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87 Cards in this Set

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What is pharmacokinetics (PK)?
PK describes "what the body does to the drug"
--absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs
What is pharmocodynamics (PD)?
PD describes "what the drug does to the body"?
-biochemical and physiologic effects of drugs and their mechanism of action.
What are 3 important pharmacologic properties that are necessary for good absorption with psychotropic medications?
a. lipophillic
b. small molecular size
c. non-ionized
What is the bioavailability of drugs administered by intravenous route?
F = 1.0 (100% bioavailability).
F =
A drug administered by oral route has F less than 0.1 (less than 10% bioavailability). Is this drug effective via the oral route?
No, most of the drug will be metabolized before it is distributed to systemic system for drug effects.
What is the first pass metabolism for orally administered drugs?
Biotransformation by the liver that occurs before the drug reaches its site of action.
What is the elimination half-life (t1/2) of a drug?
The time it takes to eliminate half of the concentration of the drug in the body.
t1/2
The half-life of lithium is 24 hours. If you discontinue lithium for your patient with toxic lithium level of 2.0mEq/L, what would the estimated lithium level be 24 hours later?
1.0 mEq/L (half of the body's concentration is eliminated after 24 hrs.)
If the half-life of the active metabolite of Prozac (fluoxetine) is at least 7 days. How long will it take to wash out Prozac and its metabolite from the body?
5 x half-life = 5 x 7 days = 35 days
If clearance (CI) of a drug is increased, the half-life of the drug will be _________.
decreased
If a highly lipid soluble psychotropic drugs like Valium have an increased volume of distribution (Vd) with advanced age (due to an increased fat/lean body ration), the half-life of the drug will be __________.
increased
Decreased albumin in the system can cause _________ effect of highly protein bound drugs from increased free drug.
increased
Metabolism of drugs is to make the chemical compound more ______ for elimination.
Polar (hydrophylic)
What is enterohepatic recirculation?
Insufficient hydrophilicity chemicals unable to be eliminated by the kidneys may undergo elimination via the bile in the unchanged or conjugated form. Drugs eliminated in the bile are available for reabsorption in the GI tract. This re-entry into the body after 'elimination' via the bile results in the "recycling" of drug and prolongs the time required for the drug to be irreversibly eliminated from the body.
Why do renally eliminated drugs (e.g. lithium) need increased dose adjustments in pregnant patients?
Pregnancy increased the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in the kidneys leading to an increased clearance of the renally eliminated drugs. Need to increase the drug dose to compensate for increased elimination.
What are the 3 areas of the body that have specialized barriers to protect these areas from the effects of exogenous chemicals (e.g. drugs)?
a. Brain (blood brain barrier)
b. Testicles (blood testicular barrier)
c. Placenta (blood placenta barrier)
blood _______ barriers
Drugs like lithium and the tricyclic antidepressants (e.g. Elavil) have low therapeuic index (TI). What determines TI?
a. LD50/ED50
b. LD50 (lethal does 50) is the lethal dose in 50% of animal tested subjects. ED50 (effective dose 50) is the dose that produces the desired therapeutic response in 50% of patients.
Trazodone has a (high or low) therapeutic index?
a. high
b. HighTI = safe with overdose.
Sustained released formulations of drugs have _______ peaks and _______ trough drug levels compared to the immediate released formulations.
a. lower peak and higher trough drug levels.
Amphetamines are weak bases. Acidifying the system with high does of Vitamin C can lead to higher or lower ampetamine concentration.
lower concentration
What pharmacologic properties does Valium (diazepam) have that leads to a quick onset of action?
Highly lipd soluble.
Name 2 psychotropic medications that have increased absorption when taken with food.
a. Geodon (ziprasidone) - increase by 100%
b. Zoloft (sertraline) - increase by 40%.
Name 2 commonly used benzodiazepines that can increase in concentration and effects when taken with grapefruit juice (CYP450 3A4 inhibitor)?
a. Xanax (alprazolam)
b. Halcion (triazolam)
Your patient asked if he can drink grapefruit juice in the mornings and take his Xanax at night to avoid the drug interaction. Is this OK?
