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175 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
acetaminophen
tylenol aka APAP
what act was passed in 1938?
the food drug and cosmetic act, modern history of us drug regulations, experimental requirements
purpose of a new drug application?
must be submitted to the FDA before marketing for approval
In what year was efficacy data required?
1962, must prove the efficacy along with safety of a drug
phase one of clinical testing
clinical pharmacology/establish safety of drug
phase 2 of clinical testing
clinical investigations-establish efficacy and what dose is needed
phase 3 of clinical testing
clinical trials! verify efficacy w/ more specific barriers, end points, detecting side effects and % compared to placebo
phase 4 of clinical testing
post marketing studies, only step that doesn't have to be completed before NDA; looking at other diseases drug could help with or notice additional adverse rxns
how long/how much does a drug take to be developed?
10-15 years, 400-800 million dollars
1 kg = ? lbs
2.2
1 ml = ? cc
1 mL = 1 cc
1 gram = ? mg
1 gram = 1000 mg
what is mylanta used for?
anti-acid
what drug rxn should you be aware of with mylanta?
mylanta has electrolytes that can bind to the antibiotic ciproflaxn and make it a different size compound (don't take min/vit with cipro either)
what does cc stand for?
cubic centemeter
30 cc = 30 mL = 30 g
all equal to one oz (ounce)
how many mL is one dram?
4 mL= 1 dram
dram=dr
how many mg is one grain equal too?
60 mg= 1 grain
grain=gr
how many oz is one pound?
16 oz= 1 pound
how many mL are in a teaspoon?
5 mL=1 tsp=5 cc
how many mL are in a table spoon?
15 mL= 1 tbsp
how many ounces are in a cup?
8 oz=1 cup=240 mL
pharmacodynamics
Biochemical & physiological effects of drugs and mechanisms of action study of how drug effects body
Pharmacokinetics
Study of how the body absorbs, distributes, metabolizes and excretes drugs
study of body's effect on drugs
what is teratology?
How drugs taken during pregnancy can cause fetal morphology
what is an example of a category X drug for pregnancy?
Accutane (retinols) used for acne treatment
what is the TI of a drug?
therapeutic index/margin of safety
what is the therapeutic index ratio for humans?
TD1/ED1
minimum toxic dose/minimum therapeutic dose
high # = safe:)
what doe drug specificity mean?
the receptor must be able to recognize drug for it to work
what do drug receptor complexes do?
produce a biochemical or physiologic response
what are the general effects of drug binding?
Release of NT, hormone or endogenous chemicals
Change electrical potential or membrane permeability
Cause cascade effect
what is an agonist?
Drug that combines with a receptor and activates that receptor
*same response as endogenous chemical or stimulates release of endogenous chemical
epinephrine
adrenergic agonist
give to pts to increase HR/BP
antagonist
Drug that combines with a receptor used by an endogenous chemical and blocks or diminishes the response of the endogenous agent or blocks release of NT or inhibits signaling of released NT.
atropine
cholinergic antagonist
what is a partial agonist?
has affinity but low efficacy
binds but elicits less response and blocks receptor for more effective drug
butorphenol (stadol) u and K activity
bind to opioid receptors for pain relief but not as well as morphine would-less addictive and no high
competitive antagonism
agonist and antagonist compete for the same receptor site.
Non-competitive antagonism
agonist and antagonist bind at different sites on the same receptor
ex- binds and changes receptor configuration so agonist can't bind
what is efficacy?
The magnitude of the maximum effect (predefined)
what is potency?
If the dose of drug A is less than drug B to achieve the same response – Drug A is more potent. (1mg vs. 100mg)
what is tolerance?
Reduced response to the same dose or increased dose needed for the same response
happens with narcotics/nitroglycerin/pain relievers
what causes tolerance?
