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202 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Name that Vaughn-Williams Class!
On/Off - Intermediate
Class IA
Name that Vaughn-Williams Class!
Class I
Sodium channel blockers
Name that Vaughn-Williams Class!
Primarily considered sodium channel blockers, but some potassium channel blockade
Class IA
Name that Vaughn-Williams Class!
Effective for both supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias
Class IA
Name that Vaughn-Williams Class!
On/Off - Fast
Class IB
Name that Vaughn-Williams Class!
Blockade more apparent as heart rate increases; relatively weak sodium channel blocker at normal rates
Class IB
Name that Vaughn-Williams Class!
More effective in ventricular than supraventricular arrhythmias
Class IB
Name that Vaughn-Williams Class!
On/Off - slow
Class IC
Name that Vaughn-Williams Class!
Extremely potent sodium channel blockers that profoundly slow conduction velocity
Class IC
Name that Vaughn-Williams Class!
Effective in both supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias, but use is limited by the risk of causing other drug-induced arrhythmias
Class IC
Name that Vaughn-Williams Class!
Tend to increase defibrillation threshold; may require more energy for successful cardioversion
Class I
Name that Vaughn-Williams Class!
List subclass IA drugs...
Disopyramide (Norpace) p.o.
Quinidine p.o., i.v.
Procainamide p.o., i.v.
Double Quarter Pounder
Name that Vaughn-Williams Class!
List subclass IB drugs...
Lidocaine (Xylocaine) i.v.
Mexiletine p.o.
Lettuce and Mayo
Name that Vaughn-Williams Class!
List subclass IC drugs...
Flecainide (Tambocor) p.o.
Moricizine (Ethmozine) p.o.
Propafenone (Rhythmol) p.o.
Frenches Mustard and Pickles
Which Vaughn-Williams class would you use for a patient with a dysrythmia and high heart rate?
Class I drugs
Cinchonism - tinitis and dizziness is associated with which antiarryhthmic?
Quinidine (Class IA)
List three effects when beta-adrenergic receptors are blocked.
1. Reduces conduction velocity
2. Increases refractory period
3. Decreases automaticity in nodal tissue
Name that Vaughn-Williams Class!
List Class II drugs...
Esmolol (Brevibloc) i.v.
Acebutolol (Sectral) p.o.
Propranolol (Inderal) p.o. & i.v.
Eat Apple Pie
Name that Vaughn-Williams Class!
This class works best for patients with slow heart rates.
Class III potassium channel blockers
Name that Vaughn-Williams Class!
"Reverse use dependence"
Class III potassium channel blockers
Name that Vaughn-Williams Class!
May cause Torsade de Pointes by provoking early atrial depolarizations
Class III potassium channel blockers
Name that Vaughn-Williams Class!
Used in atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter
Class III potassium channel blockers
Name that Vaughn-Williams Class!
List the Class III drugs...
Dronedarone (Multaq)
Dofetilide (Tikosyn)
Amiodarone (Cordarone)
Sotalol (Betapace)
Ibutilide (Corvert)
Dunkin Doughnuts And Strawberry Icecream
List two Vaughn-Williams class III drugs that work in patients with ventricular fibrillation.
Amiodarone
Sotalol
Your patient enters your office with blue/gray skin on his face. What drug would you d/c?
Amiodarone
Name that Vaughn-Williams Class!
Non-dihydropyridine
Class IV calcium channel blockers
Name that Vaughn-Williams Class!
Blocks calcium channels in SA and AV nodal tissue
Class IV calcium channel blockers
Name that Vaughn-Williams Class!
List Class IV drugs...
Diltiazem (Cardizem)
Verapamil (Isoptin)
Blocking calcium channels at the SA and AV nodes has what effects on the conduction cells of the heart?
