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311 Cards in this Set

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What is a good cd4 count without HIV?
700-1500
Discribe the onset of aids
- acute symptom with a resolving cold
- then latency period where the cd4 cells are being distroyed.
what is viral load?
how much of the virus is in the blood
3 ways to get mouth yeast
1) too much antibiotic can cause you to loose mouth flora
2) diabetes can cause thrush by too much sugar in the mouth
3) inhaled steriods
List some oppurtunistic infections-
1. thrush
2. tb
3. pcp
4. toxoplasmosis
5. cytomeglourousour
6. microvat......
True or false
you can get rid of aids but not HIV
true
Signs of seroconversion
- amphous mouth ulcers
- mono feeling
- tiny rash(without papulues)
- fever, fatigue
Most frequent evidence of HIV
- skin rash on hands and feet that goes away in 2 weeks.
Before we wouold control aids people developed-
kekexia
(aids wasting)
Common cancer in aids patients-
kaposis sarcoma (crix belly)
HIV distructs---
mylin sheaths
Can you get HIV from poop, burgers, vomit or saliva?
NO
Most common primary infection of herpes zoster-
chicken POX
2 distinct clinical syndromes of Varacilla Virus
1) primary infection
2) subsequent reactivation of virus
What percentage of people show serologic evidence of the varicilla virus (which increases their risks for herpes zoster-)
90 %
What suspends immune response?
steriods
POssible herpes complications-
- secondary bacyterial infections
- post herpetic neuralgia (pain continues past a month)
- blindness
- corneal ulceration
allodynia =
non painful things become painful
Allodynia is common in-
postherpetic nueralgia
Treatment of Herpes Zoster
- antivirual drugs
- acyclovier antying
Herpes Zoster pain intervention
- gabapentin
What does lidocain do?
blocks NA voltage gated nerve channels
PT's best friend reguarding nerve pain
nuerontin (gabapentin)
Oral corticosteriods is contraindicted in patients with-
diabetes or gastritis
AIDS infection can stimulate/trigger ?
- lupus
- r. arthritis
- sjorgns disease
List some Autoimmune diseases-
gullian barre
aids
IDDM
Ankylosing =
joint fusion
Self markers-
MHC
HCA
What HCA self marker class is more common in men?
class 1 -abc

what WBC responds to the markers of class 2
= helper t, cd4


class one is
= killer tcells cd8
2 immune diseases that are more commen in men-
ankylosing spondylosis
psoriases
List some class 2 aids that are more common in the ladies-
- systemic lupus
- rhumitiod arthritis
- dm-pm
- sjorens disease
- rhuematic fever
What gender does type one diabetes prefer?
either or
Two important rules of autoImmune Diseases-
1) they are diseases o exacerbations and remissions
2) All involve abnormal cellular profliferations.
What is the theory for AIDs with reguards to genetics...
Inhereted the tendency and triggered by envirnment.
What is sjogrens syndrome-
common, usualy mild illness characterized by autoimmune damage to the salivary and lacrimal glands plus arthritis
Sometimes, Sjogrens ruins...
renal tubes
Most patients of Sjogrens are-
milddle aged women.
Sjogrens increases the risk of
lupus
What Sjogrens, what is doing the damage?
T cells irratate and distroy glands.
How can Sjogrens disease increase cancer?
B-cells show abnormalites of their immunoglobuliun
Whats a huge sign of lupus erythematosus? And what gender is it most common in ?
nose rash- wolf like

ladies
Most lupus patients make antibodies against-
their own DNA
How does lupus effect the kidneys?
What it attacks its own dna, the dna precipitaes and gets trapped in the glomeruli, clogs kidneys and damages them.
Who tends to develoope false positive syphilis tests?
Lupus Patients
Where are the cell bodies of sensory nerves?
dorsal root ganglia
what is the wolf like nose rash disease called?
lupus erythematosus
lupus is more common in what types of people?
wemon and black wimmon
most lupus patietns make anitibodies against their own
DNA
what probbaly cuases most of the arthritis?
antigen-antibody complexes
which would you rather have and why?
DLE or SLE
you would prefer DLE because this type of lupus only effects the skin, and SLE is not benign.

