Phys Final Test Questions

Front 1

A drug that inactivates acetylcholinesterase

Back 1

increases the ability of ACh to stimulate muscle contraction.

Front 2

cell "voltage steps"

Back 2

1. Voltage-gated Na+ channels open causing Na+ to enter the cell.
2. Membrane potential overshoots above zero.
3. K+ gates open causing K+ to leave the cell.
4. Membrane potential dip below -70mV in hyperpolarization event.
5. Membrane returns to resting potential with K+ and Na+ channels closed.

Front 3

If your language comprehension seems to be impaired, your speech is fluent, fast but meaningless, you are most likely have damage to the

Back 3

Wernicke's area

Front 4

NT "steps"

Back 4

1. Action potential depolarized axon terminal.
2. Voltage-sensitive Ca+ channels open.
3. Synaptic vesicles migrate toward axon terminals.
4. Synaptic vesicles fuse and release neurotransmitter into synaptic cleft.
5. Neurotransmitter binds to membrane receptor on postsynaptic cell.

Front 5

The neurotransmitter released by the postganglionic parasympathetic fibers is?

Back 5

acetylcholine

Front 6

The glial cells responsible for forming regeneration tubes are?

Back 6

Schwann cells

Front 7

Smooth and cardiac muscles can be excited (emergency!) by

Back 7

norepinephrine, epinephrine and possibly acetylcholine

Front 8

If sodium channels were leaky on a neuron membrane, the membrane potential would?

Back 8

higher than resting, making it more likely for an action potential to take place.

Front 9

Steps for sound travel:

Back 9

1. Sound waves travel through external auditory canal.
2. Sound waves vibrate tympanic membrane
3. Malleus vibrates against incus and transmists sound through oval window formed by stapes.
4. Sound waves travel through cochlea and stimulate hair cells.
5. Action potentials are transmitted down cochlear nerve.

Front 10

The vascular tunic is modified in the front of the eye to become?

Back 10

iris

Front 11

What is considered the functional unit of hearing?

Back 11

organ of Corti

Front 12

Where would you find otoliths?

Back 12

organ of Corti

Front 13

Where would you find a muscarinic receptor?

Back 13

Smooth muscle membrane

Front 14

Muscle contraction sequence:

Back 14

1. ACh binds to sarcolemma and produces action potentials that travel down transverse tubules.
2. Ca+ is released by sarcoplasmic reticulum and binds to troponin.
3. Actin binding sites are exposed.
4. Myosin binds to actin and pulls thin filament toward center of thick filament.
5. Myosin detaches from actin and fresh ATP binds to myosin head.

Front 15

A disorder characterized by a progressive deterioration of muscle control due to damage in the midbrain is?

Back 15

parkinsons

Front 16

during repolarization of a membrane?

Back 16

Na+ channels are closed, k+ channels are open

Front 17

Where would you find an adrenergenic receptor?

Back 17

target tissue membrane of sympathetic pathway

Front 18

In terms of sensory physiology, the main visual cortex is the?

Back 18

occipital lobe

Front 19

An autoimmune disorder that attacks cartilage and joint linings is?

Back 19

rheumatoid arthritis

Front 20

Hydrogen ions bind to channels and trigger what type of receptors?

Back 20

sour

Front 21

Which of the following corresponds to the state of myosin in rigor mortis?

Back 21

actin bound to myosin only

Front 22

When someone is in deep rem sleep?

Back 22

they are dreaming
brain waves are similar to someone who is awake
skeletal muscle movement is minimal
brain waves are frequent but low in amplitude

Front 23

What skeletal muscle type would be characterized by an intermediate rate of fatigue and be relied on for walking? posture? sprinting?

Back 23

fast oxidative
slow oxidative
fast glycotic

Front 24

Smooth muscles differ from skeletal muscles?

Back 24

MLCK uses ATP to phophorylate cross-bridges
smooth muscles can be activated by NT from autonomic neurons
Ca+ binds to calmodulin to form complex

Front 25

Sound wave order (middle ear):

Back 25

1. Sound waves travel through the oval window.
2. Sound waves travel through the scala vestibuli.
3. Sound waves travel through the scala tympani.
4. sound waves travel through the round window.
5. sound waves travel through the eustachian tube.

Front 26

____ - is a disorder characterized by progressive destruction of myelin sheaths that will short-circuit nerve impulse conduction.

