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336 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
rib levels of breast
clavicle and 2nd rib to 6th rib
tail of Spence
axillary tail of breast tissue
which kind of tissue forms lobes in the breast?
where do the lobules drain?
glandular tissue (secretory tuboalveolar glands and ducts)
they drain into milk-producing ducts and sinuses that open onto the areolar surface
which kind of tissue provides structural support to the breast?
fibrous connective tissue
when may nodularity of the breasts increase?
before menses
where do the lymphatics drain to from the breast?
which nodes drain the anterior chest wall and much of the breast?
which nodes drain the posterior chest wall and a portion of the arm?
which nodes drain most of the arm?
to the axilla (central nodes are most frequently palpable)
pectoral nodes (anterior)
subscapular nodes (posterior)
lateral nodes
when is the best time to perform a self breast exam?
when estrogen is lowest - 5-7 days after onset of menses
when is galactorrhea abnormal?
when it occurs 6+ months after childbirth or cessation of breastfeeding
fine, round, mobile, nontender, usually single breast masses most common in ages 15-25
fibroadenomas
soft to firm, round, mobile, tender
breast masses
nodular, ropelike breast masses
both common in ages 25-50
cysts
fibrocystic changes
most common cause of cancer in women worldwide and the second leading cause of cancer death in women
breast cancer
lifetime risk of developing breast cancer
12% of 1 in 8; increases by decade
highest mortality rates of breast cancer are found in which age groups?
<35 yo or >75 yo
2 reasons why the # of new cases of breast cancer has been falling
1. decreased mammograms
2. decreased us of HRT
which group has the higher risk for breast CA early, larger, and more deadly?
African American women
does breastfeeding increase or decrease risk of breast CA?
use of contraceptives?
HRT?
breastfeeding - decreases risk
OCPs - increases risk
HRT - increases risk
what is the increased risk of breast CA if the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes are present?
BRCA1 - 65% by age 70
BRCA2 - 45% by age 70
5 risk factors as criteria for identifying women at risk for the BRCA1/2 genes
1. 1st degree relative w/ a mutation
2. 2+ relatives w/ breast CA <50 yo, and 1+ is a 1st degree relative
3. 3+ relatives w/ breast CA, 1+ <50 yo
4. 2+ relatives w/ ovarian CA
5. 1+ w/ ovarian CA and 1+ w/ breast CA
this is a strong independent risk factor for breast CA even after adjusting for the effects of other risk factors; underused risk factor
mammographic breast density
women w/ radiographic density of this much have a 4-6x greater risk of breast CA
60-75%
what is the recommendation for mammograms in women 40-50 yo? 50-70 yo?
40-50 - every 1-2 years (controversial)
50-70 - every year
what is the recommendation for CBE? BSE?
every 3 years in women 20-40
every year >40
American Cancer Society no longer recommends monthly BSE, but still a good idea to teach patients
what is the recommendation for breast MRIs?
women at high lifetime risk or risk of >20%
2 prophylactic treatments to prevent breast CA
1. chemoprevention w/ estrogen-receptor modulators
2. bilateral mastectomy
4 views of inspection of the breasts
1. arms at sides
2. arms over head
3. arms pressed against hips
4. leaning forward
thickening and prominent pores of the skin over the breast suggests...
breast CA
masses, dimpling, or flattening of the normally convex breast suggests...
breast CA
asymmetry of directions of nipples and retraction of nipple that is broadened and thickened suggest...
underlying breast CA
rash or ulceration of the breast suggests...
Paget's disease
dimpling and retraction of skin of the breast may suggest something other than cancer like...
1. posttraumatic fat necrosis
2. mammary duct ectasia
best technique for detecting breast masses
vertical strip pattern, palpating in small concentric circles
what portion of the breast are you palpating if you have the pt roll onto the opposite hip placing her hand on her forehead and keeping her shoulders on the table?
lateral portion
what portion of the breast are you palpating if you have the pt place her hand at her neck and lift her elbow until it is even with her shoulder?
medial portion
tender cords in the breast tissue suggest...
mammary duct ectasia (dilated ducts w/ surrounding inflammation)
hard, irregular, poorly circumscribed nodule fixed to the skin suggests...
breast CA
enlarged, firm disc of glandular enlargement in male breast
gynecomastia
peak age of male breast CA
71
which position is preferable for examining the axilla?
sitting
hidradenitis suppurativa
sweat gland infection in the axilla
deeply pigmented, velvety axillary skin in the axilla
acanthosis nigricans (one form is associated w/ internal malignancy)
nonpuerperal galactorrhea
what's it caused by?
milky discharge unrelated to prior pregnancy and lactation
caused by hypothyroidism, pituitary prolactinoma, dopamine agonists
bloody discharge from one or two ducts suggests 1 of these 3 things...
