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239 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What types of muscle are striated?
|
Skeletal and Cardiac
|
|
What types of muscle are smooth?
|
Vascular and Visceral
|
|
Where do voluntary muscles receive signals from?
|
Central Nervous System
|
|
Where do involuntary muscles mostly receive their signals from?
|
Autonomic Nervous System
|
|
What attaches muscle to bone?
|
Tendon
|
|
What is the connective tissue surrounding individual muscle fibers?
|
Endomysium
|
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What is the connective tissue surrounding bundles of muscle fibers?
|
Perimysium
|
|
What is the connective tissue surrounding the entire muscle?
|
Epimysium
|
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On which band can the thick filaments of the myofibril be found?
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A band
|
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On which band can the thin filaments of the myofibril be found?
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I band
|
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What runs across the center of the A band on the myofibril?
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M line
|
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What runs across the center of the I band on the myofibril?
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Z line
|
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What is the fundamental repeating unit of bands from the Z disk to successive Z disk?
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Sarcomere
|
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What are the three main types of proteins found in the thin filaments of skeletal muscle?
|
Actin, tropomyosin, and troponin
|
|
What is the most abundant protein of the thin filament?
|
Actin
|
|
Where is the main site for calcium regulation in the skeletal muscle?
|
The thin filament
|
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Which type of troponin is the calcium sensor in skeletal and cardiac muscle?
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Troponin C
|
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Which type of troponin is the structural glue that holds the troponin-tropomyosin-actin complex together?
|
Troponin I
|
|
What is the primary protein of the thick filaments in skeletal muscle?
|
Myosin
|
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What part of the myosin interacts with actin to generate force and filament sliding?
|
The head structure (SI region)
|
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How does the plasma membrane of skeletal muscle fiber differ from cardiac and other cell types?
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It does not contain gap junctions or tight junctions
|
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What are the tubular extensions of the sarcolemma?
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T-tubules
|
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What is the specialized endoplasmic reticulum adapted for the uptake, storage and release of calcium ions?
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Sarcoplasmic Reticulum (SR)
|
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How does the sarcoplasmic reticulum tubular network run in relation to the myofilaments?
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Parallel
|
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What are the enlarged portions of the sarcoplasmic reticulum contacting T-tubules?
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Terminal cisternae
|
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What is the term for a group of one T-tubule and two terminal cisternae?
|
A triad
|
|
Where is calcium required for contraction stored in skeletal muscle?
|
Terminal cisternae
|
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What is the process by which depolarization of the sarcolemma causes calcium release into the cytoplasm, and subsequent binding of calcium to regulatory sites to initiate crossbridge cycling?
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Excitation-Contraction Coupling
|
|
What does calcium ions bind to after being released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to initiate contraction?
|
Troponin C
|
|
What are two ways that Calcium is sequestered after contraction?
|
Calcium pumps in the SR pumps calcium back
Calsequestrin helps concentrate calcium ions in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. |
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What molecule is responsible for interfering with the interaction between actin and myosin?
|
Tropomyosin
|
|
How many actin monomers can one tropomyosin molecule control due to its geometry?
|
7
|
|
What type of muscle regulation works via the action on the thin filaments?
|
Actin-linked regulation
|
|
What does the permanent binding of myosin to actin filaments cause?
|
Rigor mortis
|
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What are two components required for crossbridge cycling?
|
Calcium and ATP
|
|
What causes the myosin cross bridge to detatch?
|
ATP binding
|
|
What energizes the cross bridge?
|
Hydrolysis of ATP
|
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What are two important distinctions between cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle?
|
Cardiac action potential is not initiated by neural activity (Initiation by specialized muscle tissue in heart)
Cardiac muscle cells (cardiac myocytes) are smaller than skeletal muscle |
|
What does the gap junction in cardiac muscle cells provide?
|
Electrical connection between cells
|
|
What is the functional contractile unit-one motor neuron plus all of the muscle fibers it innervates?
|
Motor Unit
|
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Where does the transfer of signal from nerve to muscle take place?
|
Neuromuscular Junction
|
|
What is the transmitter substance secreted at the neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscles?
|
Acetylcholine
|
|
What does the postsynaptic membrane of skeletal muscle allow to flow through its ion channels after binding acetylcholine to its receptors?
|
Sodium and Potassium Ions
|
|
What hydrolyzes acetylcholine?
|
Cholinesterase enzyme
|
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Where does the choline go after being hydrolized by cholinesterase enzyme?