No, it takes more than 24 hours to regenerate P450 3A4 enzymes in the GI tract.
Your patient was prescribed a commonly used antibiotic Cipro (ciprofloxacin) for an infection. What over-the-counter (OTC) product will cause this antibiotic to be ineffective when taken concurrently?
antacid ---> significantly decreases the absorption of ciprofloxacin
Many patients are on statin drugs for treatment of high cholesterol. Drints and medications that inhibit CYP450 _____ enzymes can lead to excessive concentrations and myopathy with patients c/o muscle tenderness and pain.
3A4 (e.g. grapefruit juice, cimetidine, diltiazem)
Your patient on Viagra asked if he should take it with food. What is effect of taking Viagra with a high fatty meal?
Decreased absorption by approximately 30%.
What dring can increase the concentration of viagra.
Grapefruit juice (canned/concentrated or squeezed?)
What is the maximum daily dose of Tylenol (acetaminophen) for patients who dring alcohol regularly? Why?
a. 2 gm/day (usually max is 4gm/day)
b. Increased toxic metabolites from induction of metabolism of acetaminopohen to toxic metabolites that are hepatoxic.
What OTC agent can cause patients to have insomnia when taken at night?
Sudafed (pseudophredrine) -- oral decongestants.
Name 2 atypical antipsychotics that need an increase in dose adjustments for smokers?
a. Zyprexa (olanzapine)
b. Clozaril (clozapine)
What CYP450 enzyme can be induced with the polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons in smoke (smoking and charbroiled/BBQ foods)?
a. 1A2
Does smoking marijuana increase the metabolism of Zyprexa and Clozaril?
Yes.
Your patient on clozapine quits smoking without informing his medical team. What is the danger of quitting smoking on the higher dose of clozapine?
a. Increased risk of seizures and other side effects with less metabollism of clozapine.
What is the onset and offset of enzyme induction?
a. Weeks for onset (takes time to make more enzymes)--how is onset different than offseet if both occur within weeks?
b . Weeks for offset (takes time to get rid of the excessive enzymes).
What is the usual onset of enzyme inhibition?
Hours to a day (block enzymes from working).
Name a commonly used antibiotic that can inhibit CYP450 3A4 enzymes leading to increased side effects for your patient on Seroquel.
Etythromycin
Why does it take erythromycin 5 - 7 days before enzyme inhibition occurs?
It is the metabolite of erythromycin that inhibits the 3A4 enzymes. It takes 5 - 7 days to accumulate the metabolites to cause the enzyme inhibition.
Patients of Coumadin (warfarin) should not eat excessive leafy green vegetables due to an increase in vitamin ____.
Vitamin K inhibits anticoagulation making warfarin less effective.
Your patient has a higher risk of lithium toxicity if he increases or decreases his salt intake?
Decrease: restricted sodium diet can increase the body's reabsorption of the sodium and lithium back to the body --> increase concentration and risk for lithium toxicity.
Many patients take OTC pain medication Motrin IB (ibuprofen) and Aleve (naproxen) for minor to moderate pain. What medical conditions can be worsened with high doses of these pain medications?
a. High blood pressure and congestive heart failure (increased sodium and water retention).
b. Gastrointestinal reflux or peptic ulcer disease (increased GI irritation & bleeding).
What antidepressant has multiple CYP450 enzyme pathways (1A2, 2D6, 3A4) for its metabolism and does not have any enzyme inhibitory properties (with little potential for signficant drug interactions)?
Remeron (mirtazapine)
Which antidepressant has serotinin-3 (5HT-3) antagonistic effects and is the antidepressant of choice for patients with nausea or chemotherapy?
Remeron (mirtazapine)
What is the effect of adding CYP450 2D6 enzyme inhibitor (e.g. Paxil) toa 2D6 substrate (e.g. Risperdal)?
Increased effect of the substrate drug with less metabolism leading to increased drug concentration.
What is the effect on adding an enzyme inhibitor (e.g. Prozac) to a prodrug (e.g. codeine)?
Decreased effect of the prodrug since decreased metabolism leads to a decreased
Why is Prozac (fluoxetine) and Paxil (paroxetine) contraindicated with Mellaril (thioridazine)?