1. Reduces rate of Phase 0 depolarization
2. Reduces conduction velocity
3. Reduces excitability
4. Increase the P-R interval
This antiarrhythmic is a potent vasodilator and is the drug of choice for supraventricular tachycardia (duration ~15 seconds)
Adenosine (Adenocard)
This antiarrhythmic has strong ionotropic effects (increases cardiac contractility) and is used to control ventricular response rate in atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter
Digoxin (Lanoxin)
Pro or Anti (arrythmic)?
Class I
Pro
Sodium channel blockers
Pro or Anti (arrythmic)?
Class III
Pro
Potassium channel blockers
Pro or Anti (arrythmic)?
Class IV
Anti
Calcium channel blockers
Pro or Anti (arrythmic)?
Class II
Anti
Beta blockers
This Vaughn Williams Class is use dependent meaning the drugs greatest degree of blockade is in frequently depolarizing tissue (e.g. tachycardia)
Class I
This Vaughn Williams subclass is a proarrhythmic and is known to cause Torsade de Pointes
Class IA
This drug can exacerbate heart failure and can cause hypotension, dry mouth, urinary retention, blurred vision and constipation
Disopyramide
Class IA
Boxed Warning: Use only for life-threatening ventricular arrythmias
Disopyramide
Class IA
Boxed Warning: May be proarrhythmic
Quinidine
Class IA
This drug has a >10% occurrence of hypotension, QT complex prolongation, light-headedness, GI upset and exacerbates heart failure
Quinidine
Class IA
Your patient is already at risk for falls. Which drug known to cause syncope and other CNS adverse affects (Cinchonism) would you avoid prescribing?
Quinidine
Class IA
Boxed warning: Potentially fatal blood dyscrasias, long-term administration can lead to an increase in antinuclear antibodies (ANA); may result in drug-induced 'lupus-like syndrome'
Procainamide
Class IA
This antiarrythmic is know to cause depression, hallucinations and psychosis
Procainamide
Class IA
Use this drug only for patients with life-threatening arrythmias.
Procainamide
Class IA
This Vaughn Williams subclass does not slow conduction in the heart. Therapeutic uses include ventricular tachycardia, premature ventricular complexes, ventricular fibrillation but CANNOT BE USED IN ATRIAL ARRYTHMIAS
Class IB
Because of this drugs extensive first pass metabolism you should reduce the dose for patients with hepatic dysfunction and/or when used with propranolol which is known to decrease hepatic blood flow.
Lidocaine
Class IB
This drug has a wide therapeutic index (toxic-to-therapeutic) but can cause drowsiness, slurred speech, parathesia, agitation, confusion and convulsions.
Lidocaine
Class IB
The oral dosage form of this drug can be used chronically for ventricular arrhythmias associated with post myocardial infarction.
Mexiletine
Class IB
This Vaughn Williams subclass markedly slows the rate of phase 0 depolarization and markedly decreases conduction.
Class IC
What might you prescribe for a patient with refractory ventricular arrhythmias?
Flecainamide or Propafenone
Class IC
What might you prescribe to prevent paroxysmal atrial fibrillation or paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia?
Flecainamide or Propafenone
Class IC
Boxed warning: use in life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias (proarrhythmic) and adverse events include dizziness, fatigue, bronchospasm (COPD and asthma), taste disturbances, bradycardia or AV block and nausea and vomiting
Propafenone
Class IC
This Vaughn Williams class causes direct AV nodal inhibition
Class II
Beta blockers
In order to reduce sudden death from ventricular arryhthmias following a myocardial infarction you may consider prescribing this drug but keep in mind the drug loses selectivity at higher doses.
Class II
Beta blockers
In addition to controlling atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter this class of drugs controls tachyarrhythmias caused by increase sympathetic tone, AV-nodal reentrant tachycardia and is administered via I.V. for rapid rate control.
Class II
Beta blockers
Because this antiarrhythmic is very short acting the drug is used mostly during surgeries and for emergencies. The patient may experience hypotension, bradyarrhythmias, diaphoresis or nausea.