1. intraductal papilloma
2. carcinoma in situ
3. Paget's disease
most common quadrant of the breast to have a malignancy
upper outer
3 most common kinds of breast masses
1. fibroadenoma
2. cysts
3. cancer
are fibrocystic changes considered a risk factor for cancer?
no
peau d'orange sign
edema of the skin caused by lymphatic blockade that appears as thickened skin w/ enlarged pores
suspect this in any persisting dermatitis of the nipple or areola
Paget's disease
what are Montgomery glands?
sebaceous glands on the areola
one of the first signs of puberty in girls?
physical changes in breasts
age range of secondary sex characteristics appearing in girls
how long does the maturational change usually take
8-13 yo
about 4 years
how long after the beginning of breast development does menarche often occur?
what Tanner stage are girls at when they reach menarche?
within 1 year
usually Tanner 3 or 4
7 factors for describing a nodule that is palpated
1. location
2. size
3. consistency
4. mobility
5. shape
6. delimitation
7. tenderness
how do you palpate the axilla?
using the opposite hand
characteristics of normal central nodes when palpated
soft, small (<1 cm), nontender
3 columns of vascular erectile tissue in the penis
which contains the urethra and ends in the glans?
corpus spongiosum and 2 corpora cavernosa
the corpus spongiosum contains the urethra and ends in the glans
which testis usually lies lower?
the left
these produce spermatozoa and testosterone
testes
this serous membrane covers the testis except posteriorly
what covers it posteriorly?
tunica vaginalis
the epididymis
this provides reservoir for storage, maturation, and transport of sperm from the testis to the vas deferens
epididymis
transfers sperm to the urethra
vas deferens
these two structures merge to form the ejaculatory duct
vas deferens and seminal vesicle
what makes up the spermatic cord?
vas deferens, blood vessels, nerves, muscle fibers
lymphatics of penile and scrotal surfaces drain to...
lympathics of the testes drain to...
inguinal nodes
abdomen
where is the femoral canal located?
medial to the femoral artery and vein
approximately what percentage of patients may have same-sex, bisexual, or transgender partner preferences?
~10%
3 causes of loss of libido
1. depression
2. endocrine dysfunction
3. medications
what is a sign that erectile dysfunction is psychogenic?
what are 3 other causes of ED?
early morning erection is preserved
1. decreased testosterone
2. decreased blood flow
3. impaired neural innervation
lack of orgasm w/ ejacutation suggests...
psychogenic cause
color of penile discharge from:
gonococcal urethritis
nongonococcal urethritis
yellow
clear or white
which developed country has the highest rate of STDs?
which STD is most common
US
Chlamydia most common, followed by gonorrhea and then syphilis
which STDs don't have to be reported?
HPV, genital herpes
what % of people with STDs don't know they have them?
25%
7 groups that are recommended to get HIV screening and counseling
1. MSM
2. people having unprotected sex w/ multiple partners
3. past or present IV drug users
4. sex workers
5. past or present sex partners w/ hx of STDs, HIV, IVDA, or bisexual practice
6. received blood transfusions b/w 1978-1985
7. those requesting testing
what position should the man be in for genital exam? for hernia check?
genital exam - standing or supine
hernia check - standing
tight prepuce that cannot be retracted over the glans
phimosis
tight prepuce that once retracted cannot be returned; edema ensues
paraphimosis
balanitis vs. balanoposthitis
balanitis - inflammation of glans
balanoposthitis - inflammation of glans and prepuce
congenital ventral displacement of the meatus on the penis
hypospadias
induration along the ventral surface of the penis suggests...