Both have the butterfly rash symptom
whats an antinuclear antipbody?
anitbody against your own DNA
Anti-nuclear antibodies (ANAs, also known as anti-nuclear factor or ANF) are antibodies present in higher than normal numbers in autoimmune disease. The ANA test measures the pattern and amount of autoantibody which can attack the body's tissues as if they were foreign material. Everyone has a small amount of autoantibody, but in about 5% of the population this is raised, and about half of this 5% have an autoimmune disease.


An autoantibody is an antibody (a type of protein) manufactured by the immune system that is directed against one or more of the individual's own proteins.
Iatrogenic =
disorders caused by treatment

ex) like steriods supressing immuno response and causes worse problems
Some reccomend low tech Omega 3 fish oil for what disease?

high tech?
lupus


totaly lymphiod radiation, postcycly[hsp[aahte, super high chemo, and stem cell rescue
what does dilantin do?
stabilizes cell membranes (used for people with bad headaches or seizures) but can cause lupus over time.
what is the difference between polymyostitus and dermatomyositis?
Poly- involves skeletal muscles and damages them through inflammation (groups of muscle cells degenerate)

deratom= inflammation of skeletal muscles AND skin
what mucles are spared in polymyositis?
face muscles
Some possibile triggers of polymyositis-
cat litter
collagen vascular disease
rheumatic fever
sarcoidosis
cancer
generally if damage is proximal to distal its a _____ problem


distal to proximal its a ____ problem
MUSCLE


NERVE
( and longest nerves damage first)
Mixed connective tissue Diases consists of what 3 diseases?
lupus
polymyositits
scleroderma
What are some symptoms of mixed connective tissue Disease and what treatment does it respond to?
severe raynauds
swollen fingers
mild myositits
severe joint pain

responds to steriods
kidneys are spared (yay)
5 signs and symptoms of inflammation
rubor (pain)
tumor (swelling)
calor (heat)
dolar (pain)
what 3 microciculatory changes must occur for WBC to exudate?
dilataion vessels(rubor)
increased permeability
diapedesis of WBC
Acute inflammation =

chronic =
8-10 days from onset ot healing

2 weeks
Mast cell granules stimulate =
1. vasodilatation
2. inflitration of WBC
3 components of the ACUTE response
- Mast cells
- complement system
- release of cellular components
chemotaxis =
how cells find the site of injury (follow gradient)

Archadonic Acid is released when cells are injured and is converted to leukotrines and prostoglandins that cause fever and pain
list the three granulocytes
neutrophils
eosinophils
basophils
When bacteria lives insides the monocytes (a macrophage that ate them) and cause...
chronic infection
so esinophils do phagocytisis?
no, they bind to the membrane and contains
interferons attack?
viruses (all of them act in a nonspecific manner to increase the inflammaotry response)
discribe 3 types of exudate
- serous
fibrinous (bad if green)
prurlent - pus and smelly
edogenous pyrogins stimulate what?
hypothamalic set point (fever)
Systemic manifestations of Acute Inflammation-
- fever
- leukocytes
- increase plasma protiens
chronic inflammation is characterized by:
dense infliftration of lymphocuytes and macraphages (granuloma if needed to be walled off)
resolution= =

what cells can do this?
normal physiologucakl function


cells that have the ability to regenerate like: liver, bone and peripheral nerve
*** but only with a healthy liver
repairing happens in the absence of?
resolution

( so there is scar tissue)
Name and discribe the steps of repair
1. acute inflammation
- debridement by fibriniolytic enzymes
2. repair 1 or 2 degrees
3. resolution phase
- growing, 3days-2 weekd after injury
- prliferation, granulation tissue grows
4. maturation phase
- weeks to 2 years after injury
"differentiation"
why would something be healed by secondary intention?
- fibroblast migration can only go a certain distance
best case senario of secondary intention
80% tensilr strength regained
compensatory hyperplagia =
mitotic regeneration (opnly liver, bone marrow !!)
blood is an excellent growth medium for
bacteria
How could there be an impaired collegen synthesis during reconstructivve phases

and name two relating diseases
not enough vitimen C or adequte protein materials

1. EDS - not matured collegen
2. keliod formation
dehesince =
abdominal wounds open up
____ are vulnerable to quickly developing overwehlming sepsis
pediatric patients
#1 infection diseases
microorganisasm
Name the stages of infection
1. colonization - pathogens in body, without tissue invasion