|
The presynaptic terminal
|
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What do gap junctions in cardiac muscle help with?
|
They enhance the spread of action potentials through out the heart
|
|
What is the force of contraction dependent on in cardiac muscle?
|
Extracellular calcium concentration
|
|
How does calcium mainly enter the cell of cardiac muscle?
|
Voltage-dependent slow calcium channels (L-type calcium channels)
|
|
Where does the calcium required for contraction come from in the cardiac muscle?
|
Extracellular calcium pool
Calcium pool in the sarcoplasmic reticulum lumen |
|
What nerves can be stimulated to increase the force of heart contraction?
|
Sympathetic nerves (norepinephrine release)
|
|
What nerves can be stimulated to decrease the force of heart contraction?
|
Parasympathetic nerves (acetylcholine release)
|
|
What unit of the muscle has ATPase activity?
|
Myosin
|
|
What prompts the resynthesis of ATP during muscle contraction?
|
Phosphate group transfer from creatine phosphate to ADP
|
|
What is the most important storage form of high energy phosphate in the muscle?
|
Creatine phosphate
|
|
What are two major metabolic pathways to supply ATP and replenish the creatine phosphate pool
|
Glycolysis
Citric acid cycle |
|
What is the largest contributor to oxygen debt?
|
Lactic acid accumulation
|
|
What is a contraction that generates only force with no muscle shortening?
|
Isometric contraction
|
|
What is a contraction that results in shortening against a constant force?
|
Isotonic contraction
|
|
What is the contraction and relaxation of a skeletal muscle to a single stimulus (single action potential)?
|
Twitch
|
|
What are two factors that total tension of a muscle depends on?
|
Number of fibers contracting
Tension developed by each fiber |
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What is the process by which the force of a second stimulus can add to the force left from the first
|
Summation
|
|
What occurs when a muscle fiber is stimulated so rapidly that it does not have an opportunity to relax between stimuli?
|
Tetanus
|
|
How much stronger is a tetanic contraction over a single twitch?
|
Three to four times stronger
|
|
What causes the color difference of white and red skeletal muscle?
|
The difference in the amount of myoglobin
|
|
What type of muscle fibers are found in muscles that depend heavily on aerobic metabolism for their ATP supply?
|
Red muscle fibers
|
|
What type of red muscle fibers have higher ATPase activity?
|
Fast twitch fibers
|
|
What type of muscle fibers rely primarily on glycolytic metabolism and fatigue quickly?
|
White muscle fibers
|
|
Between white and red muscle fibers, which have more mitochondria?
|
Red muscle fibers
|
|
What is the term for contraction followed by relaxation?
|
Phasic
|
|
What is the term for sustained contraction?
|
Tonic
|
|
In most organs, with the exception of the gut, what is the orientation of smooth muscle?
|
Circular or circumferential
|
|
What type of muscle has single uninuclear cells, no transverse striations, no T-tubules, abundant caveolae, and numerous cell-cell junctions?
|
Smooth Muscle
|
|
What are two fundamental functions of cell-cell junctions of smooth muscle?
|
Mechanical coupling (Force, intermediate junctions)
Ionic coupling (excitation, gap junctions) |
|
In comparison to skeletal muscle, what regulatory protein is absent in the thin filaments of smooth muscle?
|
Troponin
|
|
What are two unique proteins of thin filaments found in smooth muscle?
|
Calponin and Caldesmon
|
|
What is the main component of intermediate filaments in visceral muscles?
|
Desmin
|
|
What is the main component of intermediate filaments in vascular muscles?
|
Vimentin
|
|
What are two categories of smooth muscle based on how the muscle cells are stimulated to contract?
|
Multiunit smooth muscle
Single-unit smooth muscle |
|
Where can multiunit smooth muscle be found?
|
Walls of large blood vessels, large airways of the respiratory tract, and in the eye muscles
|
|
What type of smooth muscle requires nerve stimulus to initiate contraction?
|
Multiunit smooth muscle
|
|
What type of smooth muscle is myogenic (self-excitable) and does not require nervous stimulation for contraction?
|
Single-unit smooth muscle
|
|
What is required in smooth muscle for myosin-ATPase activity to be actin-activated?
|
Phosphorylation of myosin light chains
|
|
What initiates smooth muscle contraction?
|
Calcium-dependent phosphorylation of myosin light chain
|
|
What do calcium-calmodulin complexes bind to activate?