1. urethral stricture
2. carcinoma
dome-shaped white or yellow papules or nodules formed by occluded follicles filled w/ heratin debris of desquamated follicular epithelium found on the scrotum; frequently multiple and benign
epidermoid cysts
cryptorchidism
undescended testicle
painless nodule in the testis
testicular cancer
peak incidence of testicular cancer
ages 15-35
varicocele
which side is this usually found?
multiple tortuous veins in the area of the spermatic cord
on the left
hydrocele
cystic structure in the spermatic cord
which light up by transillumination: hydrocele, tumor, hernia?
only hydrocele will transilluminate
bulge near external inguinal ring suggests...
bulge near internal inguinal ring suggests...
direct
indirect
if a bulge returns the abdomen when a man lays down, that suggests...
if not, but you can get your fingers above the mass in the scrotum, that suggests...
what else can you do to distinguish the two?
hernia
hydrocele
auscultate the mass - bowel sounds suggest hernia
when should you not try to reduce a hernia? what do these sx suggest?
if there's pain or hx of N/V
suggests strangulation
most common cancer of young men 15-35
testicular CA
2 conditions in which you may see scrotal edema?
1. CHF
2. nephrotic syndrome
palpable, nontender, hard plaques found just beneath the skin usually along the dorsum of the penis; pt complains of painful, crooked erections
Peyronie's disease
in which men is penile CA more common
uncircumcised men
incubation period of genital herpes
2-7 days after exposure
bacteria that causes chancroids
presentation of chancroid
H. ducreyi
painful lymphadenopathy and buboes
small firm testis seen in this disorder
Klinefelter's
acutely inflamed painful tender and swollen testis; usually due to viral infx like mumps
acute orchitis
spermatocele and cyst of the epididymis - do they transilluminate?
yes
coexisting UTI or prostatitis supports this dx
acute epididymis
acutely painful, swollen testis that is retracted upward in the scrotum; red and edematous; not associated w/ UTI; surgical emergency
torsion of spermatic cord
thickening or beading of epididymitis
tuberculous epididymitis
most common hernia type
which is more common in women?
indirect hernia
femoral hernia
which hernia type commonly goes into the scrotum?
indirect hernia
stroking the ipsilateral thigh and notice that testicle rise
cremasteric reflex
ADC VAAN DIMLS
Admit to
Diagnosis
Condition/Code status
Vitals
Activity
Allergies
Nursing orders
Diet
Ins and outs
Medications
Labs
Special orders
order of directed H&P
CC
HPI
PE
Lab Results
Impression
Plan - ADC VAAN DIMLS (admission orders)
order of SOAP note
S - CC (only outpatient), how pt feels, other complaints, changes in sx, response to therapy
O - PE, labs
A/P - assessment/plan
solutions w/ small molecules that flow easily from the bloodstream into cells and tissues
crystalloids (isotonic, hypertonic, or hypotonic)
solutions w/ larger molecules used to expand plasma in patients who don't respond to other things
example?
colloids (always hypertonic)
plasma protein factor or albumin
used to replace fluid loss and dehydration; treats hyperNa; need to be careful in pts w/ renal/cardiac disease b/c of fluid overload
is this iso-, hyper-, or hypotonic?
dextrose 5% in water (D5W)
isotonic
used to perform fluid challenge or treat shock, DKA, hyperCa, hypoNa, or metabolic alkalosis; need to be careful in CHF, edema, or hyperNa
is this iso-, hyper-, or hypotonic?
NSS or 0.9% NaCl
isotonic
used to treat acute blood loss, burns, dehydration, and lower GI tract fluid loss; have to caution w/ renal failure b/c K is in this
is this iso-, hyper-, or hypotonic?
Lactated Ringer's
isotonic
hypertonic solutions cause ______ of cells
hypotonic solutions cause ______ of cells
shrinking
swelling
hypertonic solution used to tx DKA after initial tx w/ NSS and once the glucose falls below 250; prevents hypoglycemia and cerebral edema
D5 1/2 NSS or D5 in 0.45% NSS
hypertonic solution used to tx SIADH or hypotonic dehydration; caution in cardiac or renal pts b/c can cause CHF or pulmonary edema
D5 NSS or D5 in 0.9% NSS
used to replace gastric fluid loss from NG tube or suctioning; tx hypertonic dehydration, sodium and chloride depletion
0.45% NS
hypotonic
what can 0.45% NS cause?
when should it not be used?