Esmolal
Class II
Boxed warning: should not be withdrawn abruptly; taper slowly. Use these drugs with caution in patients with heart failure or asthma. Further, additive effects have been seen with digoxin and CCBs.
Metoprolol and Acebutolol
Class II
Watch for elevated BUN and hepatic enzymes in addition to CNS disturbances (amnesia, catatonia, cognitive dysfunction, confusion, depression, dizziness, emotional lability, fatigue, hallucinations, hypersomnolence, insomnia, lethargy, lightheadedness, psychosis, vertigo and vivid dreams) when prescribing this drug. Do not prescribe this drug for patients with HF or asthma.
Propranolol
Class II
List Vauhgn Williams class III drugs.
Amiodarone
Dronedarone
Dofetilide
Ibutilide
Sotalol
Patient has a severe refractory supraventricular (or ventricular) tachyarrhythmia. Tx?
Amiodarone
Class III
This drug is extensively distributed in adipose tissue and will reach full clinical effect in `6 weeks
Amiodarone
Class III
Box warning: lung damage (interstitial pulmonary fibrosis) may occur without symptoms
Amiodarone
Class III
GI intolerance, tremor, ataxia, dizziness, hyper/hypothyroidism, liver toxicity, photosensitivity, neuropathy, muscle weakness, blue skin. But low doses retain clinical effecacy while decreasing toxicity and AEs.
Amiodarone
Class III
This drug is a potent inhibitor of CYP enzymes and transport proteins so watch for drug-drug interactions. Drug also has additive effect with drugs that prolong QT interval.
Amiodarone
Class III
What will you monitor for patients taking amiodarone?
Pulmonary function test (CXR)
Thyroid panel
Liver enzymes
Ophthalmoscopic exam
Drug-drug Interactions (digoxin, quinidine, warfarin)
Describe oral dosing strategy for amiodarone.
Week 1: 800 mg/day
Week 2-4: 400 mg/day
Continue: 200-400 mg/day
Indication: paroxysmal or persistent atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter with recent episode of AF/AFL and associated cardiovascular risk factors (>70 y.o., HTN, DM, CVA, LA diameter >50mm or LV EF < 40%)
Dronedarone
Class III
Boxed warning: potentially fatal arrhythmias can occur; patients with chronic atrial fibrillation are not the best candidates since they often revert after conversion
Use this drug only for supraventricular arrhythmias.
Ibutilide
Class III
If you want to prescribe this medication to control an arrhythmia you need to complete a manufacturers training program and you must admit the patient to the hospital (inpatient only).
Dofetilide
Class III
This antiarrhythmic has the lowest risk of acute and long-term adverse events but does prolong the QT interval (TdP) and can cause fatigue, bradycardia, hypotension and can be arrhythmogenic in high doses.
Sotalol
Class III (BB)
This drug corrects arrhythmias by blocking L-type calcium channels and is a non-hydropyridine agent.
N-HDP Calcium Channel Blockers
Class IV
This Vaughn Williams drug class decreases inotropy, chronotropy and dromotropy and is used to for reentrant supraventricular arrhythmias and rate control in AF/AFL.
N-HDP Calcium Channel Blockers
Class IV
Describe the dosing of diltiazem.
Loading dose: 0.25 mg/kg (i.v.) over 2 minutes - Repeat if necessary after 15 minutes w/ 0.35 mg/kg (i.v.) over 2 minutes
Maintenance dose:
IV - 5-15 mg/hr
PO - 60-90 mg/3x
XR - 180-360 mg/day
Describe dosing of verapimil.
Loading dose: 5-10 mg IV over 2 minutes - repeat after 15 minutes if necessary w/ 10 mg
Maintenance dose:
IV 5-10 mg/hr
PO 40-120 mg/3x
XR 120-480 mg/day
Name the drug of choice for acute supraventricular tachycardia. (Watch out for flushing)
Adenosine
Class 'other'
When use with potassium wasting agents (diuretics) this drug can reach toxic levels thus causing arrhythmias.
