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132 Cards in this Set

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Which of the following nursing interventions is important with the use of corticotropin?
A: Any lesions should be surgically removed and no further medications given once it is applied via a transdermal patch
B: Medication should be abruptly discontinued to minimize overall affects
C: Intraventous injection forms should be diluted with normal saline and given over at least 2 minutes
D: Patients should increase their sodium and potassium intake
C: Intraventous injection forms should be diluted with normal saline and given over at least 2 minutes
Which of the following statements reflects the most accurate information about corticotropin?
A: Use of nasal spray only when symptoms are present
B: Intramuscular injections need to be given using an 18-guage, 1 1/2-inch needle
C: After each nasal spray, be sure to take a deep breath with each inhalation of the dosage so that the lungs are covered
D: Intramuscular, cubcutaneous, intravenous, and repository dosage forms are available.
D: Intramuscular, cubcutaneous, intravenous, and repository dosage forms are available.
The hypothalamus is responsible for which of the following?
A: Secretion of insulin
B: Decreased oxytocin level
C: Secretion of vasopressin and oxytocin
D: Decrease in testosterone level
C: Secretion of vasopressin and oxytocin
Contraindications for the use of desmopressin include which of the following?
A: Allergies to beef insulin
B: White blood cell count 8000
C: Children under 12 years of age
D: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
D: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Growth hormones are associated with which of the following adverse effects?
A: Hypoglycemia
B: Hypocalciuria
C: Hyperglycemia
D: Hyperthyroidism
C: Hyperglycemia
Antithyroid drugs are associated with side effects such as:
A: polyuria
B: decrease in or loss of taste
C: hyperactivity
D: tempterature below 98 degrees Fahenheit
B: decrease in or loss of taste
Which of the following may occur in women who are hyperthyroid?
A: sluggish feelings all of the time
B: Polucystic lungs
C: Irregular menstral cycles
D: Polycythemia
C: Irregular menstral cycles
Which of the following nonspecific symptoms may represent hypothyroidism in the older adult?
A: leukopenia, anemia
B: Loss of appetite, polyuria
C: Weight loss, dry cough
D: Cold intolerance, depression
D: Cold intolerance, depression
To help with the insomnia associated with thyroid hormone replacement therapy, the patient may be encouraged to do which of the following?
A: Take half the dose at lunch time and the other half 2 hours later
B: Take 75-150mg benedryl every 4 hours or less
C: Always take the dose early in the morning and contact the physician if there is little improvement in the sleeping pattern
D: Be sure to add ephedra and ginseng to help with insomnia.
C: Always take the dose early in the morning and contact the physician if there is little improvement in the sleeping pattern
Common side effects of thyroid drugs include:
A: menstral irregularities and tremors
B: Bradycardia and hypotension
C: Excessive fatigue
D: Weight gain.
A: menstral irregularities and tremors
Which of the following statements is true about Humulin NPH?
A: It is a rapid-acting insulin
B: It is an intermediate-acting insulin
C: There are no reactions associated with this synthetic insulin
D: There are no problems with hypoglycemia with these forms of insulin
B: It is an intermediate-acting insulin
Which of the following statements would be important to include in the patient teaching for type 2 diabetics?
A: Because you have insulin injections with you diabetes, you can eat unlimited amounts of carbohydrates
B: Insulin injections are never used with type 2 diabetes
C: Alcohol should not be consumed with your diabetes and/or oral antidiabetic agents
D: Oral agents must be refridgerated at all times.
C: Alcohol should not be consumed with your diabetes and/or oral antidiabetic agents
A theraputic response to oral antidiabetic agents would include which of the following?
A: Fewer episodes of DKA
B: WEight gainof 50 pounds
C: Hemoglobin A1C levels within normal limits
D: Elevation of glucoselevels to at least 280mg/dl
C: Hemoglobin A1C levels within normal limits
Which of the following drugs should not be used with insulin?
A: Acetaminophen products
B: MAOIs
C: Vitamin C
D: Zinc products
B: MAOIs
Diabetes us assiciated with which of the following?
A: Decrease in HDLs
B: Microvascular regeneration
C: Renal hyperplasia
D: Retinopathies
D: Retinopathies
Which of the following statements is correct regarding corticosteriods?
A: They have few side effects
B: They are often used for their antiinflammatory effects
C: They may be administered only by inhalant dosage forms
D: They may be used long term without major complications
B: They are often used for their antiinflammatory effects
Which of the following actions is associated with glucocorticoids?
A: Antiplatelet activity
B: Protein catabolism
C: Blood pressure maintenance
D: Electrolyte suppression
B: Protein catabolism
Which of the following is considered one of the classical features or characteristics of increased levels of corticosteriods or Cushing's syndrome?
A: Weight loss
B: Moon Face
C: Muscle thickening
D: Increased thoracic subcutaneous tissue
B: Moon Face
Which of the following may occur with the administration of fludrocortisone?
A: Elevated blood pressure
B: Dysphagia
C: Weight loss
D: Severe bradycardia
A: Elevated blood pressure
Which of te dollowing is an adverse effect of a corticosteriod?
A: Excessive sedation
B: Weight Loss
C: Osteoporosis
D: Addison's disease
C: Osteoporosis
Which of the following are considered contraindications with the administration of dinoprostone?
A: Termination of pregnancy after 20 weeks
B: Gastrointestinal upset/ulcer disease
C: Pelvic inflammatory disease
D: Male patients with prostate cancer
C: Pelvic inflammatory disease
Oral contraceptives may be associated with side effects such as:
A: Weight loss
B: Benign liver tumors
C: Diminished tanning of the skin
D: Polyuria
B: Benign liver tumors
Oxytocin (Pitocin) is indicated for patients with which of the following?
A: Severe acne with pregnancy
B: Postpartum "blues"
C: Suspicious skin lesions
D: Labor at full term and not progressing
D: Labor at full term and not progressing
Which of the following is a side effect of a SERM?
A: Hyperglycemia
B: Polyuria
C: Diabetes
D: Esophageal abnormalities
D: Esophageal abnormalities
The combination of oxytocin and sympathomimetics may be adverse to a patient because of resulatant:
A: Dilation of veins
B: Vasoconstriction
C: Liver Failure
D: Multiple pregnancies
B: Vasoconstriction
Which of teh followinf is crucial to monitor in teh patient taking sildenafil (Viagra)?
A: Daily weights, I&O, and weekly creatines
B: I&O due to polyuria
C: BP and drug interactions
D: Nothing because this is a benign medication
C: BP and drug interactions
An evening dose of sildenafil (Viagra) would be contraindicated in which of the following?
A: 65 years of age
B: Hypertension
C: Hypervitaminosis
D: Morning dose of antacids
B: Hypertension
Which of the following, although rare, are some of the devasting effects of adrogenic steriod ise?
A: Bradypnea
B: Bradycardia
C: Pyuria
D: Polycythemia
D: Polycythemia
Oral forms of minoxidil are associated with which of teh following side effects?
A: Gynecomastia
B: Tachycardia
C: Polyuria
D: Severe myopathy
B: Tachycardia
Drug interactions for saw palmetto include which of the following?
A: Acetaminophen (tylenol)
B: Vitamin C
C: NSAIDs
D: Estrogens
D: Estrogens
Somatrem (Protropin) is contraindicated in patients with:
A. Acromegaly
B. Dwarfism
C. Hypopituitarism
D. Addison's disease
A. Acromegaly
Somatrem is a synthetic form of growth hormone. Acromegaly is caused by excessive growth hormone, and thus this drug would be contraindicated.
A priority nursing diagnosis for a patient receiving desmopressin (DDAVP) would be:
A. Potential for injury
B. Alteration in comfort
C. Alteration in fluid volume
D. Knowledge deficit
C. Alteration in fluid volume
Desmopressin is a form of antidiuretic hormone, which increases sodium and water retention, leading to an alteration in fluid volume. Although the other nursing diagnoses may be appropriate, they are not a priority using Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
When teaching a patient regarding the correct administration of desmopressin (DDAVP), the nurse would include:
A. "Weigh yourself daily and take if you gain more than 1 pound per day."
B. "Rotate nostrils daily to prevent irritation."
C. "Take in the morning to prevent nocturia."
D. "The dose is based upon your chemstick results."
B. "Rotate nostrils daily to prevent irritation."

