (AGS)
{Androgen hypersecretion}
* Hyposecretion of glucocorticoids & mineralocorticoids [by AC]
* Hypoglycemia, Na+ & K+ imbalances, dehydration, hypotension, weight loss, weakness
*Causes increase pituitary ACTH secretion, stimulates melanin synthesis and bronzing of skin
Addison Disease
Pancreatic Hormones
Mostly exocrine gland with pancreatic islets of endocrine cells that produce:
Insulin (from Beta cells)
Glucagon (fromAlpha cells)
NOTE: Insulin (from Beta cells)
* secreted after meal with
* carbohydrates raises glucose blood levels
* stimulates glucose and amino
acid uptake
* nutrient storage effect (stimulates glycogen, fat and protein synthesis)
* hypoglycemic hormone
* antagonizes glucagon
NOTE: Glucagon (from Alpha cells)
* secreted in very low carbohydrate and high protein diet or fasting
* stimulates glycogenolysis, fat catabolism (release of FFA’s) and
promotes absorption of amino acids for gluconeogenesis
* Hyperglycemic hormone as is GH, epinephrine, norepinephrine, and cortisol
Signs and symptoms of Diabetes Mellitus:
-polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
-hyperglycemia, glycosuria, ketonuria
_____: blood glucose levels rise above transport maximum of kidney tubules, glucose remains in urine, osmolarity increases and draws water into urine
osmotic diuresis
** some cases have autoimmune destruction of Beta cells, (dx. age 12)
** TX: with diet, exercise, monitoring of blood glucose and periodic injections of insulin or insulin pump
Type I (IDDM) - 10%
**insulin resistance: target cells fails to respond to insulin
*TX with wt loss by diet and exercise
*oral meds improve insulin secretion or target cell sensitivity
Type II (NIDDM) - 90%
3 major risk factors Type II DM are:
heredity
age (40+)
obesity
cells cannot absorb glucose, rely on fat and proteins (weight loss + weakness)
Acute pathology
chronic hyperglycemia leads to neuropathy and cardiovascular damage
Chronic pathology
Acute pathology
*fat catabolism increase FFA’s in blood and ketone bodies
*ketonuria promotes osmotic diuresis, loss of Na+ + K+
*ketoacidosis/ketone decrease bld pH
Chronic pathology
retina and kidneys (common in type I) atherosclerosis leading to heart failure (common in type II), and
gangrene
Excess insulin injection or pancreatic islet tumor...
Hyperinsulinism
Hyperinsulinism
causes
triggers secretion of
side effects include
Causes hypoglycemia, weakness and hunger
triggers secretion of epinephrine, GH and glucagon
SE anxiety, sweating and increase HR
Uncorrected hyperinsulinism with disorientation, convulsions or unconsciousness
Insulin shock
Polyphagia that a person with DM experiences is due to:
A. The increase in osmolarity that occurs in the kidney tubules.
B. Although circulating levels of glucose are high, cells are unable to uptake the glucose.
B. Although circulating levels of
glucose are high, cells are unable
to uptake the glucose.
* Granulosa cells/wall of ovarian follicle
* Corpus luteum/follicle after ovulation
* Secrete inhibin/suppresses FSH
secretion
Ovary
Functions of Ovary
* development of female reproductive
system and physique
* regulate menstrual cycle, sustain
pregnancy
* prepare mammary gland for lactation
* Interstitial cell (b/t seminiferous tub.)
-produce testosterone
* Sustentacular cells
-secrete inhibin/suppresses FSH,
stabilizes sperm production rate
Testes
Functions of Testes
* development of male reproductive
system and physique
* sustains sperm production and sex
drive
Endocrine Functions of HEART

atrial natriuretic peptide
* released in response to an increase in BP
* promotes the loss of Na+ and H2O by kidneys
* lowers blood volume and blood pressure
Endocrine Functions of KIDNEYS

