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131 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
hormone responsiveness vs sensitivity?
responsiveness = max response at saturating dose
sensitivity = conc required to reach half max response
which type of hormone has longest half life?
thyroid (T4 ~6.5 days)
are steroids stored to great extent in endocrine glands?
no
what hormones are released from post. pituitary gland?
(made in HYPOTHALAMUS)
ADH and oxytocin
what's ant. and post. pituitary derived from embryonically?
ant: oral ectoderm
post: neuroectoderm
what does oxytocin do?
targets mammary glands and uterus
uterine contraction and lactation
what are the 5 cell types in ant. pituitary?
corticotroph (ACTH, MSH)
thyrotroph (TSH)
gonadotroph (LH, FSH)
somatotroph (GH)
lactotroph (prolactin)
what's the effect of alpha-MSH (melanocyte stim. hormone/melantropin)
stim. production of melanin by melanocytes in skin and hair;
in the brain affects appetite and sexual drives
how are thyroid hormones regulated?
hypothalamus TRH -> pituitary TSH -> follicle cells (T3, T4)

T3 negative feedback to ant. pituitary -> de. sensitivity to TRH (also neg feedback to de. TRH in hypo)
what is TSI?
thyroid stim. immunoglobin
binds to TSH receptors, long-acting -> hyperthyroidism
(implicated in Grave's disease)
how are sex hormones regulated?
hypothalamus GnRH -> pit. LH/FSH -> testes (testosterone) or ovaries (estrogen, progesterone) (all neg. feedback to inhibit both GnRH and LH/FSH
what is ACTH?
adrenocorticotrophic hormone
hypo CRH (corticotropin RH) -> pit. ACTH -> in. cortisol and androgens

cortisol neg. feedback to inhibit CRH
what are the zones of adrenal gland?
GFR, Medulla
G = glomerulosa
F = Fasciculata
R = Reticularis
what hormones are produced in which zone of adrenal gland?
Glomerulosa - Aldosterone
Fasculata - Cortisols
Reticularis - Androgens
Medulla - Catecholamines (75% cells for epi/25% for NE)
what is the precursor of pregnenolone?
cholesterol
what is the precursor of progesterone?
pregnenolone
what is aldosterone derived from? (give pathway)
chol -> pregnenolone -> (3b) progesterone ->-> (21b, 11b) Aldo
what is cortisol derived from? (give pathway)
chol -> preg -> (17a) 17a-OH-preg -> (3b) 17a-OH-progesterone ->-> (21b, 11b) cortisol
what's DHEA derived from? (give pathway)
chol -> preg -> (17a) 17a-OH-preg -> DHEA -> 3b -> testosterone -> estradiol
what is the most common steroid synthesis deficiency?
21b-hydroxylase def.
down: cortisols, aldo,
up: sex hormones
are glucocorticoids pro-inflammatory?
no, they increase production of anti-inflammatory cytokines and impair cell-mediated immunity
what are some effects of glucocorticoids?
degrade mm. proteins -> muscle wasting
anti-insulin actions -> diabetes prone
fat mobilization -> weight gain ++
what is Addison's disease?
adrenal deficiency
what is the sequence of events leading to puberty?
adrenarche, gonadarche, in. pituitary sensitivity, in. gonadal sensitivity
what is the pattern of gonadotropin release during puberty
pulsitile GnRH relse during sleep -> LH -> gonad mature -> sex hormones
what is the sequence of events for puberty for girls? for boys?
girls: breast -> height -> pubic hair -> menarche
boys: testes -> pubic hair -> penis -> height
is premature thelarche physiologic?