Back 26

Multiple sclerosis/ Tay-Sachs

Front 27

The ____ muscle fiber type has a low concentration of mitochondria and myoglobin and therefore is very susceptible to fatigue.

Back 27

fast glycolytic

Front 28

ATP binds to the ____ on the thick filament. A portion of this structure contains ATPase so energy can be transferred for an eventual power stroke.

Back 28

Myosin head/crossbridge

Front 29

The ____ is the time of nerve cell recovery before a second action potential can occur.

Back 29

refractory period.

Front 30

Ripple in the cochlear fluid cause the hair cells to scrape against the ____ membrane.

Back 30

tectorial

Front 31

The DHP receptor is a voltage-sensing receptor that links the T tubule with the ____ in the skeletal muscle cell.

Back 31

sarcoplasmic reticulum

Front 32

Decreasing extracellular K+ concentration will ____ the likelihood that an action potential will occur.

Back 32

increase

Front 33

A(n) _____ is a graded hyperpolarization that moves the membrane potential further from the threshold potential.

Back 33

IPSP

Front 34

_____ form myelin sheaths in the CNS.

Back 34

Oligodendrocytes

Front 35

____ are calcium carbonate crystals embedded in the membranous portion of the semicircular canals to help detect head position.

Back 35

Otoliths

Front 36

____ taste receptors are triggered by the presence of sodium ions.

Back 36

Salt

Front 37

____ arthritis is due to aging, wear and abrasion. In addition to stiffening and painful joints, it is often characterized by small bone spurs on the hands and feet.

Back 37

Osteo-

Front 38

____ is the filament protein that anchors thick filaments to the Z discs and stabilizes their position.

Back 38

titin

Front 39

PCO2 in right atrium.

Back 39

46mmHg

Front 40

PO2 in carotid artery

Back 40

100mmHg

Front 41

PCO2 in pulmonary artery.

Back 41

46mmHg

Front 42

PCO2 through pulmonary semilunar valve.

Back 42

46mmHg

Front 43

PO2 in arterial end lung capillaries.

Back 43

40mmHg

Front 44

PO2 in venous end of systemic capillaries.

Back 44

40mmHg

Front 45

Autorhythmic cells electrical order:

Back 45

1. SA node
2. AV node
3. Bundle of His
4. Left and right bundle branches
5. Purkinje fibers

Front 46

Heart/lung blood order returning from systemic capillaries.

Back 46

1. Right Atrium
2. Right Ventricle
3. Pulmonary Artery
4. Pulmonary Vein
5. Left atrium
6. Left Ventricle

Front 47

During ventricular filling:

Back 47

the semilunar valves are closed.

Front 48

during exercise a persons CO increases to 18L/min and stroke volume to 120ml/beat. What is their heart rate?

Back 48

CO = SV * HR
18L/min / .12L/beat = 150 beats/min

Front 49

Net filtration pressure equation:

Back 49

Pc+∏if - Pif - ∏C = net

Front 50

if net = positive =
if net = negative =

Back 50

arterial end filtration
venous end absorption

Front 51

A hemoglobin molecule is composed of

Back 51

4 protein chains and 4 heme groups

Front 52

sickle cell anemia:

Back 52

it decreases oxyen delivery efficiency
it is a genetic disorder
the sickled cells can "jam" narrow capillaries and prevent O2 delivery.

Front 53

The level of erythropoietin in the blood rises when:

Back 53

during anemia
at high altitudes
as a consequence of hemorrhage
when blood flow to the kidneys is disrupted

Front 54

If increased levels of TSH were released we would observe:

Back 54

increased T3 and T4 levels
increased growth of thyroid gland
increased metabolic rate

Front 55

the end of the plateau phase is due to the ____ of K+ channels and ____ of CA++ channels.

Back 55

opening
closing

Front 56

Lung capacity equation

Back 56

TIE=V
TV + IRV + ERV = VC

Front 57

Normal FEV1?

Back 57

75-80% of VC

Front 58

What causes a decrease in binding affinity between hemoglobin and oxygen?

Back 58

decreased PO2 levels.

Front 59

Type B+ blood has?