Digoxin
Becuse Digoxin is only effective for rate control at _______ it should only be used as a second-line agent for rate control in atrial fibrillation. Preferred drugs for rate control (in order)...
rest
Atenolol
Metroprolol
Diltiazem
Verapamil
List Joint Panels 6 recommendations for Newly Diagnosed Atrial Fibrillation.
1) Rate control with anticoagulation
2) Anticoagulation (warfarin)
3) Rate control (Atenolol, Metropolol, Diltiazem, Verapamil, Digoxin)
4) Elective cardioversion
5) TEE, pre and post anticoagulation
6) Risks of rhythm maintenance outweigh benefits but... (Amiodarone, Dysopyramide, Propafenone, Sotalol)
List the dosage for Aspirin in patients with known CAD.
75-162mg PO daily
Contraindications for Aspirin
salicylate or NSAID allergy
bleeding disorders
asthma
nasal polyps
rhinitis
pregnancy
Should a patient with history of tinnitis take Aspirin?
No
If you prescribed this drug during an ischemic stroke you should avoid Aspirin therapy for 24 hours.
alteplase
If patient is experiencing gastric upset when taking clopidogrel you can prescribe this drug/class but avoid this drug/class.
Tagamet HB (H2 blocker)
Nexium (PPIs decrease antiplatelet activity)
If ASA is absolutely CI or with stent placement or STEMI you would prescribe this drug for antiplatelet therapy.
Clopidogrel (Plavix)
List the three conditions in which you would use clopidogrel instead of ASA for antiplatelet therapy.
1) ASA allergy
2) Stent placement
3) STEMI
Black Box Warning: may cause life-threatening hematologic reactions, including neutropenia, agranulocytosis, thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura (TTP), and aplastic anemia
Ticlopidine (Ticlid)
What antiplatelet drug is approved for the prevention of thrombotic stroke?
Ticlopidine
Your patient has unstable angina and is allergic to ASA and unresponsive to clopidogrel so you prescribe ticlidopine for antiplatelet therapy. What should you monitor closely?
WBC (neutropenia, agranulocytosis, thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura (TTP), and aplastic anemia)
Used for antiplatelet therapy these drugs binds receptors on platelets & prevent platelet aggregation (Abciximab, Eptifibatide, Tirofiban)
GP IIb/IIIa inhibitors
Your patient is undergoing percutaneous transluminal angioplasty and there is a delay to the PCI Unit. In addition to ASA and heparin what drug would you consider?
Abciximab
GP IIb/IIIa inhibitor
monoclonal antibody
Because monoclonal antibodies such as abciximab are large molecules you should always do this but never do this!
Always filter!
Never shake the vial!
This GP IIb/IIIa Inhibitor reversibly blocks receptors while the other does not. Name both respectively.
Eptifibatide (reversible)
Abciximab (non-reversible)
Your patient is delayed to the PCI unit and has a CrCl = 40ml/min. Which GP IIb/IIIa inhibitor would you use without a dosage adjustment? Which GP IIb/IIIa inhibitor would you have to adjust the dosage for?
Eptifibatide CrCl < 50ml/min adjust dosage
Tirofiban CrCl < 30ml/min no dosage adjustment
Match GP IIb/IIIa Inhibitor...
1) Long duration of action
2) Platelet function restored after 4 hours post d/c
3) incompatible with diazepam
Abciximab
Eptifibatide
Tirofiban
For what condition is tirofiban CI?
Acute pericarditis
Your patient's platelet count is 200,000/mm3. Can you use a GP IIb/IIIa inhibitor?
Yes. CI if platelets < 100,000/mm3
What would you monitor in a patient using a GP IIb/IIIa inhibitor?
Sx/Sx of bleeding
CBC
Serum Cr
PT/aPTT
This drug inhibits vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX and X.
Warfarin (coumadin)
A patient using warfarin should have this monitored weekly.