CV collapse or increased ICP
trauma or burns
maintenance fluid equation
30 cc/kg/24 hr
for a 70 kg person --> NSS @ 87 cc/hr x 24 hr or 2 L
how should fluids be given for dehydration or hypovolemia
NSS @ 1 L bolus IV
NSS @ 2500 bolus IV, then 100 cc/hr x 1 L
where are Skene's glands found?
paraurethral region (posterior and lateral to the urethral meatus)
2 parts of the uterus
how are the connected?
corpus (body) and cervix
connected by isthmus
convex upper surface of the body of the uterus
fundus
the distal cervix divides the upper portion of the vagina into these 3 recesses
posterior, anterior, and lateral fornices
this marks the opening of the endocervical canal
external os
red columnar epithelium vs/ pink squamous epithelium
which is found in the ectocervix?
red columnar - endocervical canal
pink squamous - vagina
both
average size of ovary
3.5x2x1.5 cm
ovaries, tubes, and supporting tissues
adnexa
2 primary functions of the ovary
production of ova
secretion of hormones
parietal peritoneum extending downward behind the uterus
rectouterine pouch (pouch of Douglas)
lymph from vulva and lower vagina drains to...
lymph from the internal genitalia including the upper vagina drains to...
inguinal nodes
pelvic and abdominal nodes
range of ages for menopause
48-55
postmenopausal bleeding is considered bleeding occurring...
6 months or more after cessation of menses
for PMS to be diagnosed, when and how often do sx have to occur
5 days before menses for at least 3 consecutive cycles
resolves within 4 days after onset of menses
interferes w/ daily activities
range of ages for menarche
9-16
range of interval b/w periods
range of length of period
24-32 days
3-7 days
% of women who present w/ dysmenorrhea
50%
caused by increased prostaglandin production during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle, when estrogen and progesterone decline
primary dysmenorrhea
causes of secondary dysmenorrhea
endometriosis, adenomyosis, PID, endometrial polyps
failure of periods to initiate
primary amenorrhea
cessation of periods after they have been established
secondary amenorrhea
1. fewer than 21-day intervals b/w menses
2. infrequent bleeding
3. excessive flow
4. intermenstrual bleeding
1. polymenorrhea
2. oligomenorrhea
3. menorrhagia
4. metorrhagia
amenorrhea followed by heavy bleeding suggests...
threatened abortion or dysfunctional uterine bleeding related to lack of ovulation
2 most common vulvovaginal sx
discharge and itching
3 phases of sexual response
desire
arousal
orgasm
involuntary spasm of the muscles surrounding surrounding the vaginal orifice that make penetration during intercourse painful or impossible
vaginismus (may be physical or psychological)
most common type of cervical cancer
squamous cell carcinoma
screening for cervical cancer
1. initial - 3 yrs after sex or age 21
2. < 30 - annually
3. >30 - every 2-3 yrs
4. hysterectomy - d/c unless cervix is spared; annual if pt had CA until 3 consecutive are negative
5. >70 - d/c if 3 consecutive are negative, unless hx of cervical CA, DES exposure, HIV, or immunocompromised
ASC(-US)
LSIL
HSIL
ASC(-US) - atypical squamous cells (undetermined significance)
LSIL - low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions
HSIL - high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions
prevalence of HPV in girls 14-19
40%
4 screening methods for women at high genetic risk for ovarian CA
1. BSO
2. frequent pelvic exams
3. CA-125 levels
4. transvaginal US
most common STD in the US
most common reported STD in the US
most common STD in women
HPV
Chlamydia
Chlamydia
what happens if Chlamydia is left untreated?
40% get PID
20% become infertile
in whom are HIV and AIDS infx rising fastest? which race?
women
African-American (60%)
4 red flags for HIV infx
1. recurrent candidiasis
2. concurrent STDs
3. abnormal Paps
4. HPV infx
what is usually the most comfortable speculum for sexually active women?
for women w/ small introitus (elderly, virgin)?
for parous women w/ vaginal prolapse?
medium Pedersen
narrow-bladed Pedersen
Graves specula
when the uterus is retroverted, the cervix points more...
anteriorly
3 risk factors for Chlamydial infx
1. <25 yo
2. multiple partners
3. prior hx of STDs
2 options for obtaining the pap smear
1. cervical scrape + endocervical brush
2. cervical broom
what should be used in place of the endocervical brush in pregnant women
moistened cotton-tip applicator
2 risk factors for vaginal CA
1. DES exposure in utero
2. HPV infx
pain on movement of the cervix + adnexal tenderness =
PID
nodules on the uterine surface suggest...
myomas
pelvic pain, bloating, increased abdominal size, and urinary tract sx suggest...
ovarian CA
when are the ovaries nonpalpable?