|
MLC kinase
|
|
What regulates smooth muscle contraction?
|
MLC kinase
MLC phosphatase |
|
What is the term for the depolarization of the membrane electrical potential leading to the opening of voltage-gated calcium channels followed by elevation in cytosolic calcium?
|
Electro-mechanical coupling
|
|
What type of receptors in smooth muscle are involved in calcium-induced calcium release?
|
Ryanodine receptors
|
|
What is the term for the binding of a contractile agonist to its receptor on the muscle membrane leading to elevation in cytosolic calcium without any change in membrane electrical potential?
|
Pharmaco-mechanical coupling
|
|
Which type of coupling involves a second messanger?
|
Pharmaco-mechanical coupling
|
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What is the main calcium mobilizing messenger in smooth muscle?
|
IP3
|
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What are the second messengers involved in smooth muscle relaxation?
|
Cyclic nucleotides, (cAMP, cGMP)
|
|
What drugs trigger cAMP in smooth muscle relaxation?
|
Beta-Adrenergic drugs
|
|
What drugs trigger cGMP in smooth muscle contraction?
|
Nitric Oxide
|
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What are two subdivisions of the autonomic nervous system?
|
Sympathetic
Parasympathetic |
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Why is the sympathetic division also called the thoracolumbar division and the parasympathetic the craniosacral division?
|
Sympathetic fibers leave the CNS from the thoracic and lumbar regions
Parasympathetic leave the CNS from the brain and sacral portion of the spinal cord |
|
Which fibers (pre or post ganglionic) of the sympathetic division are often shorter?
|
Preganglionic
|
|
Which fibers (pre or post ganglionic) of the parasympathetic division are often short?
|
Postganglionic
|
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What is one example where the sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves work in a synergistic fashion?
|
When innervating the exocrine glands
|
|
Which nerve plexus functions to coordinate peristalsis along the gut?
|
Myenteric Plexus
|
|
Which nerve plexus functions to regulate ion and water transport across the gut epithelium?
|
Submucosal plexus
|
|
Where does the transmission of signals between pre and postganglionic autonomic neurons take place?
|
True synapses
|
|
What is the term for the transmission of signals between postganglionic autonomic neurons and effector cells?
|
Neuroeffector junction
|
|
What are the irregular expansions within the terminal part of the axon of post ganglionic neurons called?
|
Varicosities
|
|
What are the classic autonomic neurotransmitters?
|
Acetylcholine
Norepinephrine |
|
What are the fibers that secrete acetylcholine?
|
Cholinergic
|
|
What are the fibers that secrete norepinephrine?
|
Adrenergic
|
|
(T/F) All preganglionic neurons are cholinergic in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
|
True
|
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(T/F) Few postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic system are cholinergic.
|
False, Either all or almost all are cholinergic
|
|
(T/F) Most of the postganglionic sympathetic neurons are adrenergic.
|
True
|
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How fast is acetylcholine destroyed after release?
|
Milliseconds (by acetylcholinetransferase)
|
|
How is norepinephrine in sympathetic postganglionic nerve terminals inactivated?
|
By reuptake
|
|
Where is epinephrine or norepinephrine stored in large vesicles that are released directly into the blood?
|
Adrenal medulla |
|
What are two categories of receptors that transduce chemical signals in the autonomic nervous system?
|
Directly-gated receptors
Second messenger-linked receptors |
|
Where do directly-gated receptors predominate?
|
In the ganglia
|
|
Where do second messenger-linked receptors predominate?
|
In the autonomic neuroeffector junctions
|
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What type of autonomic receptor is a nicotinic acetylcholine receptor?
|
Directly-gated receptor
|
|
What type of autonomic receptor is a muscarinic acetylcholine receptor?
|
Second messenger-linked receptor
|
|
What is the predominate receptor type in autonomic ganglia on postganglionic cells?
|
Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
|
|
What specific G protein alpha subunit hydrolyzes PIP2 to generate IP3 and DAG?
|
G-Alpha Q
|
|
What does DAG activate?
|
Protein Kinase C
|
|
What is the effector of the G-protein alpha subunit Q?
|
PLC-Beta
|
|
What are adenylyl cyclase isoforms activated by?
|
G-Alpha s (Hydrolyzes ATP to generate cAMP)
|
|
What are adenylyl cyclase isoforms inhibited by?
|
G-Alpha i/o
|
|
Where can alpha1 adrenergic receptors be found?