yuika: what do you mean by premature? ...do you mean pre-puberty?
(early development of breasts without other signs) Yes. so is adrenarche (usually shown as growth of pubic hair)
what are the two forms of sexual precocity?
complete (gonadotropin dependent)
incomplete (gonadotropin independent) -> showing isolated signs of puberty but not others
what is the role of leptin in puberty?
critical weight/fat mass must be achieved for onset of puberty.
leptin made by adipocytes, stimulates GnRH and adrenal;
leptin def: obesity, gonadotropin def.
how is the male sex determined?
XY -> SRY -> testes ->
1. sertoli -> AMH -> mullerian duct regressions
2. leydig -> testosterone ->
a) AR -> stabilize Wolffian duct
b) (5alpha reductase) -> DHT -> AR -> differentiation of external genitalia
hCG/LH stim. Leydig.
early maturation of zona reticularis causes what?
premature adrenarche (public/axillary hair w/o other signs of puberty)
what are the androgens?
testosterone, dihydrotestosteron, androstenedione
potency: DHT>T>A
what is the earliest endocrine gland to develop?
thyroid
embryonic migration of thyroid requires what?
migration factor TTF-1
what are the steps of thyroid hormone production?
1. iodide uptake
2. organification (I- + thyroperoxidase -> I)
3 incorporation to tyrosine (on thyroglobulin, colloid cells matrix) -> MIT
4. MIT + I -> DIT x2 -> T4
5. T4 + deiodinase -> T3/rev T3 -> T2

(only T3 biologically active)
what mediates iodide uptake?
NIS (Na+/I- symporter) on basolateral surface of thyroid follicles
how is iodide uptake regulated?
TSH in. iodide transport;
perchlorate (ClO4-) and thiocyante inhibits iodide transport;
what is the action of TSH on T3/T4?
TSH causes release of T3/T4 from thyroglobulin -> MIT/DIT deiodinated to release iodine for recycling.
how is the release of thyroid hormones regulated?
hyp. TRH -> pit. TSH -> thy T3/T4 (neg feedback to inhibit both TRH/TSH)
T3/4 in circulation bound to what?
~70% to thy. hormone binding globulin (TBG)
some to albumin and transthyretin
T4 more tightly bound -> longer half life
what is the mechanism of action for T3?
diffuse into cell, bind to THR, displaces co-repressor on THR (bound to RXR in complex) on TRE on DNA, recruits activator -> activate txn.
what are the effects of thyroid hormones?
1. bone growth
2. CNS maturation
3. b-adrenergic effects
4. increase basal metabolic rate (in. body temp, O2 consumption etc)
5. increase glycogenolysis, lipolysis, gluconeogenesis
6. increase CO, HR, SV, contractility, RR
Rathke's pouch (pituitary) gives rise to what?
Corticotrop and alpha-subunit
alpha-subunit derived from Rathke's (pituitary) gives rise to what?
thyrotroph (TSH) and gonadotroph (LH/FSH)
also gives rise to Pit-1, which is precursor to lactotroph (prolactin), thyrotroph and somatotroph (GH)
what is Prop-1?
enz involved in converting alpha-subunit to Pit-1; also a-subunit to gonadotroph
give the hypothalamus-pituitary-GH axis
hypo GHRH -> pit GH -> IGF-1
both GH and IGF-1 neg feedback
what are the effects of GH?
major: in. IGF-1 production
also: metabolic effect on adipose tissue (lipolysis, de. gluc uptake) and mm. (in. gluc uptake, in. protein synthesis)
what are the effects of IGF-1?
major: bone growth, also stim mm growth
what is the signaling pathway for GHRH in somatotroph
GHRH binids GHRH-R (membrane-G-protein) -> cAMP -> PKA -> CREB -> in. Pit-1 -> in. GHRH-R and also GH txn.
(T/F) growth hormone secretion is pulsitile
TRUE (hence cannot just take one measurement for clinical evaluation)
(T/F) growth hormone receptor is a membrane receptor
TRUE
(T/F) growth hormone binding protein is made from part of the GH receptor
TRUE
(T/F) IGF-1 is required only for prenatal growth but not postnatal growth
FALSE. IGF-1 is required for both pre and postnatal growth
(T/F) IGF-1 production is dependent on GH both pre- and postnatally
FALSE. Prenatal IGF-1 is GH-independent. Postnatal IGF-1 is GH-dep.
(T/F) IGF-1 binds insulin receptor
affinity: IGF-1R > insulin R
(+++ IGF-1 -> hypoglycemia)
(T/F) IGF-2 is important for both fetal and postnatal growth?
False. IGF-2 is most important for fetal growth. Postnatal effect unknown.
(T/F) IGF-2 binds both IGF-2R and IGF-1R
TRUE. Action through 1R, 2R mediates IGF-2 clearance.
What are the major hormones and factors that affect growth?
GH (IGF-1), thyroid hormones, sex steroids, growth factors (FGF family), nutrition, genetics
what mutation causes achondroplasia (short statue)
mutation in FGFR3
(T/F) Prenatal growth in height precedes growth in weight
TRUE (hence premature babies are long but thin)
Describe parental imprinting on growth (paternal vs maternal)
paternal imprinting promotes growth
maternal imprinting retards growth
What is Beckwidth-Wiedemann Syndrome?
fetal overgrowth, due to
1) duplication of paternal IGF-2 gene or
2) loss of maternal imprinting of IGF-2
what is Russell-Silver Syndrome?
imprinting abnormality; poor pre- and postnatal growth
What is the Barker hypothesis (Fetal programming and adult diseases)
maternal undernutrition -> fetal growth retardation -> structural change with organ -> poor childhood growth, disease in later life, metabolic & endocrine dysfunction
what's mid-parent height?
80% children reach MPH:
Boys: (Dad's H + (Mom's H + 5))/2
Girls: ((DH - 5) + MH)/2
choose one: intrinsic shortness, delayed growth, attenuated growth:

bone age = chronological age, normal growth rate
intrinsinc shortness
choose one: intrinsic shortness, delayed growth, attenuated growth:

bone age = height age, normal growth rate
delayed (constitutional delay, undernutrition, chronic disease etc)
choose one: intrinsic shortness, delayed growth, attenuated growth:

bone age = height age, slow growth rate
attenuated (endocrinopathy, chronic disease, metabolic disorder etc)
what are growth-hormone stimulation test
(pulsitile!)
Physiological - sleep, exercise, fasting
Pharma - glucagon, arginine, pronanolol, L-dopa, insulin-induced hypoglycemia
choose one: primary hyperparathyroidism, secondary hyperparathyroidism, hypercalcemia of malignancy, hypoparathyroidism:
high serum [Ca], high [PTH]
primary hyperPT (overproduction of PTH)
choose one: primary hyperparathyroidism, secondary hyperparathyroidism, hypercalcemia of malignancy, hypoparathyroidism:
high serum [Ca], low [PTH]
hypercalcemia of malignancy (something is overproducing Ca, e.g. bone cancer)
choose one: primary hyperparathyroidism, secondary hyperparathyroidism, hypercalcemia of malignancy, hypoparathyroidism:
low serum [Ca], low [PTH]
hypoPT (not enough PTH production); may be caused by activating mutation in Ca sensing receptor, or intrinsic PT disorder.
choose one: primary hyperparathyroidism, secondary hyperparathyroidism, hypercalcemia of malignancy, hypoparathyroidism:
low serum [Ca], high [PTH]
secondary hyperPT
(usually caused by renal failure -> unable to produce vit. D in response to PTH -> more PTH produced in attempt to rectify problem, but Ca stays low.)
(T/F) Ca sensing R also recognizes divalent cations e.g. Mg++
True, but with reduced affinity
What class of receptor is Ca sensing receptor?
receptor G-protein (7-membrane spanning)
where are Ca sensing receptors founds?
thyroid C cells (produces calcitonin), renal tubules (TAL), parathyroid chief cells.
what is the signaling pathway of Ca sensing receptors in parathyroid cells?
extracellular Ca -> activate Gq and Gi -> de. cAMP, + PKC -> kinases -> PTH DEGRADATION -> de. PTH release
what secrets PTH?
chief cells of PT (4 altogether)
(T/F) All PTH secreted is suppressible and Ca-dependent
FALSE. 15% non suppressible and not dependent on Ca conc.
Name two disorders caused by inactivating mutations of Ca sensing receptors
Heterozygous:
Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia (FHH): low urine Ca, high PTH, high serum Ca. BENIGN condition (often misdiagnosed as hyperparathyroidism leading to unnecessary excision of PT)