A. calcitriol (active Vit D)
B. erythropoietin
A- increases absorption of Ca+2 and
phosphate and reduces loss for
bone deposition
B- stimulates bone marrow to produce
RBC's
Endocrine Functions of LIVER

A. Angiotensinogen (a prohormone)
B. Erythropoietin (15%)
C. Somatomedins (IGFs)
A. precursor of angiotensin II,
a vasoconstrictor
B-----
C. mediate action of GH
Endocrine Functions of Stomach and Small Intestines (enteroendocrine cells)
Enteric hormones
{Endocrine Functions of GI}
** Stimulates gastric glands to
secrete HCl and enzymes
** Stimulates intestinal motility
** Relaxes ileocecal valve
Gastrin
{Endocrine Functions of GI}
Stimulates gastric motility
Serotonin
{Endocrine Functions of GI}
Stimulates HCl secretion
Histamine
{Endocrine Functions of GI}
Inhibits gastric secretion & motility; delays emptying of stomach; inhibits pancreas & gallbladder, reduces bld circulation & nutrient absorption
Somatostatin
{Endocrine Functions of GI}
Stimulate the pancreas and gallbladder
Secretin and Cholecystokinin
Endocrine Functions of PLACENTA
--secretes ______ to
*regulate pregnancy
*stimulate development of fetus and
mammary glands
estrogen, progesterone and others
Hormone Chemical classes:
1. Steroids
2. Peptides and Glycoproteins
3. Monoamines (biogenic amines)
-- Derived from cholesterol
*Sex steroids, corticosteroids
Steroids
** OT, ADH
** all releasing and inhibiting
hormones of hypothalamus
** most of anterior pituitary hormones
Peptides and Glycoproteins
- Derived from tyrosine
** catecholamines (norepinephrine,
epinephrine, dopamine)
**Thyroid hormones
Monoamines (biogenic amines)
Steroids and thyroid hormone are hydrophobic and must bind to _____ for transport
Transport proteins (albumins and globulins)
_________require transport protein, but easily enter cell
Steroids and thyroid hormone
________ transport easily in blood, but cannot enter cell and must bind to receptors
Monoamines and peptides
* A paracrine secretions
* derived from Arachidonic Acid
- released from plasma membrane
-2 enzymes lipoxygenase &
cyclooxygenase convert it
Eicosanoids
______ converts arachidonic acid to leukotrienes that mediate allergic and inflammatory reactions
Lipoxygenase
_____converts arachidonic acid to:
> Prostacyclin
> Thromboxanes
> Prostaglandins
Cyclooxygenase
* Produced by blood vessel walls
* Inhibits blood clotting
* Vasoconstriction
Prostacyclin
* Produced by blood platelets after
injury
* Override prostacyclin
* Stimulate vasoconstriction and
clotting
Thromboxanes
**Diverse group including
>>PGE’s: relaxes smooth muscle in bladder, intestines, bronchioles, uterus & stimulates contraction of blood vessels
>>PGF’s: opposite effects
Prostaglandins
Physiology of Blood
* pH?
* Osmolarity?
* Salinity?
* pH- 7.35 to 7.45
* Osmolarity- 280-296 mOsm
* Salinity- 0.9%
______ blood forces formed elements to separate from plasma
Centrifuging
_______ is % of total volume that is cells
Hematocrit
_______ is a mixture of proteins, enzymes, nutrients, wastes, hormones, and gases
** if allowed to clot, what remains
is called serum
Plasma
___ are most abundant plasma protein
-contributes to viscosity and
osmolarity and influences blood
pressure, flow and fluid balance
Albumins
__A__is precursor of fibrin threads that help form blood clots