•Change in receptor sensitivity
•Change in pharmacokinetics of drug
doesn't occur with all drugs
dependence
ADDICTION need for drug
can be psychological or physiological
allergy
ABCD
hypersensitivity!
adverse immune reaction that results from a previous exposure to a particular chemical or one that is structurally similar.
type 1 allergy
Anaphylactic rxns, histamine released, IgE response
urticaria, rash, vasodilation, hypotension, edema, inflammaion, rhinitis, asthma, tachycardia
type 2 allergy
B for BLOOD CELLS-ANEMIA
cytolytic rxns w/ IgG and IgM, effect cells and circ sys=hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, granulocytopenia
examples of type 2 allergies?
quinidine, Methyldopa
These autoimmune reactions to drugs usually subside within several months after drug discontinuation
type 3 allergy
C is for Complexes/rash-
IgG mediated, immune complexes are deposited in the vascular endothelium=serum sickness occurs
symptoms of type 3 allergy
erythema multiforme, arthritis, nephritis, CNS abnormalities, myocarditis and systemic lupus erythematosus.
ex: sulfonamide antibiotics
type 4 allergy
DELAYED hypersensitivity
mediated by T cells/WBC
antigen+ lymphokines=inflam rxn
ex poison ivy, antibiotics, benzocaine
idiosyncratic rxn
Unusual response to a drug, usually caused by genetic differences in metabolism or immunologic mechanisms.
how do drugs cross the membrane?
passive diffusion, facilitated diffusion, active transport, pinocytosis
passive diffusion?
down concentration gradient, most common
what determines a drugs ability to diffuse across the membrane?
more lipid soluable-crosses easier
non electrolytes-related to lipid sol
electrolytes-based on pH
facilitated diffusion
passes with concentration gradient, but it requires a transporter (i.e. carrier protein). still uses no E
Active transport
against concentration gradient and requires E
Pinocytosis
formation and movement of vesicles (packages) across membranes, requires energy
absorption
the rate at which a drug leaves its site of administration and the extent to which it occurs
bioavailability
extent (%) to which a drug reaches its site of action or a biological fluid that has access to that site
first pass effect
occures with oral drugs!
Drugs that are well absorbed from the G.I. tract and are metabolized in the liver, have decreased bioavailability in systemic circulation
what are factors that modify absorption?
drug solubility (solutions>suspensions>capsules>tablets), circulation at site, absorbing surface area, astric emptying time, intestinal motility,
food
what effect does food have on drug absorption?
can delay effects or reduce the drug absorption so usually suggest to take drugs on empty stomach (or with food if drug upsets stomach)
enteral routes of administration?
ie GI tract-
oral (PO)
sublingual (SL) good for high lipid
rectal (PR)- if oral not possible but abs is unpredicatble
parenteral route of administration
IV, IM, SQ or SC (subcutaneous)
topical route of drug administration?
cream, lotions, eye drops
"local"
transdermal route of drug administration?
absorbed through skin into systemic system
Oral administration
Safest Easiest, Cheapest. Absorption in first third of the small intestine. BUT some drugs can’t be absorbed
what are some negatives to oral administration?
too irritating,
destroyed by acids or enzymes in G.I. Tract
altered by food or chemicals.
IV parenteral administration
no absorption phase, accurate, immediate, irreversible, must be aqueous.
IM parenteral administration
onset is slower and duration is longer than IV, absorption is delayed and is related to vascularity
subcutaneous (SC/SQ) parenteral administration
onset is slower and duration is longer than IM because fat is less vascular than muscle
distribution
is the delivery of drug from circulation to tissues and its movement through compartments (BBB and placental)
what is a reservoir
drug protein binding sites
drugs must be xxxx to be active
free/unbound and then must bind to the right receptor
what is the BBB?
Blood-Brain Barrier- memebrane that separates the blood from the cerebro-spinal fluid and brain. more restrictive than any other membrane and the brain is highly lipophilic
because bbb is lipophilic CNS depressants xxx and antibiotics xxxx
depressants- concentrate in brain
antibiotics- dont pass into bbb
placental barrier
membrane separating the blood from the placenta- LESS restrictive than most
what does meningitis do to the BBB?
the inflammation to the meninges decreases the restrictiveness of the BBB so antibiotics can get in
what is the bodies natural response to drugs?
wants to convert any chemical into inactive/water soluble form for excretion. Most biotransformations occur in the liver
what is a prodrug?
needs to undergo a transformation in the body to be active
phase 1 of metabolism
Non-synthetic! oxidation reduction rxns, hydrolysis
cyt P450!
BREAKS DOWN COMPOUNDS
Phase II of metabolism
synthetic- conjugation (glucuronidation, sulfonation) to make more polar/water soluble and easier to excrete
all phases of metabolism are ______
enzymatic
where can metabolism occur?