Desmopressin works to decrease urine output; thus, the patient would retain fluid and gain weight. It should be taken at night if used to treat nocturnal enuresis. Because it is administered intranasally, it can be irritating; thus, nostrils should be rotated.
The nurse would assess the therapeutic effectiveness of vasopressin by monitoring:
A. Serum albumin levels
B. Urine specific gravity
C. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) levels
D. Relief of pain
B. Urine specific gravity
Vasopressin causes decreased water excretion in the renal tubule, thus increasing urine specific gravity. It is used to treat diabetes insipidus, which presents with a low urine specific gravity.
The nurse admitting a patient with acromegaly anticipates administering which of the following medications?
A. desmopressin (DDAVP)
B. corticotropin (Acthar)
C. somatropin (Nutropin)
D. octreotide (Sandostatin)
D. octreotide (Sandostatin)
Octreotide suppresses growth hormone, the culprit of acromegaly.
After administering corticotropin, the nurse would assess for side effects by monitoring: (choose all that apply)
A. Serum sodium levels
B. Intake and output
C. Peripheral edema
D. Glucose levels
A,B,C,D
A. Serum sodium levels
B. Intake and output
C. Peripheral edema
D. Glucose levels
Corticotropin stimulates the release of adrenal hormones, which can lead to sodium and fluid retention as well as hyperglycemia.
Which of the following statements demonstrates understanding of discharge medications for a patient receiving levothyroxine (Synthroid):
A. “I will take this medication in the morning so as not to interfere with sleep.”
B. “I will double my dose if I gain more than 1 pound per day.”
C. “It is best to take the medication with food to prevent GI upset.”
D. “I can expect to see relief of my symptoms within 1 week.”
A. “I will take this medication in the morning so as not to interfere with sleep.”
Levothyroxine increases basal metabolism and thus wakefulness.
The nurse would suspect excessive thyroid replacement in a patient taking levothyroxine (Synthroid) and exhibiting:
A. Bradycardia
B. Intolerance to cold
C. Weight gain
D. Irritability
D. Irritability
Irritability is a symptom of hyperthyroidism. The other choices are signs of hypothyroidism.
Patients taking levothyroxine (Synthroid) and warfarin (Coumadin) should be monitored for:
A. Cardiac arrhythmias
B. Increased risk of bleeding
C. Excessive weight loss
D. Increased risk of deep vein thrombosis
B. Increased risk of bleeding
Levothyroxine can compete with protein-binding sites of warfarin, allowing more warfarin to be unbound or free, thus increasing effects of warfarin and risk of bleeding.
A patient receiving propylthiouracil (PTU) asks the nurse how this medication will help relieve his symptoms. The nurse’s best response would be:
A. “Propylthiouracil inactivates any circulating thyroid hormone, thus decreasing signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism.”
B. “Propylthiouracil inhibits the formation of new thyroid hormone, thus gradually returning your metabolism to normal.”
C. “Propylthiouracil helps your thyroid gland use iodine and synthesize hormones better.”
D. “Propylthiouracil stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), which inhibits the production of hormones by the thyroid gland.”
B. “Propylthiouracil inhibits the formation of new thyroid hormone, thus gradually returning your metabolism to normal.”
Propylthiouracil is an antithyroid medication used to treat hyperthyroidism. It works by inhibiting the synthesis of new thyroid hormone. It does not inactivate present hormone.
Patients taking antithyroid medications should be taught to avoid foods high in iodine such as:
A. Milk
B. Eggs
C. Seafood
D. Chicken
C. Seafood
Seafood contains high amounts of iodine. The other choices do not.
A patient demonstrates understanding of radioactive iodine (I-131) therapy when stating:
A. “I will have to isolate myself from my family for 1 week so as not to expose them to radiation.”
B. “This drug will be taken up by the thyroid gland and destroy the cells to reduce my hyperthyroidism.”
C. “This drug will help decrease my cold intolerance and weight gain.”
D. “I will need to take this drug on a daily basis for at least 1 year.”
B. “This drug will be taken up by the thyroid gland and destroy the cells to reduce my hyperthyroidism.”
Radioactive iodine is an antithyroid medication that is administered orally for one or two doses only. It concentrates in the thyroid gland, enabling the radiation to destroy the hyperplastic cells.
Which rapid-acting insulin starts working in less than 15 minutes after administration?
A. insulin glargine (Lantus)
B. insulin aspart (Novolog)
C. regular insulin (Humulin R)
D. Ultralente insulin (Humulin U)
B. insulin aspart (Novolog)
Insulin aspart is a rapid-acting insulin. Insulin glargine and Ultralente insulin are long-acting. Regular insulin is short-acting.
Which new long-acting insulin mimics natural, basal insulin with its duration of 24 hours?
A. insulin glargine (Lantus)
B. insulin aspart (Novolog)
C. regular insulin (Humulin R)
D. Ultralente insulin (Humulin U)
A. insulin glargine (Lantus)
Insulin glargine has a duration of action of 24 hours with no peaks, mimicking the natural, basal insulin secretion of the pancreas.
