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131 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
hormone responsiveness vs sensitivity?
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responsiveness = max response at saturating dose
sensitivity = conc required to reach half max response |
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which type of hormone has longest half life?
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thyroid (T4 ~6.5 days)
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are steroids stored to great extent in endocrine glands?
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no
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what hormones are released from post. pituitary gland?
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(made in HYPOTHALAMUS)
ADH and oxytocin |
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what's ant. and post. pituitary derived from embryonically?
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ant: oral ectoderm
post: neuroectoderm |
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what does oxytocin do?
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targets mammary glands and uterus
uterine contraction and lactation |
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what are the 5 cell types in ant. pituitary?
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corticotroph (ACTH, MSH)
thyrotroph (TSH) gonadotroph (LH, FSH) somatotroph (GH) lactotroph (prolactin) |
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what's the effect of alpha-MSH (melanocyte stim. hormone/melantropin)
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stim. production of melanin by melanocytes in skin and hair;
in the brain affects appetite and sexual drives |
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how are thyroid hormones regulated?
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hypothalamus TRH -> pituitary TSH -> follicle cells (T3, T4)
T3 negative feedback to ant. pituitary -> de. sensitivity to TRH (also neg feedback to de. TRH in hypo) |
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what is TSI?
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thyroid stim. immunoglobin
binds to TSH receptors, long-acting -> hyperthyroidism (implicated in Grave's disease) |
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how are sex hormones regulated?
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hypothalamus GnRH -> pit. LH/FSH -> testes (testosterone) or ovaries (estrogen, progesterone) (all neg. feedback to inhibit both GnRH and LH/FSH
|
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what is ACTH?
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adrenocorticotrophic hormone
hypo CRH (corticotropin RH) -> pit. ACTH -> in. cortisol and androgens cortisol neg. feedback to inhibit CRH |
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what are the zones of adrenal gland?
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GFR, Medulla
G = glomerulosa F = Fasciculata R = Reticularis |
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what hormones are produced in which zone of adrenal gland?
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Glomerulosa - Aldosterone
Fasculata - Cortisols Reticularis - Androgens Medulla - Catecholamines (75% cells for epi/25% for NE) |
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what is the precursor of pregnenolone?
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cholesterol
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what is the precursor of progesterone?
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pregnenolone
|
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what is aldosterone derived from? (give pathway)
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chol -> pregnenolone -> (3b) progesterone ->-> (21b, 11b) Aldo
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what is cortisol derived from? (give pathway)
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chol -> preg -> (17a) 17a-OH-preg -> (3b) 17a-OH-progesterone ->-> (21b, 11b) cortisol
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what's DHEA derived from? (give pathway)
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chol -> preg -> (17a) 17a-OH-preg -> DHEA -> 3b -> testosterone -> estradiol
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what is the most common steroid synthesis deficiency?
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21b-hydroxylase def.
down: cortisols, aldo, up: sex hormones |
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are glucocorticoids pro-inflammatory?
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no, they increase production of anti-inflammatory cytokines and impair cell-mediated immunity
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what are some effects of glucocorticoids?
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degrade mm. proteins -> muscle wasting
anti-insulin actions -> diabetes prone fat mobilization -> weight gain ++ |
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what is Addison's disease?
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adrenal deficiency
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what is the sequence of events leading to puberty?
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adrenarche, gonadarche, in. pituitary sensitivity, in. gonadal sensitivity
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what is the pattern of gonadotropin release during puberty
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pulsitile GnRH relse during sleep -> LH -> gonad mature -> sex hormones
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what is the sequence of events for puberty for girls? for boys?
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girls: breast -> height -> pubic hair -> menarche
boys: testes -> pubic hair -> penis -> height |
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is premature thelarche physiologic?
yuika: what do you mean by premature? ...do you mean pre-puberty? |
(early development of breasts without other signs) Yes. so is adrenarche (usually shown as growth of pubic hair)
|
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what are the two forms of sexual precocity?
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complete (gonadotropin dependent)
incomplete (gonadotropin independent) -> showing isolated signs of puberty but not others |
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what is the role of leptin in puberty?