3-5 years after menopause
how do you know if the pt has full strength of her pelvic muscles?
they compress your fingers snugly, they move your fingers upward and inward, and it lasts 3+ seconds
3 reasons for doing a rectopelvic exam
1. palpate a retroverted uterus, the uterosacral ligaments, cul-de-sac, and adnexa
2. screen for colorectal CA in women >50
3. assess pelvic pathology
in the rectopelvic exam, where do you apply pressure?
the anterior and lateral walls with the examining fingers and the abdomen with the other hand
where do you palpate for an indirect hernia in women?
labia majora and upward to just lateral to the pubic tubercle
firm painless ulcer, often found internally in women
chancre of syphilis
slightly raised, round or oval, flat-topped papules covered by a gray exudate
condyloma lata which may be a manifestation of secondary syphilis
small painful ulcers on red bases; initial infection may be extensive, but following infx are usually smaller
herpes
bulge of the upper 2/3 of the anterior vaginal wall
cystocele
entire anterior vaginal wall w/ the bladder and urethra bulge
cystourethrocele
small, red, benign tumor at the posterior part of the urethral meatus found usually in postmenopausal women w/ no sx
urethral caruncle
swollen red ring around the urethral meatus usually occurring before menarche or after menopause
prolapse of urethral mucosa
herniation of the rectum into the posterior wall of the vagina
rectocele
translucent nodules found on the cervical surface due to increased estrogen causing columnar epithelium to transform into squamous
retention or nabothian cysts
benign, bright red, soft, fragile nodule on the cervix
cervical polyp
causes columnar epithelium to cover cervix and extend to the vaginal wall (vaginal adenosis); also causes circular collar or ridge of tissue b/w the cervix and vagina
DES exposure in utero
tilting backward of entire uterus, including the body and cervix; mobile and asymptomatic
retroversion of the uterus
backward angulation of the body of the uterus in relation to the cervix
retroflexion of the uterus
1st degree prolapse
2nd degree prolapse
3rd degree prolapse
1st - cervix is well within the vagina
2nd - cervix is at the introitus
3rd - cervix and vagina are outside the introitus
how do ovarian cysts and tumors feel different?
cysts - smooth and compressible
tumors - solid and often nodular
dx of PCOS rests on the exlusion of other endocrine disorders and 2 of the 3 following features:
absent or irregular menses
hyperandrogenism
confirmation of polycystic ovaries on US
what 2 features do the labia majora have that the labia minora don't have?
hair follicles
underlying adipose tissue
which is longer, the anterior or posterior fornix?
posterior by 2 cm
cornua
where the fallopian tubes enter the uterus
serrated line marking the change from skin to mucous membrane demarcating the anal canal from the rectum
dentate line
how many lobes of the prostate? where are they located?
2 lateral lobes are anterior to the rectal wall (feel like rounded, heart-shaped structure 2.5 cm long) - separated by median sulcus
1 median lobe anterior to the urethra
these are shaped like rabbit ears above the prostate
seminal vesicles
what is palpable through the anterior wall of the rectum in women?
cervix
what are the 3 inward foldings of the rectal wall?
can they be felt? if so where?
valves of Houston
the lowest may be felt usually on the pt's left
which part of the rectum is covered by peritoneum?
anterior surface
mucus in the bowel movements may accompany...
villous adenoma
2 things that increase risk for colon cancer
FH of colon polyps or CA
hx of IBD
itching, anorectal pain, tenesmus, d/c or bleeding suggest
proctitis
leading cancer in men in the US
prostate CA
3 leading causes of cancer deaths in men
1. lung
2. colon
3. prostate
3 primary risk factors of colon cancer
1. age (increases after 50)
2. ethnicity (higher in AA)
3. FH (15% w/ 1st degree relative)
recommendation for screening for prostate cancer
DRE+PSA beginning at 50 yo or 40 yo in AA men and men w/ + FH
swollen, thickened, fissured perianal skin w/ excoriations suggests...
pruritis ani
tender purulent, reddened anal mass w/ fever and chills suggests...
anal abscess
which direction should your finger point when entering the anus?
which way do you need to rotate your finger to examine the prostate?
toward the umbilicus
counterclockwise
what does a normal prostate feel like?
rubbery and nontender
what position is best for rectal exams?
left lateral decubitus
common congenital abnormality located in the midline superficial to the coccyx of lower sacrum; usually asymptomatic
pilonidal cyst
what does an anal fissure look like and where is it usually located?
oval ulceration of the anal canal located in midline posteriorly
inflammatory tract or tube that opens at one end into the anus or rectum and at the other end onto the skin surface or into another viscus
anorectal fistula
firm to hard nodular rectal shelf in the area of the peritoneal reflection anterior to the rectum
widespread peritoneal mets
tender, swollen, boggy, warm prostate w/ associated fever, UTI sx, and incomplete voiding
what usually causes it?