Which insulin is used for continuous intravenous infusions?
A. insulin glargine (Lantus)
B. insulin aspart (Novolog)
C. regular insulin (Humulin R)
D. Ultralente insulin (Humulin U)
C. regular insulin (Humulin R)
Regular insulin is the only insulin used for intravenous therapy.
For the most consistent absorption, insulin should be injected into the:
A. Abdomen
B. Arm
C. Thigh
D. Buttocks
A. Abdomen
The abdomen has the most consistent absorption because the blood flow to the subcutaneous tissue typically is not as affected by muscular movements as it could be in the arm or thigh.
Assuming the patient eats breakfast at 8:30 AM, lunch at noon, and dinner at 6:00 PM, he or she is at highest risk of hypoglycemia following an 8:00 AM dose of NPH insulin at:
A. 10 AM
B. 2 PM
C. 5 PM
D. 8 PM
C. 5 PM
Breakfast eaten at 8:30 AM would cover the onset of NPH insulin, and lunch will cover the 2 PM time frame. However, if the patient does not eat a midafternoon snack, the NPH insulin may be peaking just before dinner without sufficient glucose on hand to prevent hypoglycemia.
Which is NOT part of a teaching plan for patients taking oral hypoglycemic agents?
A. Limit your alcohol consumption
B. Report symptoms of anorexia and fatigue
C. Take your medication only as needed
D. Notify your physician if blood glucose levels rise above the level set for you
C. Take your medication only as needed
Oral hypoglycemic agents must be taken on a daily scheduled basis to maintain euglycemia and prevent long-term complications of diabetes.
Which of the following drugs has been associated with a decrease in triglycerides and low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) as well as an increase in HDLs?
A. acarbose (Precose)
B. metformin (Glucophage)
C. repaglinide (Prandin)
D. rosiglitazone (Avandia)
B. metformin (Glucophage)
Studies have demonstrated an increase in HDLs along with a decrease in triglycerides and LDLs with metformin.
Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors differ from the sulfonylureas in that they:
A. Greatly stimulate pancreatic insulin release
B. Greatly increase the sensitivity of insulin receptor sites
C. Delay the absorption of glucose, leading to lower glucose levels
D. Cannot be used in combination with other antidiabetic agents
C. Delay the absorption of glucose, leading to lower glucose levels
Alpha-glucosidase is an enzyme necessary for the absorption of glucose from the GI tract. Inhibiting this enzyme inhibits glucose absorption, delaying rises in postprandial serum glucose levels.
Sulfonylureas reduce serum glucose by:
A. Increasing beta-cell stimulation, causing insulin release
B. Decreasing hepatic glucose production
C. Increasing number or sensitivity of insulin receptors
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
The three major pharmacodynamic actions of sulfonylurea agents include increasing beta-cell stimulation for insulin release, decreasing hepatic glucose production, and increasing insulin sensitivity.
Which of the following oral hypoglycemic agents has a quick onset and short duration of action, enabling the patient to take the medication immediately before eating and skipping medication if he or she does not eat?
A. acarbose (Precose)
B. metformin (Glucophage)
C. repaglinide (Prandin)
D. rosiglitazone (Avandia)
C. repaglinide (Prandin)
Repaglinide is known as the "Humalog of oral hypoglycemic agents." The drug's very fast onset of action allows patients to take the drug with meals and skip a dose when they skip a meal.
A patient taking insulin is at risk for unrecognized hypoglycemia if concurrently prescribed:
A. aspirin
B. Thiazide diuretics
C. Beta-adrenergic blockers
D. codeine
C. Beta-adrenergic blockers
Beta-adrenergic blockers block the initial sympathetic response to hypoglycemia; therefore, the patient will not exhibit the initial symptoms of nervousness, diaphoresis, and sweating that typically alert the patient to the onset of hypoglycemia, allowing the hypoglycemia to progress to neuroglycopenic stage.
When administering 30 units regular insulin and 70 units NPH insulin, the nurse will:
A. Draw up the regular insulin into the syringe first, followed by the cloudy NPH insulin
B. Inform the patient that mixing insulins will help increase insulin production
C. Rotate sites at least once weekly and label the sites used on a diagram
D. Use a 23- to 25-gauge syringe with a 1-inch needle for maximum absorption
A. Draw up the regular insulin into the syringe first, followed by the cloudy NPH insulin
Drawing up the regular insulin into the syringe first prevents accidental mixture of NPH insulin into the vial of regular insulin, which could cause an alteration in the onset of action of the regular insulin.
The nurse would include which of the following statements when teaching a patient about insulin glargine?
A. “You should inject this insulin just before meals because it is very fast-acting.”
B. “The duration of action for this insulin is approximately 8 to10 hours, so you will need to take it twice a day.”
C. “You can mix this insulin with Lente insulin to enhance its effects.”
D. “You cannot mix this insulin with regular insulin and thus will have to take two injections.”
D. “You cannot mix this insulin with regular insulin and thus will have to take two injections.”

Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin with duration of action up to 24 hours. It should not be mixed with any other insulins.
In order to achieve the most beneficial effect, the nurse plans to administer glipizide (Glucotrol):
A. With food
B. 30 minutes before a meal
C. 15 minutes postprandial
D. At bedtime
B. 30 minutes before a meal
Food inhibits the absorption of glipizide, the only sulfonylurea agent that should be given 30 minutes before a meal.
Diabetic teaching includes treatment of hypoglycemia with:
A. propranolol (Inderal)
B. Glucagon
C. acarbose (Precose)
D. bumetanide (Bumex)
B. Glucagon
Glucagon stimulates glycogenolysis, raising serum glucose levels.
The nurse plans administration of prednisone based on knowledge that glucocorticoids:
A. Are usually administered early in the evening to coincide with the natural secretion pattern of the adrenal cortex
B. Are usually administered on a strict, unchanging schedule in order to prevent adverse reactions
C. Should be administered with food to diminish the risk of gastric irritation
D. Should not be administered intravenously secondary to the risk of hypotension when given parenterally
C. Should be administered with food to diminish the risk of gastric irritation
Glucocorticoids can cause GI distress and should be administered with food. The normal circadian secretion of the adrenal cortex is early morning to wake the person up, not early evening. These medications should be tapered off slowly to prevent adrenal crisis and can be administered intravenously.
Which of the following statements about glucocorticoids is most accurate?
A. They influence carbohydrate, lipid, and protein metabolism
B. They are produced in decreased amounts during times of stress
C. They decrease serum sodium and glucose levels
D. They stimulate defense mechanisms to produce immunity
A. They influence carbohydrate, lipid, and protein metabolism
Glucocorticoids play a major role in carbohydrate, lipid, and protein metabolism within the body. They are produced in increasing amounts during stress, increase sodium and glucose levels, and suppress the immune system.
The nurse would question an order for steroids in a patient with:
A. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Septic shock
D. COPD exacerbation
A. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
A common side effect of steroid therapy is hyperglycemia.
When assessing for potential side effects of fludrocortisone (Florinef), the nurse monitors for signs and symptoms of:
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypovolemia
C. Hypokalemia
Fludrocortisone has mineralocorticoid properties, resulting in sodium and fluid retention along with potassium excretion.
Discharge teaching for a patient receiving glucocorticoids should include the preferred use of which of the following medications for pain management?
A. aspirin
B. acetaminophen
C. ibuprofen
D. naproxen sodium
B. acetaminophen
Acetaminophen does not cause GI distress as does aspirin, ibuprofen, naproxen sodium, and glucocorticoids.
The nurse would question an order for aminoglutethimide (Cytadren) in a patient with:
A. Metastatic breast cancer
B. Cushing's syndrome
C. Adrenal malignancy
D. Addison's disease
D. Addison's disease
Aminoglutethimide suppresses the adrenal cortex. Addison's disease presents with decreased adrenal secretion; thus, you would not want to exacerbate this by administering aminoglutethimide. All of the other choices are indications of use for aminoglutethimide.
Which of the following statements, made by the patient, indicate understanding of discharge teaching regarding alendronate (Fosamax):
A. "I need to decrease my intake of dairy products so as to prevent hypercalcemia."
B. "I need to take this medication with food to prevent damage to my esophagus."
C. "I will take the medication first thing in the morning on an empty stomach and remain upright for 30 minutes."
D. "This medication will help relieve the bone pain I have from my osteoporosis."
C. "I will take the medication first thing in the morning on an empty stomach and remain upright for 30 minutes."
Alendronate can cause erosive esophagitis. To prevent this side effect, it is important to take the medication first thing in the morning on an empty stomach without any other medications and maintain an upright position for 30 minutes. These actions facilitate rapid absorption and prevent reflux into the esophagus.
The addition of continuous administration of progestin to an estrogen regimen reduces the risk of:
A. Ovarian cancer
B. Endometrial cancer
C. Breast cancer
D. Vaginal cancer
B. Endometrial cancer
Estrogen, given alone, has been associated with an increased risk of endometrial hyperplasia, which can lead to endometrial cancer. Progestin reduces the incidence of endometrial hyperplasia.
The nurse would question the order for estrogen replacement therapy in a patient with a history of:
A. Deep vein thrombosis
B. Vaginal bleeding
C. Weight loss
D. Dysmenorrhea
A. Deep vein thrombosis
Increased coagulation and risk of deep vein thrombosis is a side effect of hormone replacement therapy.