2. Invasion - attaches to host via adhesions molecures, uses metabolism/nurients

3. multiplication - may use host cell organelles
- why antibodies are useless

4. spread
- migrates through blood or lymph
Name some factors for infection
- infectivity
- pathogenicity
- virulence
- immunogenicity
- toxogenicity
Explain: an infection doesnt have to be pathogenic
this means ,like TB is a n infection but it has a very low pathogenicity
Virulence
potency in terms of # organisms (for amount of toxin) required to kill host
Symptoms of AIDS
thursh
pcp
penumonia
toxoplasmosis
Communalism
Benefits the organ, no beneift to the human
pathogenity mean =

oppositte term =
benefits oprganism, harms human


-symbiosis
candida =
a mucus fingus - yeast
4 pathogen defense mechanisms
1. surface coat
2. antigentic variation
3. recombination
4. gene switching
what does a surface coat inhibit
phagocytosis
prevents opstination
Why cant we cure the common cold?
due to antigenic vatiation - altering surface protiens

by doing genetic thingys
what MUST bacteria have to multiply
Iron
How come cholera (60% death rate) can develope and kill within 3 days
- bacertai proliferation rates can surpass protective response- since the first immune response takes a week




cholera- give them sugar
Anaphaklaxis
body wide mast cell degranulation, causeing vasodialation and bropnchial musus edema
which of the following can be deadly
1- exotoxins
2- endotoxins
exotoxins- are in the cell walls of gram negative organisms pyrogenic effects, diffuse intravascular coagulation
how klong ar eyou sick for with a viral infection?
1-2weeks
Viruses are an obligate intracelluar parasites... what does this consist of
1. dependant on host cells
2. no metabolism, cannot reproduce
3. permissive host cell
usually a self limiting infections
when you have the measules, when do you get a rash
dont get rash until youre almost better...
incubation period is about 10 days and then another week of the disesaes- shedding
HPV transforms hosts cells into-
cencer cells
fungal inflections are large microoganisms with big
thick cell walls
The immunological response that causes sepsis is a
a systemic inflammatory response causing widespread activation of inflammation and coagulation pathways.
Bacteremia is different to sepsis in that it refers to the presence, not the replication, of pathogens.
difference in bacteremia and septicemia
Bacteremia is the principal means by which
local infections are spread to distant organs (
clinical manifestations of infectious disease is almost always
FEVER
Clotting system =
Need Vit K and CA
fibrinogen turns to fibrin which biulds the clot

plasmogin -> plasmin, desolves the clot

final clot pathway is activated by complement kinen system

1. stop bleeding
2. clot until heal
3. remove clot
in the clotting system, what is vasoconstricting?
arterioles
activation of the clotting system stimulates what components that enhance the inflammatory process
1. kinen system
2. chemotaxuis
4. vascular permeability
ogen =
inactiviate
what increases in vascular permeability on both acute and chronic inflammation and acts with PG to produce pain
bradykinen (in both acute and chronic)
Once inactive kinenes are inactivated....
rapidly degraded by kinase persent in tissues and plama
Kinin System
kinin system is a poorly delineated system of blood proteins that plays a role in inflammation, blood pressure control, coagulation and pain. Its important mediators bradykinin and kallidin are vasodilators and act on many cell types.

increase vascular permeability
what three systems are activated by inflammation
clotting
complement
kinin
Complement System
is a biochemical cascade which helps clear pathogens from an organism
Define Vaccine
induction of long lasting protective immune responses that will not resuilt in diseae in a healthy recipient
5 types of Vaccines and discribe each
1. attenated organisms = live organism knocked down
ex) MMR