acute bacterial prostatitis
E. coli, Proteus, enterococcus, or GC/Chlamydia
obstructive or irritative urinary sx on voiding but no evidence of prostate infx or UTI
chronic pelvic pain syndrome
this stimulates lactotrophs in the anterior pituitary to triple in size and increase prolactin output to ready the breast tissue for lactation
estradiol
2 hormones released by the posterior pituitary
oxytocin --> lactation
ADH --> conserves water
this resets the receptors for thirst and ADH release, leading to decreases in serum [Na] and sometimes polyuria
HCG
this effects thyroxine-binding globulin
this stimulates TSH receptors
both of these lead to fluctuations in T4 and T3 levels and in TSH
estrogen
HCG
these contribute to insulin resistance and a shift from carb to fat metabolism
placental hormones
at the end of pregnancy, increases in these 2 hormones causes a state of relative hypercortisolism that may trigger labor
placental CRH and adrenal ACTH
tidal volume and minute ventilation increase in pregnancy due to...
this also relaxes tone and contraction of the ureters (hydronephrosis) and the bladder (increased risk of bacteriuria)
progesterone
these lower esophageal sphincter tone causing heartburn and reflux
progesterone and estradiol
which rises more: RBC mass or plasma volume? what does this case?
plasma volume
causes a relative hemodilution and physiologic anemia
do the following increase or decrease during pregnancy:
CO
BP
SVR
CO increase
BP and SVR decrease
secreted in the corpus luteum and placenta; causes lumbar lordosis and ligamentous laxity of sacroiliac joints and pubic symphysis
relaxin
when in pregnancy do the breasts become more nodular?
by the 3rd month
5 breast changes in pregnancy
1. nipples larger and more erectile
2. colostrum
3. areola darker
4. Montgomery's glands more pronounced
5. venous pattern more visible
when is the uterus most easily palpated?
beyond 12-14 wks
when is the uterus at the level of the umbilicus?
20 weeks
vagina has bluish or violet color
Chadwick's sign
what is the character of the discharge during pregnancy?
thicker, white, more profuse, and more acidic
palpable softening at the isthmus of the uterus during pregnancy
Hegar's sign
increase in weight and volume of uterus during pregnancy
50-70 g --> 800-1200 g
10 ml --> 5 L
when does the uterus rise out of the pelvis?
after 12 weeks
red velvety mucosa appearing on the cervix in pregnancy
cervical erosion or eversion
diastasis recti
when the rectus abdominis muscles separate at the midline during pregnancy
this hormone has a sedative effect, causing fatigue in 1st and 3rd trimesters
progesterone
best confirmation of pregnancy
urine bHCG
menstrual age
conception age
count in weeks from 1st day of LMP
count in weeks from date of conception
4 things to check on f/u visits of pregnant women
1. BP and weight
2. palpation of fundus to access fetal growth
3. verification of FHTs
4. determine fetal presentation and activity
how much more should a pregnant woman eat?
how much protein, iron, calcium, and folic acid?
300 extra Calories
protein - 10-15 g
iron - 15 mg
calcium - 250 mg
folic acid - 400-800 mcg
shark
swordfish
king mackerel
canned albacore tuna
higher levels of mercury - avoid these in pregnancy
average weight gain during pregnancy
28 lb (10 kg)
not a lot during 1st trimester; most during 2nd trimester; slowing of increase during 3rd trimester
how much exercise during pregnancy?
30 minutes of moderate exercise on most days
avoid supine exercise after 1st trimester
gestational HTN is:
systolic >140 and diastolic >90 first occurring after week 20 and w/o proteinuria
chronic HTN
systolic >140 and diastolic >90 before 20 weeks and for at least 12 weeks postpartum
preeclamspia
SBP >140, DBP >90 after 20 weeks w/ proteinuria
1st trimester wt loss should not exceed...