During postpartum assessment the nurse notes a boggy uterus and increased vaginal bleeding. Based upon this assessment and standing physician orders, the nurse prepares to administer:
A. prostaglandin E
B. oxytocin (Pitocin)
C. terbutaline (Brethine)
D. clomiphene (Clomid)
B. oxytocin (Pitocin)
Oxytocin is a uterine stimulant, causing uterine contractions, which would decrease the vaginal bleeding.
Which of the following dosage forms for testosterone allows for the highest hepatic first-pass effect?
A. Transdermal
B. Subcutaneous
C. Buccal
D. Oral
D. Oral
Transdermal, subcutaneous, and buccal absorption all cause the drug to enter the bloodstream after portal circulation. Oral administration results in gastric or intestinal absorption, which takes the medication through the liver before it reaches its target organ.
The nurse would question the administration of testosterone to a patient with:
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypovolemia
C. Hyperkalemia
Testosterone can cause increased serum potassium levels.
Discharge teaching for a patient receiving finasteride (Proscar) would include common side effects such as:
A. Hair loss
B. Increase libido
C. Ejaculatory dysfunction
D. Muscle weakness
C. Ejaculatory dysfunction
Common side effects of finasteride include impotence, decreased libido, and decreased volume of ejaculate. It is also used to treat male pattern baldness and thus would cause hair growth, not hair loss.
Patients prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) should be instructed regarding the potential fatal drug interaction with:
A. nitroglycerin
B. aspirin
C. acetaminophen
D. Anticoagulants
A. nitroglycerin
When taken in conjunction with nitroglycerin, sildenafil can cause severe hypotension unresponsive to treatment.
Hormone:
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH, corticotropin)
Function:
Targets adrenal gland; mediates adaption to stressors; promotes synthesis of these hormones:
What are the hormones? and what are the mimicking drugs?
Hormones:
glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, androgens
Mimicking druges are:
Corticotropin
What is the function of Growth Hormone and what drugs mimick it?
Growth hormone regulates anabolic processes related to growth and adapation to stressors; promotes skeletal and muscle growth; increases protein synthesis; increases liver glycogenolysis, increases fat mobilization
The drugs that mimick are:
Somatropin and octreotide
What hormone increases water resorption in distal tubules and collecting duct of nephron; concentrates urine; potent vasoconstrictor and what drugs mimick it?
Antidiuretic hormone and the drugs that mimick it are:
Vasopressin, lypressin, and desmopressin
Uses for corticotropin include all of the following except:
A: diagnosis of adrenocortical insufficiency
B: treatment of multiple sclerosis
C: stimulating skeletal growth
D:As an antiinflammatory agent
C: stimulating skeletal growth
Which agent is used in the treatment of type I von Willebrand's disease or hemophilia A?
A: corticotropin
B: Vasopressin
C: Octreotide
D: Desmopressin
D: Desmopressin
Which nursing diagnosis may be appropriate for the patient who is recieving a pituitary agent?
A: Deficient fluid volume
B: Disturbed body image
C: Impaired physical mobility
D: Impaired skin integrity
B: Disturbed body image
When recieving desmopressin acetate as a nasal spray for diabetes insipidus, which action would provide optimal control of the patients disease?
A: Clear nasal passages after spraying the medication
B: Inhale the spray for full drug effect
C: If nasal congestion occurs, take OTC preparation to control mucus
D: Take the nasal spray at the same time every day.
D: Take the nasal spray at the same time every day.
Which hormone is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland?
A: antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
B: aldosterone
C: growth hormone
D: thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
A: antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
The type of hypothyroidism that results from insufficient secretion of TSH from the pituitary gland
Secondary
Thyroid hormone that influences the metabolic rate
Thyroxine
The type of hypothyroidusm that is due ti the inability of the thyroid gland to perform a function
Primary
The most common perscribed synthetic thyroid hormone
Levothyroxine
Excessive secretion of thyroid hormones
Hyperthyroidism
An agent used to treat hyperthyroidism
Propylthiouracil
The type of hypothyroidism that stems from reduced levels of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) secreted from the hypothalamus
Tertiary
Another name for TSH
Thyrotropin
Patients who begin therapy with levothyroxine should be told to expect effects from the medication:
A: Immediately
B: Within a few days
C: Within a few weeks
D: Within a few months
D: Within a few months
Mrs. Smith wants to switch brands of levothyroxine. What is your response?
A: Different brands are metabolized at different rates
B: Each brand has a different ratio of T3 and T4.
C: There should be difference in the theraputic response among different brands