2. killed organisms =less risks

3. recombant viral protien = no risk to get duisaes, like Hep a and B

4. bacterail antigens
5. toxins (small amount) Like tetanus and whooping caugh
biological stress was introduced by
Dr. Hans selye
what underlies tons of diseases?
chronic inflammation
Three stages of GAS
1. alarm stage- SNS
2. stage of resistance or adaptation- mobilization
3. stage of exhuastion- break down of homeostasis
Alarm stresse triggers the
hypothalamic pituitary adrenal axis Activates SNS
reactive response
physiologic reactions to psychologic stressors
How is cortisol formed
CRH to pituitary, ACTH released to adrenal ghaldn, Cortisol released
Immune modulation by psycholsocial stressors
leads directly to health outcomes
Catecholamines =
relased from chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla during the centrsal stress response and it mimic direct sympathetic stimulation
Tropic =
releasing factors ( not an actual hormone)
what is pain?
a psychic Event
somaotrpin =
growth hormone
collection of cell bodies in cns =

collection of cell bodies in peropheral system =
nuclous

ganglion
what is prolactin and what happens during stress?


ditto for oxytocin
milk laceration and increases with stress


uterincontraction
may produce reduced anxiety
hypersensitivty =
altered immune reactivity such thata pathogenic respone to re-exopsuyre23
______- the deleterious effect of hypersesitivy to envirnmental allergens (exogenous)
allergy
relatye allergy and hypersensitivity
allergy is effect of hypersensitivity

allergic is the same thig as hypersensitivity
Alloimmue diseases =
the immune system of another produces as immune response against the tiisues of another person
Name the four types of Hypersensitivity reactions
I. IGE mediadted alleric
II. tissue specific reactions
III. immune complex mediated
IV. cell mediated
Name two types of anaphalaxis and which one is deadly
1) systemic (deadly)
2) cutaneous - degranulated masts
Do allergies tend to be inherited?
yepo
Name two treatments for type I hypersensitivity reaction
1) prick
2) desensitization
type II tissue specific means-
antibodies distroy own human cell- via the complement systems and antireceptor Ab
Type II tissue specific reaction is is associated with what disorder
MG myasthenia Gravis
(skeletal muscle diase, the antibodies eat nicotinic receptors so Ach has tiny effect and therefore- muscle weakness
what is Graves disease?
hyperthyroid - exoplpthlemia bug eyes
Big clumpy Ab complexes caise prnlems like inflammation and tissue distruction. vessel deposits that clog kidneys, arthritis and possible systemic serum sickness in WHAT hypersensitivty reaction?
Type III
What can you get if you get blood transplants from a horse?
system type III disease
what age of people are more likley to get serum sickness?
Older than 15 becuase they would recieve more antitoxin
rubor
bright redness of the skin right after reactive hyperemia- especially in people with raynauds
What hypersensitivity reaction in delayed?
type IV (cell mediated)
24-72 hour onset

sesitized TC and TD cells activated macrophages that go CRAZYZYZYZYZYZ
Hajimoto disease =
immune system attacks thyroid- in type IV cell mediated hypersensitivity reaction
Autoimmunity is the break down of self tolerance- name two
1) sequestered antigen
2) infectious disease that confuse the antibodies
What is attacked in Guillain- Barre Syndrome?
- myelin sheath in periphery
DISTAL TO PROXIMAL
Usually, Guillain- Barre Syndrome occurs a few days or weeks after..
after a repiratory, or gastrointestinal viral infections.
- Prodrome
When do people with Guillain- Barre Syndrome reach the stage of greatest weakness?
After the first two weeks
What IS attacking the myelin in Guillain- Barre Syndrome
Ab- but dont cross BBB
What disease is associated with loss of DTR
Guillain- Barre Syndrome
What disease is associated with protien in the CSF?
Guillain- Barre Syndrome
What makes the residual disability greater in Guillain- Barre Syndrome
1. over 40 years old
2. rapid severe weakness with ventilator
3. complete areflexia in acute stage
4. campylobactor source
5. lack of treatment with plasma exchange
6. longer time to improve initially
what is campylobacter?
Gram neg bacteria from poultry,ruminants and swine (poopy in the meat)
what % of people with GBS also get heart problems because their autonomics was demylenated too
65
Campylobaceriosis is self limiting because you poop it out, but the incubation time is _______ related to the inoculom time
inversly- dont stop shitting!
Howcome bacteria can live outside of the body?
capsulewith different ribosomes and enzymes(?)
Especially if you have merca, what is your last line of defense?
VRSA- vancomycin resistance Staph. aureus
why do viruses need us?
need our metabolic machinary
Antiviral drugs are generally more ____ then ______
More virustatic than virucydal
How do antiviral drugs work?
- inhibit enzymes necessary for replication
- try to attack virus before it gets into host cell
List 5 common Viruses:
herpes
Hep A and B
influenza
polio
pox
Varicella zoster virus causes two distinct clinical syndromes
1) primary infection
2) Subsequent reactivation of latent virus- increase incidence with increasing age- lives in dorsal root ganglia
Increased Incidence risk of herpes
- over 50, stress, poor diet, spinal surgery, radiation
3 common herpes prodromes
- HA
- mailase
- photophobia
What palsy can occur with herpes Zoster?
left sixth cranial nerve palsy
(left eye cant abduct)
are cutaneous effects of herpes uni or bilateral?
UNILATERAL- dont cross midline and never SKIPS dermatomes
Varicella zoster virus causes two distinct clinical syndromes
1) primary infection
2) Subsequent reactivation of latent virus- increase incidence with increasing age- lives in dorsal root ganglia
Increased Incidence risk of herpes
- over 50, stress, poor diet, spinal surgery, radiation
3 common herpes prodromes
- HA
- mailase
- photophobia
What palsy can occur with herpes Zoster?
left sixth cranial nerve palsy
(left eye cant abduct)
are cutaneous effects of herpes uni or bilateral?
UNILATERAL- dont cross midline and never SKIPS dermatomes
patients with shingles are contagious in that they...
can infect others with chicken pox but NOT shingles
fungus has thickcell walls, molds are aerobic whereas yeast is
anarobic
what are the white blotches on sore throat
candida- fungus
(strep throat is RED blotches)
Name two Congenital Immune Deficiencies
1. Hypogammaglobunemia (not enough Ig's)
- which is first immune response