LIVER, gi tract, lungs, skin, kidneys
CYP450
Main phase I enzyme system involved in the oxidative metabolism of drugs, chemicals and some endogenous substances
CYP3A4
predominant isoform: 50% of CYP-mediated metabolism
benzos/HIV drugs/Ca channel blckr
DONT drink FJ bc inhibits CYP3A4=toxicity
CYP2D6
second most common isoform: 30% of CYP-mediated metabolism,
psychotropics, codeine, beta-blockers
CYP2C9
third most common isoform: 10%
phenytoin, warfarin, NSAIDs
Pharmacogenomics
the general study of all of the many different genes that determine drug behavior
Pharmacogenetics
refers to the study of inherited differences (variation) in drug metabolism and response.
SNP on CYP2D6?
most studied* Affects metabolism of psychotropics, codeine, β-blockers and antiarrhythmics
7% white, 1-3% black
what effect does a SNP on CYP2D6 have on codeine metabolism?
codeine is a prodrug that must be activated first by CYP2D6 so if mutation then no activation=no efficacy on that person
what effect does a mutation on the CYP2C9 have?
affects phenytoin and warfarin metabolism so can't metabolize them and thus toxicity
phenytoin
anti-seizure drug
warfarin
anti-coagulant drug, if CYP2C9 mutation then increase risk of bleeding, easy bruising, gums bleeding
NARROW theraputic index
what is INR
international normalized ratio to monitor bleeding time-checks for blood levels and watch when pt on warfarin so that they don't blled out
Alcohol and aldehyde dehydrogenase in Asians is decreased →
increase in cancer in upper respiratory tract
G6PD deficiency in 14% African Americans →
RBC hemolysis with sulfa drugs
N-acetyltransferse → “slow acetylators” more common in middle east population
phase 2 metabolism
therefore increase risk of INH (isoniozine, TB drug) induced ADRs
can't metabplize drugs as efficiently
transport protein polymorphism?
p-glycoprotein normally promotes movement of drugs towards GI tract/kidney for excretion so mutation=decreased elimination and toxicity
routes of drug excretion?
kidney, feces, breast milk
How is excretion in the kidney controlled?
pH related!
more alkaline pee=more weak acid excreted
more acidic pee= more weak base excreted
clearance
rate at which drug is eliminated from the body
Steady state
when the rate of administration = clearance
how long does it take to reach steady state?
4-5 half lives
Half life
the amount of time it takes for the concentration of a drug to be reduced by half
what are some clinical applications of the half life?
determining dosing intervals
determining how long for a drug to reach its steady state
determining how long for a drug to be completely eliminated from the body
elimination half life
how long it takes a drug to leave the body once you stop taking it
synergism
combined effect of two drugs is greater than the sum
Potentiation
an inactive drug increases the effect of another
Induction
one drug increases the drug-metabolizing enzyme activity of another
Inhibition
metabolism or excretion of one drug is blocked by another
Unbinding
one drug displaces another from a protein binding site that its not supposed to be on. (More unbound drug = more activity)
elderly are _____ to anticholergic drug side effects such as______. why?
more susceptible to anticholenergic effects such as dry mouth/constipation bc produce less saliva and are prone to constipation already
creatinine
by product of muscle production, should eliminate 100%
elevated creatinine in serum=decrease in urine
what are normal creatinine levels?
0.6-1.2 serum creatinine
100-120 creatinine clearance
100 percent should be eliminated with urine
what does the creatinine levels give insight too?
the glomular filtration rate of the kidney- increased serum creatinine levels=kidney dysfunction
category A for teratogens
studied in women fail to show a risk, the SAFEST
category B for teratogens
something bad happened in animals but was not shown in women
category C for teratogens
something bad happened in animals, but no tests done in humans
category D for teratogens
there is evidence of fetal risk and only used in life threatening situations ex epilepsy meds
category X for teratogens
caused fetal abnormalities and benefits NEVER out weigh the risk to child
ex accutane
what are some drugs that require special attention in the elderly?