D: She should consult her physician before switching brands.
D: She should consult her physician before switching brands.
The patient on antithyroid medications should be advised to avoid which foods?
A: Soy products and seafood
B: Bananas and oranges
C: Dairy Products
D: Processed meats and cheese
A: Soy products and seafood
When teaching patients about takinf thyroid medications, which of the following is NOT true?
A: A log or journal of their responses and a graph of their pulse, weight, and mood would be helpful
B: They should discontinue the medication if the side effects become too strong
C: The medication should be taken at teh same time every day
D: Nervousness, irritability, and insomnia may be a result of a dose that is too high
B: They should discontinue the medication if the side effects become too strong
Mr. T. is scheduled for a radioactive isotope study. HE takes levothyroxine daily; what instructions regarding his medications shold he recieve from his health care provider?
A: Continue to take the medication as ordered
B: Skip the medication on the morning of the test
C: Stop the medication about 4 weeks before the test
D: Reduce the dosage 1 week before the test
C: Stop the medication about 4 weeks before the test
What is the most immediate and serious adverse effect of insulin therapy?
A: Hyperglycemia
B: Hypoglycemia
C: Bradycardia
D: Weakness
B: Hypoglycemia
Which insulin has the longest duration?
A: Regular
B: Lente
C: NPH
D: Ultralente
D: Ultralente
Which insulin can be given intravenously?
A: Regular
B: Lente
C: NPH
D: Ultralente
A: Regular
Which of the following indicates hypoglycemia?
A: Decreased pulse and respiratory rates and flushed skin
B: Increased pulse rate and a fruity, acetone breath odor
C: Weakness, cold clammy skin, and shallow, rapid breathing
D: Increased urine output and edema
C: Weakness, cold clammy skin, and shallow, rapid breathing
When administering oral antidiabetic agents, which of the following is true?
A: Administer them 30 minutes before meals
B: Administer them with meals
C: Administer them on an empty stomach
D: Administer them 1 hour after eating
A: Administer them 30 minutes before meals
Which statement describes the mechanism of action of rosiglitazone (Avandia)?
A: It stimulates beta cells to produce insulin
B: It decreases insulin resistance
C: It inhibits hepatic glucose production
D: It increases the senitivity of peripheral tissue to insulin
B: It decreases insulin resistance
Jonathan has been taking prednisone following a severe reaction to poison ivy. He notices that the dosage of the medication decreases, he asks you why he must continue the medication and ehy he cannot just stop it now that the skin rash is better. What is the best response?
A: Sudden discontinuation of this medication may cause an adrenal crisis
B: He would experience withdrawl symptoms if the drug is discontinued abruptly
C: Cushing's syndrome may develop as a reaction to a sudeen drop of serumn cortisone levels
D: He can stop taking the medication if his rash is better
A: Sudden discontinuation of this medication may cause an adrenal crisis
Which medication is the preferred oral glucocorticoid for antiinflammatory or immunosuppressant purposes?
A: fludrocortisone
B: dexamethasone
C: Prednisone
D: hydrocortisone
C: Prednisone
Side effects of prednisone therapy include all of the following except:
A: fragile skin
B: increased glucose levels
C: Nervousness
D: weight loss
D: weight loss
Which agent works to inhibit the function of the adrenal cortex in the treatment of Cushing's syndrome?
A: dexamethasone
B: aminoglutethimide
C: hydrocortisone
D: fludrocortisone
B: aminoglutethimide
All of the following conditions are indications for the use of glucocorticoids except:
A: organ transplant recipients
B: cerebral edema
C: Bacterial infections
D: Bronchospasm states
C: Bacterial infections
All of the following are contraindications to the use of oral contraceptives except:
A: breast cancer
B: pregnancy
C: thrombophlebitic disorders
D: multiple sclerosis
D: multiple sclerosis
Which of the following should be included when teaching about postmenopausal estrogen replacement therapy?
A: Postmenopausal women are at greater risk for gynecologic cancers
B: Oral forms should be taken on an empty stomach for best absorption
C: Taking an antacid with the estrogen may help with the gastrointestinal upset
D: Supplemental calcium is not needed if the patient is taking estrogen
C: Taking an antacid with the estrogen may help with the gastrointestinal upset
When combination oral contraceptives are used to provide postcoital emergency contraception, which of the following statements is true?
A: They are not effective if the woman is pregnant
B: They should be taken within 24 hours of unprotected intercourse
C: They are given in one dose
D: They are intended to terminate pregnancy
A: They are not effective if the woman is pregnant
Dinoprostone cervical gel is used to:
A: Induce abortion during the third semester
B: Improve cervical inducibility ("ripening") near term for labor induction
C: soften the cervix in women who are experiencing infertile problems
D: Reduce postpartum uterine atony and hemorrhage