INR - ratio of patient's PT time to a normal control sample
These two drugs used for throbmolytic therapy have a high potential antigenicity (ability to cause allergic reaction).
streptokinase and anistreplase
Which antithrombolytic has the highest specificity for fibrin?
Tenecteplase
Your patient has had an acute ischemic stroke two hours ago. Would you consider thrombolytic therapy?
Yes (Acute Ischemic Stroke < 3 hours)
To Thrombolytic Therapy of NOT?
Ischemic stroke w/i 3 months
NO
To Thrombolytic Therapy of NOT?
Major surgery 4 weeks ago
YES (major surgery < 3 weeks)
To Thrombolytic Therapy of NOT?
Current us of warfarin
NO
To Thrombolytic Therapy of NOT?
Menses
YES (active internal bleeding EXCEPT menses)
To Thrombolytic Therapy of NOT?
Known intracranial pathology or dementia
NO
To Thrombolytic Therapy of NOT?
Current blood pressure: 188/112
NO (BP < 180/110)
To Thrombolytic Therapy of NOT?
History of peptic ulcer > 5 weeks
YES (recent w/i 2-4 weeks internal bleeding or active peptic ulcer)
To Thrombolytic Therapy of NOT?
Pregnancy
NO
To Thrombolytic Therapy of NOT?
Head or facial tramau 2 months ago
NO (head/facial trauma w/i 3 months)
These drugs can slow down and even reverse ventricular remodeling thus decreasing morbidity and mortality in patients with CHF or hx of MI.
ACEi and ARBs
Your patient has an ejection fraction of 35%. What drug will you start and how long will the patient take this drug?
ACEi indefinitely
Your patient has bilateral renal artery stenosis. What drug is contraindicated?
ACEi
Your patient develops angioedema and hyperkalemia while being treated for a MI. What drug should you d/c?
ACEi
The goal of low dose nitrates is to reduce what and by what mechanism? High dose?
Reduce preload by venous vasodilation
Reduce afterload by arterial vasodilation
If you want to decrease cardiac oxygen demand while increasing cardiac oxygen supply what would you prescribe?
Nitrates
Other than IV which nitrate is fastest acting (drug/mode)?
Nitroglycerine (sublingual 1-3 minutes)
Name the long-acting nitrates
Isosorbide dinitrate
Isosorbide mononitrate
What form of nitroglycerine is longest acting? What is the drawback?
Transdurmal patch (>8hours)
Slow onset (40-60 minutes)
Your patient brings her nitroglycerine pills to the ER. What do you do with them and why?
Throw them away because the pills are cheap and you always assume patient has stored pills incorrectly:
1) too hot/cold
2) soft plastic container
3) exposed to air
4) mixed with other meds
5) expired
If patient took Cialis 25 hours ago can he use his nitroglycerine pills?
Not within 48 hours of Cialis
(can take after 24 hours for Viagra and Levitra)
Patient has taken first dose of NTG and has called 911. Can he take more NTG?
Yes - continue NTG q5minutes x 3
When taking long acting nitrate how do patients avoid developing tolerance?
Allow for nitrate free interval of at least 8-12 hours (usually at night when oxygen demand is lowest)
BID - 8am and 3pm
TID - 7am and noon and 5pm
List the beta-1 selective BBs
A- acebutalol
M- metoprolol
E- esmolol
B- betaxolol
B- bisoprolol
A- atenolol
By what mechanism do BBs improve mortallity following MI?
decreased afterload
What is the mechanism of verapamil and diltiazem?
decrease coronary vascular resistance, decrease conduction through AV node, decrease HR and decrease contractility
(Non-Dihydropiridine CCBs)
'-pine'
CCBs
What might occur if you prescribe a beta blocker and verapamil or diltiazem?
Bradycardia
Your patient has severe left ventricular dysfunction and slow conduction through the AV node. CI?
verapamil and diltiazem (non-DH CCBs)
Your patient develops flushing and gingival hyperplasia. d/c?