5% of prepartum weight
irregular brownish patches around forehead and cheeks, across nose, or along jaw; mask of pregnancy
chloasma
changes in nose and mouth during pregnancy
changes in thyroid
nose - congestion and nosebleeds are more common
mouth - gingival enlargement w/ bleeding is common
thyroid - moderate symmetric enlargement is normal
which metabolic disturbance is expected in pregnancy
resp alkalosis
normal murmurs in pregnant women
venous hum and systolic or continuous mammary souffle
when can fetal movements be felt by mom? by examiner?
mom - 18-20 weeks
examiner - 24 weeks
when do you start measuring fundal height?
week 20
location of FHR at different weeks
12-18 weeks in the midline of lower abdomen
after 28 weeks over the fetal back or chest
normal FHR in different trimesters
when does rate increase w/ movement
early - 160s
late/near term - 120-140s
after 32-34 weeks
pink cervix or vagina suggests...
non-pregnant state
how long should cervix be prior to 34-36 weeks
normal length - 1.5-2 cm
when do you start doing Leopold's maneuvers?
28 weeks
2 most serious findings on Leopold maneuvers
1. transverse lie close to term
2. slowed fetal growth which could represent IUGR
Leopold's maneuvers
1. upper pole
2. sides of maternal abdomen
3. lower pole
4. confirmation of presenting part
difference b/w fetal butt and head
difference b/w fetal back and arms/legs
butt - firm but irregular
head - firm, round, and smooth
back - smooth,firm surface the length of your hand at 32 weeks
arms/legs - irregular bumps
if the hands diverge w/ downward pressure when palpating the lower pole, it means...
the presenting part is descending into the pelvic inlet
FDA categorization of drug risks to fetus
A - controlled studies in women; no risk
B - no risk in animal studies but no studies in women or adverse effect in animal studies but none in studies of women
C - risk in animal studies and no studies have been done in women or no studies done at all; only give if the benefit justifies the risk to the fetus
D - evidence of human fetal risk but benefits may be acceptible despite the risk
X - evidence of fetal risk which clearly outweighs any benefit
4 principles of child development
1. predictable pathway (loss of milestones is concerning)
2. wide range of normal development
3. variety of factors affect development and health
4. child's developmental level decides how to conduct H&P
most rapid rate of growth occurs when?
in this time, how much does weight and height increase?
1st year of life
weight triples, height increases by 50%
how does neurologic development progress?
central to peripheral
neonatal period
postneonatal period
infancy
first 28 days
29 days-1 year
first year
when are newborns most responsive?
1-2 hours after feeding
5 components of Apgar scoring system
1. HR
2. respiratory effort
3. muscle tone
4. reflex irritability
5. color
when do you perform apgar scores?
1 and 5 minutes
every 5 minutes therafter if the score is 7 or less
birth weights:
1. extremely low
2. very low
3. low
4. normal
1. <1000 g
2. <1500 g
3. <2500 g
4. >= 2500 g
SGA
AGA
LGA
<10th%
10-90th%
>90th%
posture of breech babies postpartum
posture of frank breech babies postpartum
breech - legs and head extended
frank breech - legs abducted and ER
motor activity at:
3 months
6 months
1 year
3 mo - lift head and clasp hands
6 mo - roll over, reach for objects, turn to voices, sit w/ support
1 year - stand, put things in mouth
language development
2 mo - cooing
6 mo - babbling
1 year - 1-3 words
4 domains of development from DDST
1. personal-social
2. fine motor-adaptive
3. language
4. gross motor
recommended times for health promotion visits for infant
birth, one week, 1, 2, 4, 6, 9, 12 months
7 critical measurements for infants
1. weight
2. height
3. head circumference
4. BP
5. HR
6. RR
7. temp
inadequate weight gain for age
failure to thrive
until what age should you measure head circumference
first 2 years
head size >97th%
macrocephaly
at what age can you start taking oral temps?
>7
where should you palpate infants HR?
femorals, brachials, anterior fontanelle
auscultate heart
what is tachypnea for the following age groups:
birth-2 mo
2-12 mo
>60
>50
normal temp until age 3
>99
common skin appearance in preterm infants and congenital hypothyroidism or Down syndrome
cutis marmorata (mottled, lattice-like appearance)
if acrocyanosis is not gone w/in 8 hours or with warming, consider...
cyanotic heart disease
Waxy, “cheesy” substance coating the skin of the newborn; secreted by the fetus’ sebaceous glands in utero
vernix caseosa
best place to look for central cyanosis
tongue and oral mucosa
fine, downy hair over entire body
disappears within 2 weeks
lanugo
if jaundice occurs w/in first 24 hours of birth, consider...