Prozac and Paxil are potent CYP450 2D6 enzyme inhibitors ---> increased concentration
of Mellaril ---> increased risk for QTc prolongation.
What is the effect adding a CYP450 enzyme inducer to a CYP450 metabolized drug?
Decreased effect of the CYP450 metabolized drug from an increased metabolism and a
decreased drug concentration.
What is the effect of adding a CYP450 enzyme inducer to a prodrug?
Increased effect of the prodrug – increased metabolism of the prodrug to its active metabolite ---> increased concentration/effects of the active metabolite (e.g. losartan to
active metabolite).
True or False: The CYP450 enzymes are only found in the liver.
False – also found in GI tract, lungs, kidneys, blood vessels, and almost every cell of the
body.
True or False: The CYP450 enzymes are used only for drug metabolism.
False – also acts as catalysts for activation and synthesis of endogenous chemicals such
as fatty acids, steroids, and cholesterol.
What CYP450 enzymes are important for drug metabolism?
a. 1A2 (e.g. Zyprexa)
b. 2B6 (e.g. Wellbutrin)
c. 2C9 (e.g. Coumadin)
d. 2C19 (e.g. Klonopin)
e. 2D6 (e.g. Risperdal)
f. 2E1 (e.g. Tylenol)
g. 3A4 (e.g. Seroquel)
Which CYP450 enzyme is not inducible?
2D6
Which CYP450 enzyme used in drug metabolism has no polymorphism (no poor or rapid
metabolizers among any ethnic groups)?
3A4
What is the effect of adding Tegretol (carbamazepine) to Klonopin (clonazepam)?
Decreased effect of Klonopin from an increased metabolism and decreased drug
concentration.
What are the common CYP450 enzyme inducers that can increase metabolism of drugs?
b. Dilantin (phenytoin) – anticonvulsant
c. Phenobarbital – anticonvulsant
d. Mysoline (primidone) – anticonvulsant – metabolized to phenobarbital
e. Rifadin, Rimactane (rifampin) – antimicrobial agent for TB
What is the effect of adding Equetro (recently approved for Bipolar disorder) to your patient on
oral contraceptives?
Equetro (carbamazepine) can induce the 3A4 enzymes ---> subtherapeutic levels of the
oral contraceptives.
Can your patient on oral contraceptives be prescribed Depakote?
Yes, Depakote does not have enzyme induction properties like many other
anticonvulsants.
What is the effect of adding Cipro (ciprofloxacin) to Zyprexa (olanzapine)?
Increased effect of Zyprexa from decreased metabolism and an increased drug
concentration.
List 3 benzodiazepines that are not affected by CYP450 enzyme inhibitors or inducers?
a. Ativan (lorazepam)
b. Serax (oxazepam)
c. Restoril (temazepam)
Why is Serax (oxazepam) not prescribed for PRN use?
Slow onset (3-6 hours) with low lipophilic properties making it difficult to cross the
blood brain barrier.
Which ethnic group has a higher incidence of increased side effects with the CYP450 2C19
drugs (e.g. Klonopin)?
Asians – 18-25% are poor metabolizers of CYP450 2C19
Which ethnic group has a higher incidence of decreased effects to codeine (e.g. Tylenol #3) and
hydrocodone/acetaminophen (Vicodin)?
Caucasians – 5-14% are poor metabolizers of CYP450 2D6
Your schizophrenic patient on high therapeutic doses of Seroquel and Lipitor for his
hyperlipidemia. He developed hypertension. He was prescribed Cardizem (diltiazem) for his
hypertension. Any potential problems?
a. 2 calcium channel blockers (diltiazem and verapamil) are CYP450 3A4 inhibitors
b. Can increase the concentrations of 3A4 drugs ---> increased side effects of patient’s
Seroquel and Lipitor
Name an OTC antidepressant that can induce CYP450 3A4 enzymes.
St. John’s wort
Among the atypical antipsychotic agents, which ones can have decreased drug concentrations
with concurrent use of St. John’s wort?
a. Seroquel (quetiapine) – metabolized by 3A4
b. Abilify (aripiprazole) – metabolized by 3A4 & 2D6
c. Geodon (ziprasidone) – 33% metabolized by 3A4
Your patient on multiple CYP450 metabolized psychotropic and cardiovascular medications
was switched from Prozac to Celexa. The concentration and effects of these medications are
likely to be __________________.