|
Smooth muscle and gland
|
|
What are Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors coupled to?
|
Gq protein (Activation releases IP3 and Ca for smooth muscle contraction and glandular secretion)
|
|
Where can Alpha-2 adrenergic receptors be found?
|
Presynaptic nerve terminals
|
|
Which type of adrenergic receptors provides feedback inhibition?
|
Alpha-2
|
|
Where can Beta-1 Adrenergic receptors be found?
|
Heart (They are excitatory)
|
|
Where can Beta-2 Adrenergic receptors be found?
|
Tracheal and Bronchial smooth muscle (They are inhibitory)
|
|
Which of the four adrenergic receptors does not respond to norepinephrine (requires epinephrine)?
|
Beta-2
|
|
What are Beta-2 Adrenergic receptors coupled to?
|
G-Alpha S (stimulates the production of cAMP)
|
|
Which of the five muscarinic receptors are coupled to G-Alpha Q?
|
M1, M3, M5
|
|
Which of the five muscarinic receptors are coupled to G-Alpha I?
|
M2, M4
|
|
Which type of neurotransmitter binds to muscarinic receptors?
|
Acetylcholine
|
|
Which nerves increase the rate of generation of action potentials in pacemaker cells of the cardiac muscle?
|
Sympathetic nerves via release of norepinephrine and activation of Beta-1 Adrenergic receptors
|
|
Which nerves decrease the rate of generation of action potentials in cardiac muscle?
|
Parasympathetic nerves via release of acetylcholine and activation of m2 muscarinic receptors
|
|
What elicits secretion of secretory cells?
|
Release of acetylcholine from secretomotor postganglionic parasympathetic nerves
|
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Which neurotransmitter released from sympathetic nerves mediates vascular smooth muscle contraction by binding to Alpha-1 Adrenergic receptors?
|
Norepinephrine
|
|
Which neurotransmitter mediates airway smooth muscle relaxation by activation of Beta-2 Adrenergic receptors?
|
Epinephrine
|
|
Where does the sympathetic cascade begin, and what does it activate?
|
Signals are sent via the <i>hypothalamus</i> and activates:
<i> Chromaffin cell in the adrenal medulla Sympathetic post ganglionic neurons</i> |
|
What are four processes carried out by the gastrointestinal tract?
|
Motility
Secretion Absorption Excretion |
|
What is located between each major region of the gastrointentinal tract and is a thickening of the muscle layer?
|
A sphincter
|
|
What is food reduced to in the stomache?
|
chyme
|
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What is the main function of the small intestine?
|
Digestion and Absorption
|
|
What is the main function of the large intestine?
|
Drying of Chyme into feces
Storage of feces |
|
What is the role of the pancreas in gastrointestinal function?
|
Exocrine (secretion of digestive enzymes and bicarbonate ions)
|
|
What is the function of liver in gastrointestinal functions?
|
Exocrine (bile secretion)
|
|
Where is the storage and concentration of bile acids?
|
Gall bladder
|
|
What is the major smooth muscle coat of the GI tract surrounding the submucosa?
|
Muscularis externa
|
|
What is the outer connective tissue covering the GI tract?
|
Serosa
|
|
What are the slow waves of the autonomous smooth muscle generated by?
|
Pacemaker Cells - Interstitial cells of Cajal (ICC)
|
|
What type of stimulus does parasympathetic stimulation lead to in the gut?
|
Excitation (increased motility, increased secretion)
|
|
What is the primary neurotransmitter of the postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system affecting the GI tract?
|
Norepinephrine
|
|
How can the activation of the sympathetic chain produce an inhibition of gut function?
|
Termination of neurons on blood vessels cause vasoconstriction
Termination on glands can cause secretion Termination on smooth muscle cells of sphincters can cause constriction |
|
What is the intrinsic innervation of the GI tract provided by?
|
Enteric Nervous System
|
|
What is the largest endocrine organ in the body?
|
GI Tract
|
|
What are four GI hormones?
|
Secretin
Cholecystokinin (CCK) Gastrin Gastric Inhibitory Peptide (GIP) |
|
What inhibits Gastrin release?
|
Low gastric luminal pH
Somatostatin Certain Prostaglandins |
|
What is the most appropriate action of gastrin in vivo?
|
Stimulation of acid secretion
|
|
What cell releases Gastrin?
|
G cells (Antral Gastrin Cells)
|
|
What cell releases CCK?