Back 59

B and D antigens and A antibodies

Front 60

Mitral valve stenosis causes:

Back 60

Enlargement of the left atrium
Decreased EDV
Decreased stroke volume
Decreased O2 delivery

Front 61

Chloride shift:

Back 61

At the lungs, Cl- diffuses out of the RBC and HCO3- diffuses in

Front 62

Reverse Chloride shift:

Back 62

At the tissues, HCO3- diffuses out and CL- diffuses into the RBC

Front 63

Cardiac cycle order:

Back 63

1. Atrial systole begins
2. Ventricular filling is complete
3. Ventricular systole begins
4. Closure of the AV valves
5. Isovolumetric contraction
6. Opening of the semilunar valves
7. Ventricular ejection
8. Ventricular relaxation

Front 64

If thyroid hormone levels were high due to a tumor on the anterior pituitary, you would expect?

Back 64

low TRH levels and high TSH levels
(secondary problem - TSH and thryroid hormones are high, the anterior pit does operate properly and negative feedback inresponse to thryoid levels and cut off TSH production)

Front 65

The AV valves will close when

Back 65

pressure in the atria is lower than the pressure in the ventricles.

Front 66

Tremors nervousness and increased heart rate can all be symptoms of:

Back 66

Increased activation of the sympathetic nervous system
excessive secretion of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla
hyperthyroidism

Front 67

Iodine sequence:

Back 67

1. Iodide is transported into the follicle lumen.
2. Iodide is attached to tyrosine rings and thyroglobulin.
3. Thyroglobulin- bound T3 and T4 are sequestered in vesicles.
4. Lysosomal enzymes release T3 and T4 from thyroglobulin.
5. T3 and T4 are released

Front 68

Path of air through conducting zone:

Back 68

Pharynx
Larynx
Trachea
Bronchi
Bronchioles
Terminal Bronchioles

Front 69

Ventricular volume is increasing during:

Back 69

ventricular diastole
atrial systole
when the AV valves are open

Front 70

During the reverse chloride shift, hemoglobin loses its affinity for:

Back 70

H+ and CO2

Front 71

The smallest diameter tubes in the conducting zone of the respiratory airways are called ____.

Back 71

terminal bronchioles

Front 72

During the cardiac cycle, the ___ valves are open during the T wave.

Back 72

semilunar

Front 73

After the QRS complex, there is a brief period of isovolumetric contraction and then the ____ valves open.

Back 73

semilunar

Front 74

Increased blood volume triggers the release of what hormone from the heart?

Back 74

ANP

Front 75

Left ventricular blood volume is ____ when the first heart sound is heard.

Back 75

HIGH

Front 76

if 2,3 DPG is high, then oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the ____.

Back 76

Right

Front 77

Which ECG wave is present during end-systolic volume?

Back 77

T-wave

Front 78

____ is the tendency for the lungs to return to initial size after distension. (This will decrease with age.)

Back 78

Elastance

Front 79

The majority of CO2 (60-70%) travels in the blood as ____.

Back 79

Bicarbonate

Front 80

____ is a hormone triggered to be released in response to increased blood calcium levels. It is released by the ____ gland.

Back 80

calcitonin
thyroid

Front 81

Goiters can be caused by hyper- or hypothyroidism. If it is due to hyperthyroidism, it is most likely caused by _____ disease. TSH levels would be ____.

Back 81

graves
low

Front 82

The primary pacemaker of the heart is the ____.

Back 82

SA node

Front 83

Sphincter between the stomach and SI.

Back 83

Pyloric Sphincter

Front 84

Sphincter between the esophagus and pharynx.

Back 84

Upper esophageal sphincter

Front 85

Sphincter between small and large intestine.

Back 85

ileocecal valve

Front 86

Sphincter between the common bile duct and small intestine.

Back 86

sphincter of Oddi

Front 87

Digests fats in the small intestine

Back 87

pancreatic lipase

Front 88

Stimulates enzymatic release and gall bladder contractions.

Back 88

CCK

Front 89

Secretes bicarbonate to protect stomach lining.

Back 89

mucus/goblet cells

Front 90

Secretes gastrin.

Back 90

enteroendocrine cells

Front 91

Digests carbs in the SI.

Back 91

pancreatic amylase

Front 92

Digests proteins in the stomach.

Back 92

pepsin

Front 93

secreted by adipocytes - stimulates satiety (fullness)

Back 93

leptin

Front 94

secretes HCL

Back 94

parietal cell

Front 95

Which section of the nephron can reabsorb NaCl but not water?