Decreased – discontinuation of an enzyme inhibitor can lead to increased metabolism of medications ---> decreased concentrations and side effects.
Your patient on multiple CYP450 metabolized psychotropic and cardiovascular medications
was switched from Dilantin to Depakote. The concentration and effects of these medications
are likely to be __________________.
Increased – discontinuation of an enzyme inducer can lead to decreased metabolism of
medications ---> increased concentrations and effects.
Your patient was admitted to a non-smoking psychiatric hospital and stabilized after weeks on
Zyprexa 20 mg po qhs. Upon discharge, he resumed his 1 ppd smoking habit. What is the
most likely effect of restarting smoking on Zyprexa?
Increased metabolism of Zyprexa (1A2 drug) from smoking – may need to increase
dose to accommodate the 1A2 enzyme induction.
What psychotropic medications can have increased concentrations when patients stop smoking?
1A2 psychotropic drugs – Zyprexa (olanzapine), Clozaril (clozapine), Luvox
(fluvoxamine), and Cymbalta (duloxetine).
Your patient is doing well on Luvox (fluvoxamine). She needs to be started on a statin drug for
her high cholesterol. The dose of the CYP450 3A4 statin drugs (e.g. Lipitor, Zocor) has to be
__________________ (higher or lower) than usual therapeutic doses.
Lower doses to accommodate for the enzyme inhibition by Luvox.
If you want a statin drug that is not affected by any CYP450 enzyme inhibitors or inducers,
what would you recommend?
Pravachol (pravastatin) is not metabolized by any CYP450 enzymes.
Your patient doing well on a low dose of Klonopin c/o increased side effects (cognitive
impairment and sedation) from her Klonopin (2C19 drug). What OTC agents can increase the
concentration of Klonopin?
a. Tagamet HB (cimetidine) for heartburn
b. Prilosec (omeprazole) for gastrointestinal reflux
Chronic alcohol consumption can _______________ (induce or inhibit) the CYP45 2E1
enzymes leading to increased toxic metabolites from Tylenol (acetaminophen).
induce
Your patient gets four 100 mg Viagra tablets per month with instructions to use ½ tablet (50
mg) an hour before sexual intercourse. He complains that he only gets 8 doses per month and
wants to know if he can use ¼ tablet to get 16 doses per month by drinking grapefruit juice to
increase Viagra’s concentration. Would you recommend this strategy to increase the number of
doses/month? Why?
No, using grapefruit juice to increase Viagra’s concentration is highly variable among
individuals which may lead to insufficient increase by 100% to the equivalent of the
normal 50 mg dose, or to excessive concentrations (>> 100% increase) leading to excessive side effects.
Which ethnic group has the highest risk of having the natural built-in Antabuse properties with
alcohol causing the facial flushing and throbbing headaches (i.e. lacks aldehyde dehydrogenase
leading to an increased acetaldehyde metabolite of alcohol)?
Asians – up to 80% are deficient in aldehyde dehydrogenase enzyme
What is the effect of Antabuse (disulfiram) reaction with alcohol?
Disulfiram blocks the oxidation of alcohol at the acetaldehyde stage. During alcohol
metabolism after disulfiram intake, the concentration of acetaldehyde occurring in the blood
may be 5-10x higher than that found during metabolism of the same amount of alcohol
alone. Accumulation of acetaldehyde in the blood produces a complex of highly unpleasant
symptoms referred to as the disulfiram-alcohol reaction. Disulfiram plus even small
amounts of alcohol produces flushing, throbbing in head and neck, throbbing headache,
respiratory difficulty, nausea, vomiting, sweating, thirst, chest pain, palpitation, dyspnea,
hyperventilation, tachycardia, hypotension, syncope, marked uneasiness, weakness, vertigo,
blurred vision, and confusion. The intensity of the reaction may vary with each individual
but is generally proportional to the amount of disulfiram and alcohol ingested. Ingestion of
alcohol may produce unpleasant symptoms 1 or even 2 weeks after a patient has taken his
last dose of disulfiram.