__B__ provide immune system defenses
A. Fibrinogen

B. Globulins
Plasma contains ________:
- nitrogenous wastes(urea) are toxic end products of catabolism
- normally removed from the blood by the kidneys
nitrogenous compounds
Nutrients absorbed by palsma:
glucose vitamins
fats minerals
etc
Many ________are found in plasma
*sodium makes up 90% of plasma
cations accounting for more of
blood’s osmolarity than any other
solute
electrolytes
Blood Cell Production called
Hemopoiesis
NOTE: Hemopoietic tissues produce blood cells
** liver stops producing blood cells at birth, but spleen and thymus remain
involved with WBC production
** red bone marrow produces RBCs, WBCs and platelets
**Stimulated by erythropoietin, thrombopoietin & colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)
** drop in RBC count causes hypoxemia to kidneys
** EPO production increase
** stimulation of bone marrow
** RBC count increase in 3-4 days
Erythrocyte Homeostasis

[Classic negative feedback control]
Stimulus for erythropoiesis...
** low levels of atmospheric O2
** increase in exercise
** hemorrhaging
Nutritional Needs for Erythropoiesis
>Iron
>B12 & Folic acid
>Vitamin C & Copper
** lost daily through urine, feces, and bleeding
** men 0.9 mg/day and women 1.7 mg/day
** low absorption rate requires consumption of 5-20 mg/day
Iron
((is key nutritional requirement for erythropoiesis))
For rapid cell division
B12 & Folic acid
For cofactors for enzymes synthesizing RBCs
Vitamin C & Copper
RBC count & hemoglobin concentration indicate ...
the amount of oxygen the blood can carry
_______ is % of blood composed of cells
**men 42-52% cells
women 37-48% cells
hematocrit
_____ concentration of whole blood
*men 13-18g/dL
women 12-16g/dL
hemoglobin
_____ count
**men 4.6-6.2 million/microL
women 4.2-5.4 million/microL
RBC
Values are______ in women
- androgens stimulate RBC production
- women have periodic menstrual losses
Lower
**______ live for 120 days
-membrane fragility -- lysis in
narrow channels in the spleen
-also liver
RBCs
_______ is an excess of RBC
==Dangers==
-increased blood volume, pressure
& viscosity can lead to embolism,
stroke or heart failure
Polycythemia
Deficiency of RBCs or Hb
Anemia
Causes of anemia
* inadequate erythropoiesis or
hemoglobin synthesis
* hemorrhagic anemias from loss of bld
* hemolytic anemias from RBC
destruction
NOTE:
* inadequate vit B12 from poor
nutrition or lack of intrinsic factor
from glands of the stomach
(pernicious anemia)
* iron-deficiency anemia
* kidney failure & insufficient erythropoietin hormone
Effects of anemia
* tissue hypoxia and necrosis
(short of breath & lethargic)
* low blood osmolarity (tissue edema)
* low blood viscosity (heart races &
pressure drops)
________ is secreted in response to hypoxia and produces a negative feedback loop that raises the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood.
E. Erythropoietin
-- called agglutinogens A & B
-- inherited combinations of proteins,
glycoproteins and glycolipids on red
blood cell
RBC antigens
-- called agglutinins anti-A & -B
-- responsible for RBC agglutination in
mismatched blood transfusions
Plasma antibodies
--Agglutinated RBCs block blood vessels & rupture
** free Hb can block kidney tubules & cause death
Mismatched Transfusion Reaction
--Rh or D agglutinogens discovered in rhesus monkey in 1940
--blood type is Rh+ if agglutinogens present on RBCs
The Rh Group
______ are not normally present in blood
**form only in individuals exposed to
Rh+ blood
Anti-D agglutinins
**Rh- pregnant woman carrying an
Rh+ fetus or blood transfusion of
Rh+ blood
** no problems result w/either first transfusion or the first pregnancy, abortion or miscarriage
A potential problem
hemolytic disease of the newborn ___________ occurs if mother has formed antibodies & is pregnant with 2nd Rh+ child
Erythroblastosis fetalis
___________is given to pregnant woman to prevent antibody formation and prevent any future problems
RhoGAM
_____ binds fetal agglutinogens in her blood so she will not form antibodies against them during the
RhoGAM
Granulocyte Functions
> Neutrophils
> Eosinophils
> Basophils
N= (increase in bacterial infections)
E= (increase in parasitic infections or
allergies)
B=(increase in chicken pox, sinusitis,
diabetes)
->secrete histamine (vasodilator)
->secrete heparin (anticoagulant)
Basophils
Agranulocyte Functions:
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
L=> increase in diverse infections &
immune responses
** secrete antibodies & provide
immune memory
M=>increase in viral infect. & inflam.
= low WBC count (<5000/micoL)
*effects -- elevated risk of infection
Leukopenia
= high WBC count (>10,000/microL)
*causes -- infection, allergy & disease
*differential count -- distinguishes %
of each cell type
Leukocytosis
= cancer of hemopoietic tissue
*uncontrolled WBC production
*effects -- normal cell % disrupted,
patient subject to opportunistic
infection, anemia & impaired clotting
Leukemia
The Control of Bleeding
-Effective at closing breaks in small
vessels
-3 hemostatic mechanisms all
involve platelets
Hemostasis
3 hemostatic mechanisms :
a. Vascular Spasm
b. Platelet Plug Formation
c. Coagulation (blood clotting)
Prompt constriction of a broken vessel