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critical weight/fat mass must be achieved for onset of puberty.
leptin made by adipocytes, stimulates GnRH and adrenal; leptin def: obesity, gonadotropin def. |
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how is the male sex determined?
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XY -> SRY -> testes ->
1. sertoli -> AMH -> mullerian duct regressions 2. leydig -> testosterone -> a) AR -> stabilize Wolffian duct b) (5alpha reductase) -> DHT -> AR -> differentiation of external genitalia hCG/LH stim. Leydig. |
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early maturation of zona reticularis causes what?
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premature adrenarche (public/axillary hair w/o other signs of puberty)
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what are the androgens?
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testosterone, dihydrotestosteron, androstenedione
potency: DHT>T>A |
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what is the earliest endocrine gland to develop?
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thyroid
|
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embryonic migration of thyroid requires what?
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migration factor TTF-1
|
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what are the steps of thyroid hormone production?
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1. iodide uptake
2. organification (I- + thyroperoxidase -> I) 3 incorporation to tyrosine (on thyroglobulin, colloid cells matrix) -> MIT 4. MIT + I -> DIT x2 -> T4 5. T4 + deiodinase -> T3/rev T3 -> T2 (only T3 biologically active) |
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what mediates iodide uptake?
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NIS (Na+/I- symporter) on basolateral surface of thyroid follicles
|
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how is iodide uptake regulated?
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TSH in. iodide transport;
perchlorate (ClO4-) and thiocyante inhibits iodide transport; |
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what is the action of TSH on T3/T4?
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TSH causes release of T3/T4 from thyroglobulin -> MIT/DIT deiodinated to release iodine for recycling.
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how is the release of thyroid hormones regulated?
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hyp. TRH -> pit. TSH -> thy T3/T4 (neg feedback to inhibit both TRH/TSH)
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T3/4 in circulation bound to what?
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~70% to thy. hormone binding globulin (TBG)
some to albumin and transthyretin T4 more tightly bound -> longer half life |
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what is the mechanism of action for T3?
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diffuse into cell, bind to THR, displaces co-repressor on THR (bound to RXR in complex) on TRE on DNA, recruits activator -> activate txn.
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what are the effects of thyroid hormones?
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1. bone growth
2. CNS maturation 3. b-adrenergic effects 4. increase basal metabolic rate (in. body temp, O2 consumption etc) 5. increase glycogenolysis, lipolysis, gluconeogenesis 6. increase CO, HR, SV, contractility, RR |
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Rathke's pouch (pituitary) gives rise to what?
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Corticotrop and alpha-subunit
|
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alpha-subunit derived from Rathke's (pituitary) gives rise to what?
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thyrotroph (TSH) and gonadotroph (LH/FSH)
also gives rise to Pit-1, which is precursor to lactotroph (prolactin), thyrotroph and somatotroph (GH) |
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what is Prop-1?
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enz involved in converting alpha-subunit to Pit-1; also a-subunit to gonadotroph
|
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give the hypothalamus-pituitary-GH axis
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hypo GHRH -> pit GH -> IGF-1
both GH and IGF-1 neg feedback |
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what are the effects of GH?
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major: in. IGF-1 production
also: metabolic effect on adipose tissue (lipolysis, de. gluc uptake) and mm. (in. gluc uptake, in. protein synthesis) |
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what are the effects of IGF-1?
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major: bone growth, also stim mm growth
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what is the signaling pathway for GHRH in somatotroph
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GHRH binids GHRH-R (membrane-G-protein) -> cAMP -> PKA -> CREB -> in. Pit-1 -> in. GHRH-R and also GH txn.
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(T/F) growth hormone secretion is pulsitile
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TRUE (hence cannot just take one measurement for clinical evaluation)
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(T/F) growth hormone receptor is a membrane receptor
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TRUE
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(T/F) growth hormone binding protein is made from part of the GH receptor
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TRUE
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(T/F) IGF-1 is required only for prenatal growth but not postnatal growth
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FALSE. IGF-1 is required for both pre and postnatal growth
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(T/F) IGF-1 production is dependent on GH both pre- and postnatally
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FALSE. Prenatal IGF-1 is GH-independent. Postnatal IGF-1 is GH-dep.