2. SCID
- reticular degensis ( WBC stem cells are absent)
- digeorge sydrome
Explain NA K pump
3 NA out
2 K in

so there is more NA externally and more K internally
Endocytosis
bringing stuff into the cell
What is a peptide
less than 100 amino acids
Two membrane proteins
1. associated- anchors
2. integral - receptors, pumps and channels
How are membranes dynamic and how are they unstable?
dynamic- inclusions can be moved added or ubtracted

unstable- double layer of grease
Four catagories of integral proteins
1. structural
2. enzymes
3. receptors
4. transporters - channel or carrier
what integral transport protien creates water filled pores?
channel proteins
What integral tranport protein does not have an actual hole?
carrier proteins
3 types of controlled channels
1. voltages gates (action potentials)
2. mechanotransduced (vias neurotransmitter)
3. chemical
Quanta
These neurotransmitters are released in quanta, whereby a single quantum consists of a vesicle containing possibly thousands of neurotransmitters
where is ANS in spinal cord?
anterimedialateral cell column
Axons in CNS called-

Axons in Peripheral
TRact

Nerve
Number of action potentials determines the
intensity of signal
A Neurotrasmitter travels in ___ and NOT ____
synaptic cleft and NOT in blood
Atopic =
tendency to devvelope a disorder ( inheritence)
Name 3 catecholamines
NE
Epi
Dopa
functional unit of NS
neuron or nerve cell
What system contains motor efferents and sensory afferents?
CNS
3 parts of ANS
1. para symp
2. symp
3. enteric (INFLUENCED ONLY)
Where is the cell body of motor neurons?
ventral root ganglia
Sensory nevers are ___polar

Motor N are___ polar
BIpolar

Uni...multi polar
What is it called to transfer things from the soma to the end of the axon?

And what is responsible for this? Be specific
Antegrade (Kinesin)

Non myopsin motors like dynein and Kinesin
(hormones) (Neurostransmit)
How come the PNS can repair itself and the CNS cannOT?
The Ons has glial cells that provde support and protection to neurons (satelite)
Where as MD is genetic, MS is
aquired
Charcot Marie Tooth AKA
peroneal nerve atrophy
What literally happens in CMT
there is one amino acid missing. The schwann cells forget to wrap. There are HEALTHY neverves but they are left unmyelinated
Peroneal muscle action
inversion and plantar flex
CMT usually appears between te ages of
5-15
- brace right away
- be careful with new shoes
- check for red spots after 15 minutes
Whats the difference between MD and CMT?
MD- muscle disease
CMT- nerve disease
When is the life does myelination occur
right after birth
Depolarize =
anything positive going into the cell
The input area of sensory and motor nersons of the soma dont have?
Voltage gated NA K channels
Are ligand gates controllable?
Yesseri BOBBO
what potentials can be positive or negative
graded potentials
graded potentials decrease over
time and distance
what is VERY importnat for resting membrane?
potassium
Discribe the VG at rest?
closed
meaning the ecf is positive
icf is negative
when can the VG from an AP reset?
= during repolarization, the negative charge pulls the ball out and the gate can reset.
How can a refractory period exist in a nerve?
Because some channels have been repolarizaed so if there is lots of stiumlumus an AP can be fired
the more action potentials that arrive, the more ____gets realeased into the axon terminal and the more ______
CA+