Back 95

ascending limb

Front 96

Which section of the nephron responds to ADH?

Back 96

collecting duct

Front 97

You can decrease GFR by doing which of the following?

Back 97

constrict afferent/dilate efferent
(decrease pressure/increase volumetric flow)

Front 98

Kidneys do not what?

Back 98

regulation of blood protein levels

Front 99

What is not characteristic of insulin secretion?

Back 99

stimulates glycogenolysis

Front 100

Substance X has a clearance greater than that of inulin. what can you conclude?

Back 100

Filtered and partially secreted.

Front 101

Bile salts are secreted into the SI directly from the?

Back 101

common bile duct.

Front 102

The vast majority of tubular reabsorption in the kidney occurs at the?

Back 102

proximal tubule

Front 103

GFR equation?

Back 103

Urine conc * flow rate / plasma conc

Front 104

When baroreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies register increased blood pressure, this triggers?

Back 104

Increased glomerular filtration

Front 105

Hyperventilation triggers ___

Back 105

respiratory alkalosis

Front 106

typically the osmolality of the filtrate is highest in what section of the nephron?

Back 106

bottom of the descending limb of the loop of Henle

Front 107

What can lead to an increase in GFR?

Back 107

an increase in the glomerular capillary blood pressure

Front 108

Decreased levels of bile salts in the bile would interfere with?

Back 108

fat digestion

Front 109

Hydrogen ions are secreted in the stomach in exchange for?

Back 109

k+

Front 110

In response to the arrival of acidic chyme in the duodenum the blood levels of

Back 110

secretin rise and gastrin decrease

Front 111

A person taking a drug that inhibits the tubular secretion of hydrogen ions in the nephron. What is the acid-base balance problem (in the plasma) associated with taking this drug?

Back 111

metabolic acidosis

Front 112

Which hormone is released by the small intestine in response to glucose and fat presence and stimulates secretion and inhibits gastric secretions?

Back 112

GIP

Front 113

Which tissue layer contains the strong connective tissue that binds and protects the digestive tract?

Back 113

serosa

Front 114

A drug that blocks the action of carbonic anhydrase in parietal cells would result in?

Back 114

a higher pH during gastric digestion

Front 115

bicarb shift in stomach?

Back 115

water + C02 yields Bicarb
Bicarb is exchanged for CL
Hydrogen transported in and K out
CL down conc gradient

Front 116

A drug that blocks the action of the hormone secretin would affect?

Back 116

the pH of pancreatic secretions
(and possibly the amount of gastrin secretion)

Front 117

the exocrine glands of the pancreas are responsible for secreting?

Back 117

digestive enzymes and bicarb

Front 118

The osmolality of the filtrate remains similar to the blood osmolality in which section of the nephron?

Back 118

proximal tubule

Front 119

blood filter order: (big picture)

Back 119

glomerulus
nephron
renal pelvis
ureter
bladder

Front 120

The portion of the peritubular capillary associated with the loop of Henle is called the ____.

Back 120

Vasa recta

Front 121

Chloride ions enter the stomach lumen by ____ transport.

Back 121

passive

Front 122

____ allow fat droplets to become micelles for easier break down.

Back 122

bile salts

Front 123

CCK triggers ____ of the sphincter of Oddi.

Back 123

relaxation

Front 124

____ is the hormone that triggers glycogenesis in the liver.

Back 124

insulin

Front 125

Referring to the circadian rhythm of body temperature, temperature is highest during what part of the day?

Back 125

mid-day

Front 126

Which digestive layer contains immune system cells referred to as MALT?

Back 126

mucosa

Front 127

This accessory digestive organ is responsible for storing bile salts.

Back 127

gall bladder

Front 128

The ____ cells are responsible for releasing renin.

Back 128

JGA

Front 129

under normal circumstances glucose is completely reabsorbed by what segment of the nephron?

Back 129

proximal tubule

Front 130

____ is released by the posterior pituitary to decrease water excretion.

Back 130

adh/vasopressin

Front 131

____ is secreted by the alpha cells of the pancreas.

Back 131

Glucagon

Front 132

what will happen to blood potassium levels if aldosterone is increased?

Back 132

decrease

Front 133

Ammonium excretion is a mechanism for ridding the body of excess ____.

Back 133

hydrogen