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(T/F) IGF-1 binds insulin receptor
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affinity: IGF-1R > insulin R
(+++ IGF-1 -> hypoglycemia) |
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(T/F) IGF-2 is important for both fetal and postnatal growth?
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False. IGF-2 is most important for fetal growth. Postnatal effect unknown.
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(T/F) IGF-2 binds both IGF-2R and IGF-1R
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TRUE. Action through 1R, 2R mediates IGF-2 clearance.
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What are the major hormones and factors that affect growth?
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GH (IGF-1), thyroid hormones, sex steroids, growth factors (FGF family), nutrition, genetics
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what mutation causes achondroplasia (short statue)
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mutation in FGFR3
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(T/F) Prenatal growth in height precedes growth in weight
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TRUE (hence premature babies are long but thin)
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Describe parental imprinting on growth (paternal vs maternal)
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paternal imprinting promotes growth
maternal imprinting retards growth |
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What is Beckwidth-Wiedemann Syndrome?
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fetal overgrowth, due to
1) duplication of paternal IGF-2 gene or 2) loss of maternal imprinting of IGF-2 |
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what is Russell-Silver Syndrome?
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imprinting abnormality; poor pre- and postnatal growth
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What is the Barker hypothesis (Fetal programming and adult diseases)
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maternal undernutrition -> fetal growth retardation -> structural change with organ -> poor childhood growth, disease in later life, metabolic & endocrine dysfunction
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what's mid-parent height?
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80% children reach MPH:
Boys: (Dad's H + (Mom's H + 5))/2 Girls: ((DH - 5) + MH)/2 |
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choose one: intrinsic shortness, delayed growth, attenuated growth:
bone age = chronological age, normal growth rate |
intrinsinc shortness
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choose one: intrinsic shortness, delayed growth, attenuated growth:
bone age = height age, normal growth rate |
delayed (constitutional delay, undernutrition, chronic disease etc)
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choose one: intrinsic shortness, delayed growth, attenuated growth:
bone age = height age, slow growth rate |
attenuated (endocrinopathy, chronic disease, metabolic disorder etc)
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what are growth-hormone stimulation test
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(pulsitile!)
Physiological - sleep, exercise, fasting Pharma - glucagon, arginine, pronanolol, L-dopa, insulin-induced hypoglycemia |
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choose one: primary hyperparathyroidism, secondary hyperparathyroidism, hypercalcemia of malignancy, hypoparathyroidism:
high serum [Ca], high [PTH] |
primary hyperPT (overproduction of PTH)
|
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choose one: primary hyperparathyroidism, secondary hyperparathyroidism, hypercalcemia of malignancy, hypoparathyroidism:
high serum [Ca], low [PTH] |
hypercalcemia of malignancy (something is overproducing Ca, e.g. bone cancer)
|
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choose one: primary hyperparathyroidism, secondary hyperparathyroidism, hypercalcemia of malignancy, hypoparathyroidism:
low serum [Ca], low [PTH] |
hypoPT (not enough PTH production); may be caused by activating mutation in Ca sensing receptor, or intrinsic PT disorder.
|
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choose one: primary hyperparathyroidism, secondary hyperparathyroidism, hypercalcemia of malignancy, hypoparathyroidism:
low serum [Ca], high [PTH] |
secondary hyperPT
(usually caused by renal failure -> unable to produce vit. D in response to PTH -> more PTH produced in attempt to rectify problem, but Ca stays low.) |
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(T/F) Ca sensing R also recognizes divalent cations e.g. Mg++
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True, but with reduced affinity
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What class of receptor is Ca sensing receptor?
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receptor G-protein (7-membrane spanning)
|
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where are Ca sensing receptors founds?
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thyroid C cells (produces calcitonin), renal tubules (TAL), parathyroid chief cells.
|
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what is the signaling pathway of Ca sensing receptors in parathyroid cells?
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extracellular Ca -> activate Gq and Gi -> de. cAMP, + PKC -> kinases -> PTH DEGRADATION -> de. PTH release
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what secrets PTH?