|
I cells of the duodenal and jejunal mucosa
|
|
What is the function of CCK in the GI tract?
|
Stimulates gallbladder contraction
Pancreatic Enzyme Secretion Satiety Inhibits gastric emptying and acid secretion |
|
What cells release secretin?
|
S cells of the duodenal mucosa
|
|
What is the primary effect of secretin?
|
Stimulation of pancreatic bicarbonate and water secretion
|
|
What does secretin inhibit?
|
Gastric Acid Secretion
Gastric Emptying |
|
What is an important action aside from inhibiting acid secretion of the Gastric Inhibitory Peptide?
|
Stimulation of insulin release in the presence of hyperglycemia
|
|
What two hormones are located in the duodenum?
|
CCK
Secretin |
|
What are three candidate hormones in the GI tract?
|
Motilin
Pancreatic Polypeptide (PP) Somatostatin |
|
What candidate hormone is released during fasting and has significant effects on GI smooth muscle?
|
Motilin
|
|
When is PP released?
|
During meals
|
|
What is the most obvious biological function of PP?
|
Inhibition of pancreatic exocrine secretion
|
|
What are the three phases according to stimulus location of neural and hormonal control of the GI system?
|
Cephalic, Gastric, and Intestinal
|
|
What stimulates the cephalic phase of GI system?
|
Sight, smell, taste, and chewing stimulates receptors in the head
|
|
What neurotransmitter has an inhibitory effect on smooth muscle?
|
Epinephrine
|
|
What neurotransmitter has a stimulatory effect on smooth muscle?
|
Acetylcholine
|
|
Where can phasic muscle contractions be found in the GI tract?
|
Esophagus, Distal 1/3 of stomach (antrum), and small intestine
|
|
What are the parts of the GI system that are made up of skeletal muscle?
|
Upper 1/3 of esophagus
External Anal Spincter |
|
(T/F) The longitudinal and circular layers of the smooth muscle of the GI tract can contract at the same time.
|
False, the circular and longitudinal muscle contractions are out of phase.
|
|
What are three motility patterns of the GI tract?
|
Peristalsis
Segmentation (mixing movements) Tonic contractions |
|
What is the law of intestine?
|
The propulsive segment (contraction behind the bolus,) and the receiving segment (relaxation ahead of it) is the response known as the law of intestine
|
|
What is contraction above the site of distension mediated by?
|
Cholinergic (Acetylcholine) neurons and tachykinin (Substance P) contatining neurons
|
|
What is relaxation below the site of distension mediated by?
|
Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) and Nitric Oxide containing neurons
|
|
What type of movement is used to mix intestinal chyme through squeezing action?
|
Segmentation
|
|
Where can tonic contractions be found?
|
Areas where sphincters divide the gut into functional segments
|
|
During which phase of swallowing does the epiglottis close over the larynx to close the opening to the trachea?
|
Pharyngeal phase
|
|
What is the difference between primary and secondary peristalsis?
|
In secondary peristalsis, the contraction is not preceded by the oral and pharyngeal phases
|
|
What keeps the acidic stomach contents out of the esophagus?
|
Lower esophageal sphincter (LES)
|
|
What part of the stomach has no slow waves or myoelectrical rhythms, and serves as the major storage site for a meal?
|
Upper portion (Fundus and orad corpus)
|
|
What is the term of the mixed stomach secretions and food?
|
Chyme
|
|
What separates the stomach from the duodenal bulb?
|
Pyloric Sphinctor
|
|
What is the reflex that is initiated by distension of the stomach and conducted through the myenteric plexus from the stomach to the small intestine?
|
Gastro-enteric Reflex
|
|
What is the main function of the ileocecal valve?
|
Prevent backflow of fecal contents from the colon into the small intestine
|
|
What is the term for the muscles organized into three flat bands in the colon?
|
Tenia Coli
|
|
What enzyme is involved in the formation of gastric, pancreatic, and intestinal secretions?
|
Carbonic Anhydrase
|
|
What are five major secretory tissues in the digestive system?
|
Salivary Glands
Stomach Pancreas Hepatic-Biliary System Intestine |
|
What are two types of secretions in the GI system?
|
serous and protein
|
|
What is the serous component of secretions composed of?
|
Water and Electrolytes
|
|
What is the protein component of secretions composed of?
|
Enzymes
Mucus (mucopolysaccharides and glycoproteins) |
|
What type of glands are gastric pits and intestinal crypts?