B: Improve cervical inducibility ("ripening") near term for labor induction
Tocolytics such as terbutaline are used to prevent contractions:
A: before the 20th week
B: between the 20-37th weeks
C: after teh 37th week
D: at any time during the pregnancy if delivery is not desired
B: between the 20-37th weeks
What patient teaching is appropriate for the patient taking alendronare (Fosamax)?
A: Take on an empty stomach
B: take at night just before going to bed
C: Do not lie down for at least 30 minutes after taking
D: Take with a sip of water
C: Do not lie down for at least 30 minutes after taking
Jack, a member of the college football team, asks his friend's mother, who is a nurse, about taking steriods to help him "beef up" his muscles. Which of the following is true.
A: There should be no problems as long as he does not exceed the recommended dose
B: Long-term use may cause a life-threatening liver condition
C: He would need to be careful to watch for excessive weight loss
D: These drugs also tend to increase the male's sperm count
B: Long-term use may cause a life-threatening liver condition
In which of the following situations would androgens be perscribed for a woman?
A: Development of secondary sex characteristics
B: Postmenopausal osteoporosis prevention
C: Ovarian cancer
D: Treatment of endometriosis
D: Treatment of endometriosis
Samuel will be recieving testosterone therapy for male hypogonadism. The doctor has perscribed Testoderm patches. What does Samuel need to know about the dosage of this medication?
A: It is applied only on the scrotum
B: It is never applied to the scrotum
C: If the side effects become bothersome, he should stop taking the patch
D: It should be applied to a different area of the upper body each day
A: It is applied only on the scrotum
Rosie will be taking nandrolone as part of the treatment for metastatic breast cancer. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding therapy with this drug?
A: She should notify her physician if menstral irregularities occur
B: A low-sodium diet may be recommended if edema occurs.
C: The strongest dose she can tolerate is needed for optimal theraputic effect
D: Its use is contraindicated if severe cardiac, renal, or liver disease is present.
C: The strongest dose she can tolerate is needed for optimal theraputic effect
Mr. H. is taking finasteride for the treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy. His wife, who is 3 months pregnant, is worried about the side effects that may occur with this drug. What is most important to tell them about therapy with this drug?
A: Gastric upset may be reduced if he takes this on an empty stomach
B: They should see theraputic effects of increased libido and erection in 1 month
C: This medication should not even be handled by pregnant women due to its teratogenic effects
D: He may experience transient hair loss while on this medication
C: This medication should not even be handled by pregnant women due to its teratogenic effects
Which agent is used, in low doses, for androgenetic alopecia in both mena dn women?
A: finasteride (Proscar)
B: nandrolone (Deca-Durabolin)
C: danazol (Danocrine)
D: oxandrolone (Oxandrin)
A: finasteride (Proscar)
Kate has been started on oral estrogen replacement therapy. What patient teaching is important for Kate?
A: She should double-up on the medication if a dose is missed.
B: She should not be concerned about breast lumps that occur.
C: She should report any weight gain of more than five pounds per week.
D: She should take the medication on an empty stomach to enhance absorption.
C: She should report any weight gain of more than five pounds per week.
The use of estrogen is contraindicated in which of the following patients?
A: Dorothy, who has atrophic vaginitis
B: Frank, who has inoperable prostate cancer
C: Shirley, for prevention of postpartum lactation
D: Janet, who has just been diagnosed with breast cancer
D: Janet, who has just been diagnosed with breast cancer
Patients receiving fertility agents such as Clomid may experience which of the following side effects?
A: Dizziness
B: Drowsiness
C: Dysmenorrhea
D: Increased appetite
A: Dizziness
Peggy is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) to induce labor. During the administration of this medication, you should do all of the following except
keep magnesium sulfate at the bedside.
A: administer the medication in an intravenous bolus.
B: administer the medication with an intravenous infusion pump.
C: dilute the medication in 5% D: dextrose in water or 0.9% normal saline.
B: administer the medication with an intravenous infusion pump.
Tocolytic drugs such as terbutaline and ritodrine have the following effect:
A: uterine relaxant.
B: uterine stimulant.
C: ovulation stimulation.
D: ovulation suppressant.
A: uterine relaxant.
Sarah, age 51, will be taking raloxifene as part of the treatment for postmenopausal osteoporosis. It is important that she be informed about the possible occurrence of
A: pregnancy.
B: breast cancer.
C: stress fractures.
D: venous thromboembolism.
D: venous thromboembolism.
Which of the following statements about prednisone is true?