CCBs
Which anti-anginal meds increase oxygen supply to the heart?
CCBs and Nitrates (not BBs)
Which anti-anginal meds decrease HR?
BB, non-DH CCBs
Which anti-anginal meds increase HR?
Nitrates
Which anti-anginal meds decrease cardiac wall tension?
CCB's and nitrates (not BB's)
Which anti-anginal meds do not affect cardiac contractility?
nitrates (BBs and CCBs decrease cardiac contractility)
Your patient has a fast heart rate. Would you use nifedipine or verapamil?
Verapamil decreases HR (nifedipine increases HR)
This drug can maintain cardiac function without decreasing HR or BP by inhibiting late phase inward sodium channels during cardiac repolarization.
Ranolazine (Ranexa)
This drug relies on CYP3A and should not be used with strong-moderate CYP3A inhibitors.
Ranolazine
Patients with chronic stable angina should avoid this drug.
Dipyridamole (Persantine) - an antiplatelet agent
What two drug classes should patients avoid as initial treatments for chronic stable angina?
short acting DH-CCBs and long acting nitrates
How do you treat a patient with newly diagnosed chronic stable angina?
TLC, ASA, ACEi or ARB, BB and statin and SL NTG
If you are going to administer DHP-CCB in a patient with UA/NSTEMI what must you also order for the patient?
BB
What drugs should NOT be given to a patient with UA/NSTEMI?
NSAIDS
When would IV NTG be indicated in the first 48 hours of UA/NSTEMI?
persistent ischemia, HF or HTN
In the first 24 hours of UA/NSTEMI when would you use an ACEi?
pulmonary congestion
LV EF < 40%
For patients with UA/NSTEMI when are BB CI?
HF, decrease CO, risk for cardiogenic shock
List drugs for management of UA/NSTEMI within first 24 hours.
Oxygen
SL NTG (q5min x 3 total)
BB (or NDP-CCB)
ACEi (CI w/ hypotension)
IV morphine for pain
What should patients undergoing PCI receive prior to the procedure?
ASA
clopidogrel - 300mg loading dose (po) or GP IIb/IIIa inhibitor (IV)
Your patient is taking an ACEi. She has DM and CHF and her EF = 35%. What treatment would you add? What will you monitor?
Spironolactone
(aldosterone receptor blocker)
CrCl < 30ml/min (renal dysfunction)
K > 5mEq/L (hyperkalemia)
Low Molecular Weight Heparin
enoxaparin (Lovenox)
Factor Xa inhibitor
Fondaparinux
Direct thrombin inhibitor
Bivalirudin
What drug would you prescribe if your patient is not tolerating a BB?
Verapamil (NDHP CCB)
If your patient has a high CAD risk and is intolerant of clopidagrel what would you prescribe?
warfarin with or without ASA
Goals for patients with CAD:
BP
<140/90 mmHg
Goals for patients with CAD:
BP with DM or CKD
<130/80 mmHg
Goals for patients with CAD:
LDL w/ no risk factors
< 100 mg/dl
Goals for patients with CAD:
LDL w/ multiple risk factors
< 70 mg/dl
Goals for patients with CAD:
Hemoglobin A1c
< 7%
Goals for patients with CAD:
Waist circumference men/women
BMI
< 40in / <35in
BMI 18.5-24.9 kg/m2
For patients >75 years old describe use of clopidogrel during a STEMI.
75mg QD (no loading dose)
Class IIb recommendation for all post PCI STEMI stented patients?
ASA
Clopidogrel Loading Dose 300mg then 75mg QD
Patients undergoing reperfusion with PCI should NOT receive this drug (Class I recommendation).
fondaparinux (fibrinolytic)
T/F CCBs with negative inotropic effects (verapamil and diltiazem) are useful in asymptomatic patients with decreased LV EF after MI.