vesickes of transmitter fuse and dump
what can make a nerve fast?
fat and myelinated
what is order of myelin degeneration in the PNS

regeneration?

What about the CNS ?
distal to proximal

prox to distal


CNS same for degeneration and dont forget, CNS cannot regenererate- its called sorry your FUCKED
whats the difference between tetanus and botulinis?
T- (cleaves VAMP)lost inhibition due to skeletal hypercontracted

B- breaks motor N snapes and snares- paralysis
Inhibiting Ach
Zombies stemmed from-
Tetradotoxin (TTX)
found in puffer fish gonads, some frogs, neuts... red tide
What does tetradotoxin block?
voltage-gates sodium channels
intrinsic heart rate =
100
what was once our eye from when we were swamp animals
pineal gland
what kind of nerve gives off Ach
MOTOR -> skelital muscles
Ach is found in what systems?

NE?

DA and Seritonin?
ANS and CNS

Ans, heart, smooth muscle

CNS
Where are Nicotinic receptors found?


Where do you find Muscarinic?
skelettal muscle
ans post gang cells

target tissues of PNS POST gang cells
You always get depolariziation when Ach binds to an
nAchR

via na/k pump
people with myasthenia gravis are missing what type of receptors?
dont have enough niocontinic receptors
what enzyme breaks down Ach
acetylecholinesterace into chlorine and acetate
what are receptors for NE and EPi
adrenergic receptors.. alpha and beta familes, second messenger
primi babies are vulnerable to what two tings?
dehydration and sepsis
cd4 =

cd8 =

natural killer =
cd4- helper t

cd8- cytotoxic that kills antigens

natural killer- no specific cacer and virus cell killers
whhich would you rather have, polymyositis or dermyosities?
derm is worse because it effects the skin and the muscles, the poly only effects the muscles
what type of reaction is urticaria?

Graves?


Serum Sickness?


posison Ivy
type I

Type II

type III


Type IV
cana discoid rash be seen with systemic lupus?
yes
what is Agammaglobulinemia
congenital immuno dificeincy
what is tenia pedis?

TB?
fungal infection


bacteria infection
someone with SLE will have high
autoantibodies
an excessive or inappropriate response of the immune system to a sensitizing antigen
hyperesensitivity
Hay fever, a common allergy, is expressed through:
IGe mediated reactions
in TYPE I
what hypersensitivity reaction does NOT involve antibodies?
type IV
endocytosis of histamine by mast cells is NOOOOOT a sign of
anaphalaxis
major cause of death world wide =
infectious disease
does the size of the pathogen influence infection?
NOpy
what cuases tissue specific reactions?
A.complement-mediated lysis
B.opsonization and phagocytosis
C.antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity
Following a subcutaneous inoculation of a certain drug, Joan experiences a localized inflammatory response. This response is an example of
A.type III hypersensitivity
raynauds if a form of
serum sickness
primary mechanism for organ rejections
B.immune response against donor HLA antigens
C.type IV hypersensitivity
when does an alloimune disesae result?
When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus
what do you need to diagnose SLE?
4/11 signs
If an immune deficiency has a clear genetic cause it is called a _____ immune deficiency
primary and congential
Congenital thymic aplasia is characteristic of:
DiGeorge Syndrome
T/F Secondary immune deficiency may result from normal physiologic changes
true baby
Adis is awsociated with the following
diabetes
C.pregnancy
D. Hodgkin disease
bacterial resistance to antibodies are due to
A. alterations in the target molecule
B. inactivation of the drug
C. changes in the bacterial membrane that prevent drug uptake
Vaccines Induce
induce primary and secondary immune responses.
fungal infections are controlled by
are controlled by phagocytes and T lymphocytes
not enough zinc can...
can depress both T and B cell function.
inflammation is triggered by
A. cellular injury
B. microorganisms
C. oxygen deprivation
A. neutrophils
B. mast cells
C. platelets