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chief cells of PT (4 altogether)
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(T/F) All PTH secreted is suppressible and Ca-dependent
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FALSE. 15% non suppressible and not dependent on Ca conc.
|
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Name two disorders caused by inactivating mutations of Ca sensing receptors
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Heterozygous:
Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia (FHH): low urine Ca, high PTH, high serum Ca. BENIGN condition (often misdiagnosed as hyperparathyroidism leading to unnecessary excision of PT) homozygous: severe prenatal hypercalcemia -> FATAL |
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Name one disorder caused by ACTIVATING mutations of Ca sensing receptors
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familial hypocalciuric hypocalcemia = hypoparathyroidism
|
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what is the name of the connective tissue surrounding the bone?
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periosteum
|
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what are the differences between woven bone and lamellar bone?
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woven: random organization, weaker, deposited rapidly (fetal bone and callus formation)
lamellar: all adult bones (trabecular and compact), stronger, parallel organization, slowly deposited |
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(T/F) osteoblasts are multinuclear giant cells
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FALSE. osteoCLAST are multinuclear
|
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what do osteoblasts and osteoclasts do?
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Blasts: form bone, secret type I collagen to form bone matrix, stim. osteoclast maturation
clasts: secrets HCl to dissolve bone for resorption |
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what are bone-lining cells and osteocytes?
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bone lining: resting osteoblasts on bone surface
osteocytes: retired osteoblasts within bone matrix, important for mechanotransduction. |
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What are RANK and RANKL?
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RANKL - on surface osteoblasts, ligand for RANK
RANK - on osteoclast precursor, binding to RANKL enables maturation of precursor OC. |
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what are the four major disorders of bone remodeling?
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1. osteosporosis: resorption > formation (low bone mass, but matrix:mineral ratio normal)
2. osteopetrosis: defective resorption (hard but brittle bone) 3. osteomalacia: defective mineralization (vit D def, lack Ca/Phos, normal to high matrix) 4. Paget's disease - disorganized, excessive resorption and formation (may be caused by viral infections) |
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what are two common causes of osteosporosis?
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1. excessive resorption: post-menopausal women (cos estrogen important for OB/OC regulation
2. reduced formation (glucocorticoids) (matrix to mineral ratio normal) |
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where is the central appetite regulation center?
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hypothalamus (arcuate nucleus - ARC)
|
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what are the anorexigenic neuropeptides?
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made in ARC: aMSH, CART (cocaine/amphetamine regulated transcript)
others: seratonin (5-TH), CRH |
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what are the orexigenic neuropeptides?
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made in ARC: AgRP (Agouti related protein), neuropeptide Y (ends in tyr, Y, hence name)
others: opioids, orexins, MCH (melanin-concentrating hormone) |
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what is the effect of AgRP?
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1. blocks aMSH at MC4
2. antagonist for MC3/4 receptors |
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What is POMC?
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pro-opiomelanocortin, pro-hormone that includes transcripts for:
1. aMSH (made in pars intermedia) 2. ACTH (made in ant. pituitary) 3. b-endorphins (pain relieve, euphoric effects, may in. appetite) |
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what receptors does ACTH act on?
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MC2, stim. adrenal glands
|
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what are the effects of aMSH?
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on MC1 R: increase pigmentation of melanocytes
on MC3/4 R: decrease food intake |
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what is secreted along with POMC in ARC?
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CART
|
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what is ghrelin?
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GI hormone. High when starved, low after meal.
binds to GH-secretagogue R -> in. GH release increase hunger. |
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what GI hormones inhibit appetite after meal?
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CCK (prox small bowel)
GLP-1 (distal small bowel) insulin (pancreas b cells) PYY (colon) |
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what other factors induces satiety (besides GI hormones)?
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1. mechanical signals (gut distention, nutrient transit) vagus -> CNS
2. nutrients/metabolites (e.g. glucose) |
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what relays GI satiety signals to the hypothalamus?
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nucleus tractus solitaris (NTS) and area postrema in brainstem.
|
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what txn factor is required for maturation of adipocytes?
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PPAR-gamma: stromal cells to mature adipocytes
(cortisol is also required for lipogenesis and fat accumulation) |
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where can you find the highest number of receptors for leptin?