False - NDHP CCBs can be harmful if LV EV is decreased
T/F ACEi increase CO without increasing HR.
True
T/F ACEi decrease preload and afterload.
True - decrease PCWP and systolic pressure
List the two drugs that are the 'cornerstone' of HF therapy.
ACEi and BBs
List the ACEi used for first line therapy for patients with CHF.
Captopril
Enalapril
Lisinopril
Perindopril
Trandolapril
T/F ACEi should be taken with food.
False - food decreases absorption of ACEi and should be taken on an empty stomach
T/F ACEi are potassium sparing
True (watch for hyperkalemia)
'-sartan'
Angiotensin receptor blockers
List the angiotensin receptor blockers that are available with HCTZ for patients with CHF and LV EF < 40%.
Losartan
Olmesartan
Valsartan
If your patient is intolerant of the dry cough and angioedema with ACEi what is an alternative therapy?
Angiotensin Receptor Blocker (ARB)
List the beta blockers useful for patients with CHF and LV EV < 40%.
bisoprolol
carvedilol
metroprolol
List drug classes to avoid for patients with stage C CHF and LV EF < 40%.
NSAIDs
Antiarrhythmics
CCBs
Add this TLC for stage C CHF.
salt restriction
What drug therapy would you add for an African American with CHF with moderate to severe symptoms while taking ACEi, BB and diuretics?
hydralazine
nitrates
This drug has been shown to decrease hospitalizations for patients with CHF.
digitalis
Your patient with CHF has sx/sx of renal insufficiency and hypotension using ACEi. What would your prescribe?
hydralazine and nitrates
T/F The routine use of ACEi, ARBs and aldosterone antagonists is effective in managing patients with CHF.
False - combined use of all three drugs is NOT recommended
What causes thiazides to lose efficacy?
CrCl < 50ml/min
Your patient is complaining of gynomastia and impotence. What drug would you d/c?
spironolactone
Your patient has right heart failure. Would you use digoxin?
No
When does digoxin toxicity begin (mcg/L)?
2 mcg/L
Your patient is hyperkalemic and hypocalcemic. Should you d/c digoxin?
No. Digoxin causes hypokalemia and hypercalcemia
T/F Advanced age is a CI for digoxin.
True
Your patient is vomiting and complains of seeing everything in red and green. Her HR is dropping. What would you d/c?
Digoxin
What is the Tx for digoxin toxicity?
Stop digoxin
Add potassium chloride
Severe digoxin toxicity may require these therapies...
Lidocaine to control Vtach
magnesium
Atropine
Digibind
What is the primary therapy for acute HF in the hospital setting?
Dobutamine
(inotropic agent)
If dobutamine is CI what other inotropic agent could be ordered?
Milrinone
(phophodiesterase inhibitor)
Patient with HF is cold and dry. Tx?
Inotropes (dobutamine and milirinone)
Patient with HF is cold and wet. Tx?
Diuretics, vasodilators (nitroprusside) OR natriuretic peptides (nesiritide)
What are the most commonly used drugs for acute HF?
Hydralazine (vasodilator) and isosorbide dinitrate (nitrates)
Dilates both arterial and venous vessels to reduce preload and afterload.
Nitropursside
Dilates mainly venous vessels to reduce preload.
Nitroglycerine
Patient has a PCWP of 25 mmHg not responding to diuretics and NTG (IV). Tx?
Nesiritide
(natriuretic peptide)
Which drug is NOT known to cause HF due to negative inotropic effects:
propranolol
verapamil
doxorubicin
disopyramide
doxorubicin
propranolol (BB)
verapamil (CCB)
disopyramide (antiarrhythmic)
Which drugs can cause HF through proarrhythmic effects that lead to QT interval widening and Torsade de pointe?
Class IA, IB and III antiarrhythmics
List drugs that cause sodium retention that can lead to HF.
Metformin (high doses)
NSAIDs
estrogen
licorice
hydralazine
antacids, cephalosporins and penicilins (high sodium content)