Are part of?
Acute inflammatory response
Cells in the blood that probably function in the same way as tissue mast cells are
basiphils
3 things esinophils do
A.defending against parasites
B.controlling mediators of acute inflammation
C.degrading vasoactive amines
The mast cell, a major activator of inflammation, initiates the inflammatory response through functions of
degranulation and mediation
The complement system, clotting system, and kinin system share which of the following characteristics
proenzyme activation
Asprin does what
blocks the synthesis of prostaglandins, thereby inhibiting some aspects of the acute inflammatory response
Antigen-antibody complex may activate the
complement system
Activation of the compliment system produces compounds that...
A.opsonize bacteria
C.induce mast cell degranulation
The _____ system is a plasma protein system that forms a fibrinous exudate at an inflamed site to trap exudates, microbes, and foreign bodies.
coagulation
Bradykinen DOES NOT induce degredation of prostoglandins.
So what does it do?
A.inducing pain
B.inducing smooth muscle contraction
C.inducing endothelial cell retraction
predominant phagocytic cells early in the inflammatory response are
neutrophils
how is a fever produced
endogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus
A patient is diagnosed with lobar pneumonia. Which of the following exudates would be present in highest concentration?
fibrinous
when can dysfunciton would healing occur?
can occur during any phase of the wound healing process
what mediates inflammation
plasma protein systems
Mast cells activate
the immune response
craniosacral system is the
parasympathetic branch of ANS
is histamine a neurotransmitter?
yes it is WOOW
Name 3 things that release ACH
1) symp pre gang fibers
2) PARA pre gang
3) PARA post gang
what percentage of brain is cardiac 0utput?
20%
what is associated with pez cavius?
CMT
Where is the axon hillock for sensory nerves

what about motor nerves
First node of ranvie

initial segment of axon for motor
what does graNULATION do
Vasodialation, increased vascular permability, infiltration by WBC
complement system does what in the acute phase
Makes up circulating serum proteins, once activated the protein particpate in the inflammaorty response. Activate Ag-Ab complexes, like non-specific defense and anaphylatoxins. Stimulates cellular infiltration, thrombosis, pain due to nerve ending stimulation (activates plateletes), releases pain lysosomal enymes,
what makes prostoglandins
produced from arachidonic acid (membrane phospholipid) by cyclooxygenase enzymes
what dissolves clot>
plasminogen -> plasmin, cause by tPA= tissue plasminogen activator
clotting system needs what to cascade
vit K
what diseases ruin snapes and snare?
eaten-lambert
botulism
Stage one of GAS produces
catecholaimes and then in stage II they become hormonal
Derm vs polymyositis
derm- skin and muscle
poly- just muscle
interfureons are
antivirals
Name a disease for each hypersensitivity type
I. psoriasis
II. mg, graves
III. kindey damage, bloodvessels, raynauds
IV. hajimoto, IDDM
Dop, EPI, and NE are all from?
tryacine
purple eye lids aka
heliatropic
seroconversion =
show antibodies

lasts 7-11 years for someone with aids
A vasoactive peptide=
histamine (increase vascular perm causes tumor and rubor)
What two diseases paralyze skeltal muscle
eaton lambert and botulisim
what disease causes excess contraction of skeltal muscle?
tetnus
Eaton lambert does damage where?
CA channels
tetrodoxotoxin closes =
treatment and what mimics this?
NA channels
wait for new ones to be made, and anything with CAIN afterwards mimics this.
atopic syndrome
allergic conjunctiviitis
allergic rhinitis
asthma
no reflex?
clotting has what kind of feedback loop
positive
(cascade activated)
CA, vit K are important
why do babies get vit K injections?
so they dont bleed to death
Cushings is related to ?
cortisol
Does the heart resolute?
No
Three conduction disorders
GBS
CMT
MS
temporal vs spacial summation
temp- must be close in time
spac- distance to integrating center