|
Tubular glands
|
|
What type of glands are the salivary gland and exocrine pancreas?
|
Compound glands
|
|
What is a substance that stimulates a particular cell to secrete?
|
Secretagogue
|
|
What is the mechanism by which Beta-Adrenergic agents, VIP, and Histamine lead to secretion?
|
They activate a G-Protein, which activates adenylate cyclase to increase intracellular cAMP
|
|
What is the mechanism by which acetylcholine, gastrin, cholecystokinin, and tachykinins cause secretion?
|
Hydrolyze PIP2, to release IP3 which enters the cytoplasm and causes a rise in intracellular calcium when calcium is released from intracellular stores
|
|
About how much saliva is produced each day?
|
1L
|
|
What cells secrete the digestive enzymes of saliva?
|
Cells of the acinus
|
|
What enzyme is secreted by salivary glands of the tongue and begins digestion of triglycerides?
|
Lingual lipase
|
|
What ion is found in higher concentration in saliva than plasma?
|
Potassium
|
|
What do the excretory and striated ducts do with saliva?
|
They modify the primary secretion by extracting Na+ and Cl- and adding K+ and HCO3-
|
|
What are the major secretions of the stomach?
|
HCl
Pepsin Intrinsic Factor Mucus Bicarbonate |
|
What is secreted from the chief cell and begins the digestion of lipids and fast-soluble materials?
|
Lipase
|
|
What is needed for vitamin B12 absorption in the ileum and is secreted by parietal cells?
|
Intrinsic factor
|
|
What protects stomach from auto-digestion?
|
Mucus
|
|
What part of the stomach synthesizes and releases gastrin?
|
Pyloric Gland Mucosa
|
|
What is the ionic composition of gastric juice related to?
|
Rate of secretion
|
|
What are three major stimulants of acid secretion?
|
Gastrin
Histamine Acetylcholine |
|
What is a major inhibitor of gastric acid secretion?
|
Somatostatin
|
|
What does the acid-secreting parietal cell have receptors for?
|
Acetylcholine, gastrin, histamine, and somatostatin
|
|
What does Gastrin and Ach increase in the parietal cell to induce acid secretion?
|
Cytosolic Calcium
|
|
What does histamine increase in the parietal cell to induce acid secretion?
|
cAMP
|
|
What factors stimulate the release of Gastrin?
|
Gastric distension
Presence of protein digestion products Vagal stimulation |
|
What stimulates somatostatin release?
|
Acid in the antrum
|
|
What are three phases of acid secretion?
|
Cephalic Phase (Meal Preparation)
Gastric Phase (Maximal Acid Secretion) Intestinal Phase (Acid Inhibition) |
|
What molecule stimulates the secretion of the aqueous component of the pancreas?
|
Secretin
|
|
What molecule stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes?
|
Cholecystokinin (CCK)
|
|
What is the major functional unit of the exocrine pancreas?
|
Acinus
|
|
What structure regulates the flow of bile and pancreatic juice into the duodenum and prevents the reflex of intestinal contents into the bile ducts?
|
Sphincter of Oddi
|
|
What is the osmolarity of pancreatic fluid to that of plasma?
|
Equal to that of plasma at all rates of secretion
|
|
Where are all enzymes stored?
|
Membrane-Bound Vesicles - Zymogen Granules
|
|
What do pancreatic enzymes need to be exposed to before being activated?
|
Enterokinase
Trypsin |
|
What type of enzyme digests carbohydrates?
|
Amylases
|
|
What does pancreatic amaylase generate when it cleaves starch?
|
Maltose, maltotriose
|
|
Which pancreatic proteolytic enzyme is active at aromatic amino acids?
|
Chymotrypsin(ogen)
|
|
Which pancreatic proteolytic enzyme is active at basic amino acids?
|
Trypsin(ogen)
|
|
Which pancreatic proteolytic enzyme is active at C-terminal end of peptide?
|
(Pro)carboxypeptidase A & B
|
|
What other factors are required for Lipase to split triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids?
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Oil/water interface
Bile salts Colipase |
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What happens when secretion surpasses absorption in the intestine and colon?
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Watery diarrhea
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What are the pits located over the entire surface of the small intestine?
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Crypts of Lieberkuhn
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What are two types of cells found in the crypts of lieberkuhn?
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Goblet cells
Enterocytes |
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What is the Cl- ion channel in the crypt of Lieberkunh?
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Cystic Fibrosis Transmembrane Regulator (CFTR)
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