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hypothalamus
|
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where is leptin made?
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adipocytes
|
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what is the effect of leptin?
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crosses BBB to reach hypothalamus, + secretion of POMC/CART;
- secretion of AgRP/NPY (decrease food intake) leptin low when starved |
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why doesn't high leptin levels help in some obese patients?
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they've developed resistance to leptin.
|
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t/f there isn't a correlation bw BMI and Type II diabetes
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False!
|
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how do you describe those neurotransmitters/neuropeptides that stimulate feeding?
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orexigenic
|
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how do you describe those neurotransmitters/neuropeptides that inhibit feeding?
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anorexigenic
|
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t/f leptin inhibits orexigenic neurons
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true
|
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t/f leptin inhibits anorexigenic neurons?
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false
|
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t/f AgRP is an antagonist of one of alpha-MSH's receptors (MC3/MC4)
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true
|
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what does ghrelin do?
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-Acts on hypothalamus to increase hunger
-appears to stimulate food intake in the short temr (low ghrelin after mean, high during fasting) |
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hhow do you gain fat mass?
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1) adipocyte hypertrophy (inc cell mass)
2) adipocyte hyperplasia (inc cell #) |
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As adipocytes increase in size/number – they produce more ________
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leptin
|
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t/f leptin deficiency is a common of cause human obesity
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false! leptin def only accounts for a small percentage of obesity in human
|
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t/f the resting + total energy expenditure of obese people is > than lean people
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true
|
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t/f sympathetic n system inhibits lipolysis & decreases total and basal oxygen consumption
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False
sympathetic n system stimulates lipolysis & increases total and basal oxygen consumption |
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t/f the thyroid hormone axis is responsible for up to 30% of Resting Energy Expenditure (REE)
|
true
|
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list the 4 different types of cells in the islet of Langerhan (pancreas)
|
alpha - glucagon (20%)
beta - insulin (70%) delta - somatostatin (5%) gamma - pancreatic peptides (rare) |
|
what is packaged with insulin into secretory vesicles in the Golgi?
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c-peptide (cleaved from pro-insulin)
pre-proinsulin -> pro-insulin -> insulin (alpha and beta chain joined by disulfide bonds) |
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(t/f) skeletal mm. accounts for ~90% of glucose disposal at high insulin conc
|
true
|
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how is glucose sensed by beta cells?
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glut2 -> gluc into cytosol -> produce ATP -> ATP-sensitive K+ channels (Kir6.2 + SUR1) -> depol -> opens Ca++ channels -> inc. [Ca] in cytosol triggers release of insulin granules
|
|
how is insulin sensed in target cells?
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through insulin receptor (intracellular substrate IRS-1 becomes phosphorylated upon insulin binding -> triggers series of gene txn to inc. glucose transporter, lipogenesis, glucose storage etc)
|
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how does adrenaline affect insulin and glucagon levels?
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inc. glucagon, dec insulin
|
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what hormones stimulates insulin release?
|
glucagon, GI peptides, GH, TSH, ACTH
|
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does parasympathetics increase or decrease insulin?
|
increase; sympathetics decreases
(cf glucagon is increased by both parasymp and symp) |
|
what inhibits glucagon production?
|
insulin and somatostatin
(somatostatin also inhibits insulin) |
|
what's normal glycemia?
|
FPG: <100 mg/dL (diabetes: >126)
2-hr PG: <140 mg/dL (diabetes: >200) |
|
what are the differences between type I and type II diabetes?
|
I: IDDM, autoimmune destruction of beta cells, prone to ketoacidosis, childhoood onset
II: NIDDM, dec. sensitivity to insulin, not prone to KA but can happen, inc. or normal serum insulin, obesity |
|
what does insulin deficiency cause?
|
inc. plasma glucose -> hyperglycemia -> osmotic diuresis -> lost of electrolytes -> dehydration
inc. protein breakdown -> inc. a.a. -> inc. gluconeogenesis -> same as above inc. lipolysis -> inc. free fatty acids -> ketogenesis -> ketouria and acidosis (also inc. glycerol -> inc. gluconeogenesis -> same as above) |