homozygous: severe prenatal hypercalcemia -> FATAL
Name one disorder caused by ACTIVATING mutations of Ca sensing receptors
familial hypocalciuric hypocalcemia = hypoparathyroidism
what is the name of the connective tissue surrounding the bone?
periosteum
what are the differences between woven bone and lamellar bone?
woven: random organization, weaker, deposited rapidly (fetal bone and callus formation)
lamellar: all adult bones (trabecular and compact), stronger, parallel organization, slowly deposited
(T/F) osteoblasts are multinuclear giant cells
FALSE. osteoCLAST are multinuclear
what do osteoblasts and osteoclasts do?
Blasts: form bone, secret type I collagen to form bone matrix, stim. osteoclast maturation

clasts: secrets HCl to dissolve bone for resorption
what are bone-lining cells and osteocytes?
bone lining: resting osteoblasts on bone surface

osteocytes: retired osteoblasts within bone matrix, important for mechanotransduction.
What are RANK and RANKL?
RANKL - on surface osteoblasts, ligand for RANK

RANK - on osteoclast precursor, binding to RANKL enables maturation of precursor OC.
what are the four major disorders of bone remodeling?
1. osteosporosis: resorption > formation (low bone mass, but matrix:mineral ratio normal)
2. osteopetrosis: defective resorption (hard but brittle bone)
3. osteomalacia: defective mineralization (vit D def, lack Ca/Phos, normal to high matrix)
4. Paget's disease - disorganized, excessive resorption and formation (may be caused by viral infections)
what are two common causes of osteosporosis?
1. excessive resorption: post-menopausal women (cos estrogen important for OB/OC regulation

2. reduced formation (glucocorticoids)

(matrix to mineral ratio normal)
where is the central appetite regulation center?
hypothalamus (arcuate nucleus - ARC)
what are the anorexigenic neuropeptides?
made in ARC: aMSH, CART (cocaine/amphetamine regulated transcript)
others: seratonin (5-TH), CRH
what are the orexigenic neuropeptides?
made in ARC: AgRP (Agouti related protein), neuropeptide Y (ends in tyr, Y, hence name)
others: opioids, orexins, MCH (melanin-concentrating hormone)
what is the effect of AgRP?
1. blocks aMSH at MC4
2. antagonist for MC3/4 receptors
What is POMC?
pro-opiomelanocortin, pro-hormone that includes transcripts for:
1. aMSH (made in pars intermedia)
2. ACTH (made in ant. pituitary)
3. b-endorphins (pain relieve, euphoric effects, may in. appetite)
what receptors does ACTH act on?
MC2, stim. adrenal glands
what are the effects of aMSH?
on MC1 R: increase pigmentation of melanocytes
on MC3/4 R: decrease food intake
what is secreted along with POMC in ARC?
CART
what is ghrelin?
GI hormone. High when starved, low after meal.
binds to GH-secretagogue R -> in. GH release
increase hunger.
what GI hormones inhibit appetite after meal?
CCK (prox small bowel)
GLP-1 (distal small bowel)
insulin (pancreas b cells)
PYY (colon)
what other factors induces satiety (besides GI hormones)?
1. mechanical signals (gut distention, nutrient transit) vagus -> CNS
2. nutrients/metabolites (e.g. glucose)
what relays GI satiety signals to the hypothalamus?
nucleus tractus solitaris (NTS) and area postrema in brainstem.
what txn factor is required for maturation of adipocytes?
PPAR-gamma: stromal cells to mature adipocytes
(cortisol is also required for lipogenesis and fat accumulation)
where can you find the highest number of receptors for leptin?
hypothalamus
where is leptin made?
adipocytes
what is the effect of leptin?
crosses BBB to reach hypothalamus, + secretion of POMC/CART;
- secretion of AgRP/NPY
(decrease food intake)
leptin low when starved
why doesn't high leptin levels help in some obese patients?
they've developed resistance to leptin.
t/f there isn't a correlation bw BMI and Type II diabetes
False!
how do you describe those neurotransmitters/neuropeptides that stimulate feeding?
orexigenic
how do you describe those neurotransmitters/neuropeptides that inhibit feeding?
anorexigenic
t/f leptin inhibits orexigenic neurons
true
t/f leptin inhibits anorexigenic neurons?
false
t/f AgRP is an antagonist of one of alpha-MSH's receptors (MC3/MC4)
true
what does ghrelin do?
-Acts on hypothalamus to increase hunger