Provides time for other 2 mechanisms to work
Vascular Spasm
Triggers for a vascular spasm
* pain
* injury to smooth muscle
* platelets release serotonin,
chemical vasoconstrictor
* Normal endothelium very smooth &
coated with prostacyclin (platelet
repellent)
* Broken vessel exposes rough
surfaces of collagen
Platelet Plug Formation
Platelet plug formation begins
**platelet pseudopods stick to damaged vessel & other platelets --
contract & draw walls of vessel together forming a platelet plug
**platelets degranulate releasing a variety of substances
Platelet Plug Formation is a ________ cycle is active until break in vessel is sealed
Positive feedback
___ is the most effective defense against bleeding --- needs to be quick but accurate
Clotting
framework of clot??
conversion of plasma protein fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin threads which form framework of clot
inactive form produced by the liver are present in the plasma
*activate one factor and it will
activate the next to form a reaction
cascade
Procoagulants or clotting factors
Factors released by the tissues cause the ________ cascade pathway to begin (damaged vessels)
extrinsic
Factors found only in the blood itself causes the _____ cascade pathway to begin (platelet degranulation)
intrinsic
{Both cascades normally
occur together}

_____is required for either pathway
Calcium
The Fate of Blood Clots

Clot retraction occurs within __minutes
30
* factor XII speeds up the formation of
kallikrein enzyme
* kallikrein converts plasminogen into
plasmin, a fibrin-dissolving enzyme
or clot buster
Fibrinolysis or dissolution of a clot
Prevention of Inappropriate Coagulation
>Platelet repulsion
>Thrombin dilution
>Natural anticoagulants
^ platelets do not adhere to prostacyclin-coating
Platelet repulsion
^ normally diluted by rapidly flowing blood
-- heart slowing in shock can result in clot formation
Thrombin dilution
^ antithrombin produced by the liver deactivates thrombin before it can act on fibrinogen
^ heparin secreted by basophils & mast cells interferes with formation of prothrombin activator
Natural anticoagulants
Unwanted coagulation
__A__ = abnormal clotting in unbroken vessel
__B__= unwanted clot traveling in a vessel
A. thrombosis

B. embolism
Infarction or tissue death may occur if clot blocks blood supply to an organ...
MI or stroke
* widespread clotting of blood within
unbroken vessels
* triggered by bacteria (septicemia) or
if blood slows down or stops as in
cardiac arrest
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Which of the following agents opposes (prevents) coagulation?
A. thrombin B. vitamin K
C, thromboplastin
D. Hageman factor E. heparin
E. heparin