Your patient c/o episodes of severe diarrhea when he takes OTC Imodium to try to stop the
diarrhea. What needs to be ruled out for this patient?
a. R/O lactose intolerance where individuals cannot digest lactose in dairy products ---> diarrhea.
b. Management – avoid dairy products or use OTC Lactaid pills before consumption of
any dairy products.
77. Why is it important to have your
Why is it important to have your patients on steroid therapy receive an eye exam q6-12
months?
a. Steroid therapy can cause glaucoma and cataracts in patients on long-term treatments.
b. Also need to monitor for increase blood pressure, hyperglycemia, and bone density test
(osteoporosis).
Which muscle relaxant medication should be avoided for patients with dry mouth, urinary
retention, chronic constipation, or memory impairment?
Flexeril (cyclobenzaprine) is structurally similar to the tricyclic antidepressants (TCA)
with similar side effects (dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, memory
impairment, etc).
What is the common pharmacodynamic drug interaction with risperidone and trazodone?
a. Increased alpha-1 blockade ---> increased risk of orthostasis.
b. Ask patients about any episodes of dizziness upon standing.
What is the common pharmacodynamic drug interaction with OTC sleep aids (e.g. Unisom,
Tylenol PM) and Cogentin?
a. Increased muscarinic blockade ---> additive anticholinergic effects ---> dry mouth, urinary
retention, constipation, memory impairment, etc).
b. Most non-herbal sleep aids are antihistamines (diphenhydramine and doxylamine).
Your patient on Seroquel 300 mg po BID c/o daytime sedation and has problems sleeping at
night. He takes trazodone 200 mg po PRN insomnia. He c/o orthostasis when he takes the
trazodone nightly. What is the pharmacodynamic drug interaction in this case and what would
you recommend?
a. Increased alpha-1 blockade ---> increased risk of orthostasis.
b. Management – consolidate Seroquel to nighttime to avoid daytime sedation and helps
with insomnia at night.
Your patient on Zoloft 100 mg po qd c/o reemerging depressive symptoms. She did not want
to tell her doctor and she bought OTC St. John’s wort. What is the potential pharmacodynamic
interaction in this case?
Additive serotoninergic effects ---> possible serotonin syndrome (symptoms of agitation,
diarrhea, dizziness, headache, tremor, etc).
What other OTC products can increase the risk of serotonin syndrome with other serotonergic
agonists (e.g. SSRIs)?
a. SAMe (S-adenosylmethionine)
b. Used for osteoarthritis and depression
Your patient saw the advertisement for natural herbal remedy for constipation. She bought
senna and took it daily. What is the problem with using this herbal laxative daily?
a. Senna is a stimulant type of laxative that has a quick onset of action by stimulating and
increasing the motility of the GI tract. Used daily for more than 7 days can lead to the
GI becoming dependent on the stimulant laxatives. Severe rebound constipation can
occur when the stimulant laxatives are discontinued.
b. Side effects include cramping and abdominal pain from the GI contractions. Can also
cause electrolyte imbalance (e.g. hypokalemia).
Your patient on Zyprexa gained a significant amount of weight. She started drinking a lot of
dieter’s tea daily in an attempt to lose the weight. What is the danger of using some of these
dieter’s tea?
Some dieter's teas containing senna, aloe, buckthorn, and other plant-derived laxatives
---> can cause diarrhea, vomiting, nausea, stomach cramps, chronic constipation,
fainting, electrolytes imbalance, and death. In recent years, FDA has received "adverse
event" reports, including the deaths of four young women, in which dieter's teas may
have been a contributing factor.
What is the problem with switching from Trade to generic formulations for low therapeutic
index drugs (e.g. Dilantin to generic phenytoin)?
a. Changes in bioavailability can result in significant changes in drug levels.
b. There is a + 20% difference in bioavailability compared to the Trade name formulation
allowed by the FDA for generic drugs ---> can be between 80-120% bioavailability of the
Trade formulation ---> can be a difference of 40% between 2 difference generic
formulations of the same drug.