hemolytic disease of the newborn
jaundice lasting beyond 2 weeks suggests one of these 3
hemolytic disease of the newborn
biliary obstruction
liver disease
pale yellow skin primarily present on the soles of the feet, palms, nose, and naso-labial folds
carotenemia
pin-head sized, smooth, raised, white areas without surrounding erythema; usually appear in 1st few weeks and disappear within 1-2 weeks
milia
erythematous grouped papules or vesicles; usually on the face and trunk; disappears on its own
miliaria rubra
erythematous macules w/ central pinpoint vesicles or wheals over the entire body; disappear w/in a week of birth
erythema toxicum
open and closed comedomes appearing at 4-6 weeks and resolving in 6-12 mo
acne neonatorum
salmon patch/story bite
nevus simplex on back of neck
angel kisses
nevus simplex on upper eyelids, forehead, or upper lip
port wine stains
not likely to fade, dark and large; if on ophthalmic branch of trigeminal nerve, may be a sign of Sturge-Weber syndrome
seziures, hemiparesis, glaucoma, and MR
Sturge-Weber syndrome
newborn's head accounts for how much of length and weight
1/4 of length
1/3 of weight
size and time of closure of fontanelles
anterior - 4-6 cm in diameter; closes at 4-26 mo
posterior - 1-2 cm in diameter; closes at 2 mo
enlarged posterior fontanelle
congenital hypothyroidism
depressed anterior fontanelle
dehydration
premature closure of one or more sutures resulting in alteration in head shape
craniosynostosis
asymmetry of cranial vault
plagiocephaly
relatively long occipitofrontal diameter and narrow bitemporal diameter
dolichocephaly
micrognathia may be part of this syndrome
Pierre Robin syndrome
when is nystagmus normal in an infant?
immediately after birth
scattered white spots on the iris; indicative of Down’s Syndrome, but may be present in some normal infants
Brushfield spots
reduced vision in an otherwise normal eye; caused by disuse
amblyopia (seen in early childhood)
caused by strabismus or anisometropia
at what age might you be able to accurately measure visual acuity
3 yo
small, deformed, or low-set ears may indicate associated congenital defects, such as...
renal agenesis = Potter's syndrome
fetal alcohol syndrome
how can you test an infant's hearing?
acoustic blink reflex
which sinuses are developed at birth?
ethmoid sinuses only
tiny white or yellow rounded mucous retention cysts located along the posterior midline of the hard palate; disappear w/in months
Epstein's pearls
notching of posterior margin of hard palate or bifid uvula; +/- hypernasal speech
submucosal cleft palate
breathing is predominantly _______ in infants
abdominal
funnel chest
chicken breast deformity
pectus excavatum
pectus carinatum
apnea is cessation of breathing for how long
what often accompanies apnea?
>20 s
bradycardia
respiratory pattern of infants
normal breathing at 30-40/min alternating w/ periodic breathing during which breathing slows markedly or ceases for 5-10 seconds
4 things to look/listen for in respiratory assessment of infants
1. nasal flaring
2. wheezing
3. grunting
4. lack of breath sounds
which part of the lung exam is not useful in infants?
percussion
absence or diminution of femoral pulses may indicate...
weak or thready pulse may indicate...
coarctation of the aorta
myocradial dysfunction or CHF
most common potentially harmful dysrhythmia in infants
common normal sinus dysrhythmia
paroxysmal SVTs or paroxysmal atrial tachy (>240)
increased HR on inspiration, decreased on expiration
how can you tell b/w a benign and malignant murmur in children?
benign murmurs have NO associated abnormal findings
RUQ or midline "olive" mass
pyloric stenosis
at what age is there full retraction of the foreskin
not until 3-4 yo
how can you tell the difference from a true deformity from a transient deformity
true deformities don't return to neutral position w/ manipulation
abduction of each hip to assess dislocation; if + hear an audible clunk
Ortolani test
adduction of each hip to assess for dislocation; feel for movement of femur laterally
Barlow test
optic blink reflex (dazzle reflex)
infants will close eyes in response to bright light
infant supported upright under axillae
head maintained in midline with legs flexed at the hip and knee
disappears after 4 months
vertical suspension positioning
have one sole touch tabletop, knee and hip will flex and the other foot steps forward
placing and stepping reflexes
baby supine, arms/legs on side that the head is facing will extend, the other side will flex; disappears at 2 mo
asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (fencing reflex)
Hold the baby supine, supporting head, back and legs; abruptly lower the entire body ~2 feet; baby will abduction of arms, flexion of legs, startle cry
moro reflex (startle reflex)
rolls to prone position, pushes off the floor with arms, climbs up the legs to gain an upright position
found in certain forms of muscular dystrophy; indicative of weakness of hips in early and late childhood
Gower's sign