-appears to stimulate food intake in the short temr

(low ghrelin after mean, high during fasting)
hhow do you gain fat mass?
1) adipocyte hypertrophy (inc cell mass)

2) adipocyte hyperplasia (inc cell #)
As adipocytes increase in size/number – they produce more ________
leptin
t/f leptin deficiency is a common of cause human obesity
false! leptin def only accounts for a small percentage of obesity in human
t/f the resting + total energy expenditure of obese people is > than lean people
true
t/f sympathetic n system inhibits lipolysis & decreases total and basal oxygen consumption
False

sympathetic n system stimulates lipolysis & increases total and basal oxygen consumption
t/f the thyroid hormone axis is responsible for up to 30% of Resting Energy Expenditure (REE)
true
list the 4 different types of cells in the islet of Langerhan (pancreas)
alpha - glucagon (20%)
beta - insulin (70%)
delta - somatostatin (5%)
gamma - pancreatic peptides (rare)
what is packaged with insulin into secretory vesicles in the Golgi?
c-peptide (cleaved from pro-insulin)
pre-proinsulin -> pro-insulin -> insulin (alpha and beta chain joined by disulfide bonds)
(t/f) skeletal mm. accounts for ~90% of glucose disposal at high insulin conc
true
how is glucose sensed by beta cells?
glut2 -> gluc into cytosol -> produce ATP -> ATP-sensitive K+ channels (Kir6.2 + SUR1) -> depol -> opens Ca++ channels -> inc. [Ca] in cytosol triggers release of insulin granules
how is insulin sensed in target cells?
through insulin receptor (intracellular substrate IRS-1 becomes phosphorylated upon insulin binding -> triggers series of gene txn to inc. glucose transporter, lipogenesis, glucose storage etc)
how does adrenaline affect insulin and glucagon levels?
inc. glucagon, dec insulin
what hormones stimulates insulin release?
glucagon, GI peptides, GH, TSH, ACTH
does parasympathetics increase or decrease insulin?
increase; sympathetics decreases
(cf glucagon is increased by both parasymp and symp)
what inhibits glucagon production?
insulin and somatostatin
(somatostatin also inhibits insulin)
what's normal glycemia?
FPG: <100 mg/dL (diabetes: >126)
2-hr PG: <140 mg/dL (diabetes: >200)
what are the differences between type I and type II diabetes?
I: IDDM, autoimmune destruction of beta cells, prone to ketoacidosis, childhoood onset
II: NIDDM, dec. sensitivity to insulin, not prone to KA but can happen, inc. or normal serum insulin, obesity
what does insulin deficiency cause?
inc. plasma glucose -> hyperglycemia -> osmotic diuresis -> lost of electrolytes -> dehydration
inc. protein breakdown -> inc. a.a. -> inc. gluconeogenesis -> same as above
inc. lipolysis -> inc. free fatty acids -> ketogenesis -> ketouria and acidosis (also inc. glycerol -> inc. gluconeogenesis -> same as above)