a. It is a short-acting glucocorticoid.

b. It has potent mineralocorticoid activity.

c. It is the preferred oral glucocorticoid for anti-inflammatory purposes.

d. It may be administered by inhalation for the treatment of bronchial asthma.
c. It is the preferred oral glucocorticoid for anti-inflammatory purposes.
Which of the following actions is appropriate for the patient taking adrenal agents?

a. Oral agents should be taken before meals to maximize absorption.

b. Clean out the oral cavity with mouthwash after using the steroid inhalers.

c. Take the corticosteroids before bedtime to maximize adrenal suppression.

d. Discontinue the medication immediately is a weight gain of more than five pounds in one week is experienced.
b. Clean out the oral cavity with mouthwash after using the steroid inhalers.
Which gland secretes corticosteroids predominantly?

a. Anterior pituitary

b. Adrenal cortex

c. Pancreas

d. Ovaries
b. Adrenal cortex
When taking glucocorticoids, the patient should be monitored for the development of

a. rheumatoid arthritis.

b. hypoglycemia.

c. hyperglycemia.

d. adrenal insufficiency.
c. hyperglycemia.
Persons using corticosteroids experience

a. weight loss.

b. an enhanced inflammatory response.

c. activation of the immune system.

Persons using corticosteroids experience

a. weight loss.

b. an enhanced inflammatory response.

c. activation of the immune system.

d. a suppressed immune system.
d. a suppressed immune system.
Addison’s disease is characterized by adrenocortical secretions that are

a. unaffected.

b. excessive.

c. insufficient.

d. within normal limits.
c. insufficient.
H1-blockers are indicated in which of the following situations or problems?
A: Tachycardia
B: Urinary retention
C: Ulcer disease
D: Allergic rhinitis
D: Allergic rhinitis
Decongestants that have beta-stimulating effects may also result in which of the following side effects?
A: Fever
B: Bradycardia
C: Hypertension
D: CNS depression
C: Hypertension
Antihistamines have which of the following theraputic effects?
A: Prevention of the constriction of blood vessels in the nasal mucosa
B: Prevention of increased vascular permeability in the eyes
C: Stimulation of salicary, gastric, lacrimal, and bronchial secretions
D: Ability to bind to histamine receptors and prevent histamine release.
D: Ability to bind to histamine receptors and prevent histamine release.
The binding of H1 blockers to the unoccupied receptors prevents which of the following?
A: Vasodilation
B: Leukopenic infiltration
C: Decreased capillary permeability
D: Diminished GI secretions
C: Decreased capillary permeability
Antitussives are drugs that are used to:
A: stop or reduce coughing
B: Constrict the blood vessels and relieve congetion
C: block the effects of histamine on the blood vessels
D: aid in the removal of mucus by reducing the viscosity of respiratory secretions
A: stop or reduce coughing