Analgesics Anticholinergics
Anticoagulants Antidepressants
Antidiabetics Antihpertensives
Antipsychotics
Beta blockers
Digoxin
H2 antagonists
Hypnotics/anxiolytics OTCs
Name 4 Teratogens
1) Amphetamines
2)Diethylstilbestrol
3)Ethanol
4)Thalidomide
amphetamine effect on fetus
- abn development/bad in school
Diethylstilbestrol effect on fetus
vaginal adenosis and vaginal adenocarcinoma
ethanol effects on fetus
fetal EtOH syndrom, nerudevel defects
thalidomide effects on fetus
phocomelia (abnormalities to the face, limbs, ears, nose, vessels and many other underdevelopments)
what drugs are contraindicated in neonates?
sulfonamides, antihistamines and ceftriaxone abx
cause kernicterus
what drugs are contraindicated in children?
aspirin (Ryes syndrome)
fluoroquinolones (ONLY for conjunctivitis, anthrax and cystic fibrosis)
tetracyclines-yellow teeth
Rye's syndrome
lowers blood sugar, fatty liver, encephalopathy
RASH*VOMITING*LIVER DAMAGE
kernicterus
excessive jaundice, can be caused by sulfonamides and ceftriaxone abx in neonates
fxn of ANS
Regulates activity of smooth muscle, exocrine glands, cardiac tissue and certain metabolic activities HOMEOSTASIS
involuntary
how many efferent neurons does the ANS have
2-postganlionic and preganglionic neurons
what is the primary NT of the sympathetic NS?
Norepinephrine
what is the primary NT of the parasympathetic NS?
Acetylcholine (ACH)
what are the general effects of the parasympathetic NS?
SLUDGE
salivation, lactation, urination, defication, gi and erection
(decrease HR and bronchioconstriction)
what are the general effects of the sympathetic system?
increase HR, bronchiodilation, mydriasis, opposite of para basically
EJACULATION
when is it okay to use aspirin in children younger than 15 years old?
Kawasakis and juvinile rheumatoid arthritis
when is it okay to use fluoroquinolones in children?
for bac. conjunctivitis, anthrax and cystic fibrosis
where are muscurinic receptors located?
both in parasymoathetic and and the sympathetic (sweat glands only) and the CNS
direct agonists....
Activate postsynaptic receptors
Indirect agonists
Stimulate release of NT
Inhibit reuptake of NT
Inhibit metabolism of NT
Direct antagonists
Block postsynaptic receptors
Indirect antagonists
Inhibit synthesis of NT
Prevent vesicular storage of NT
Inhibit release of NT
organophosphate poisoning
augmented cholinergic NT at central and peripheral synapses- produces extreme SLUDGE, siezures. respiratory depression, coma, parlysis
treatment for organophosphate poisoning?
use atropine (ACh inhibitor) and pralidoxime (regenerate ACh)
what are the CNS side effects of using muscarinic receptor antagonist?
sedation, confusion, altered mental status
ex if want to help stomach pain could get all that^
always use a ______ and NEVER use a ______ zero
always use a leading zero and never use a trailing zero!
GTT
drops
AS
left ear
AD
right ear
"auricle droit"
AC
before meals
what do you do if you make an error on a written Rx?
cross it out with ONE line and initial it
Schedule I (C-I)
very high potential for abuse - no current therapeutic use. heroin, hallucinogenic substances (LSD, mescaline, peyote)
Schedule II (C-II)
high potential for abuse with severe liability to cause psychic or physical dependence. Morphine, codeine, amphetamines, barbiturates, methylphenidate, oxycodone
what are CII on in NYS?
benzodiazepines (in NYS), anabolic steroids (in NYS),
Schedule III (C-III)
less potential for abuse than C-I or C-II. Vicodin, Tylenol with codeine tabs, some cough preparations
Schedule IV (C-IV)
still less abuse potential than I, II and III. phenobarbital, some cough preparations
Schedule V (C-V)
least potential for abuse - Lomotil
what are the two types of drugs that can only be orally prescribed in emergency situations?
CII and BDZs and Rx must then say authorization for Emergency Dispensing
what are the supply and refill limits for CII?
30 day supply and ZERO (O) refils
what is the supply and refill limits for CIII-CV
30 day supply with up to FIVE (5) refills
what does the diagnostic code A stand for?
pAnic disorder
diagnostic codes on Rx
for prescribing more than a 30-day supply of controlled substances
what does the diagnostic code B stand for?
ADD
what does the diagnostic code C stand for?
Chronic debilitating neurological conditions characterized as a movement disorder or exhibiting seizure, convulsive or spasm activity
what does the diagnostic code D stand for?
pain for patients with chronic/incurable Diseases
what does the diagnostic code E stand for?
Narcolepsy
E-asy to fall aslEEp
what does the diagnostic code F stand for?
Hormone deficiency states in males; gynecologic conditions that are responsive with anabolic steroids or chorionic gonadotropin; metastatic breast cancer in women; anemia and angioedema
what equation is used to measure Creatinine clearance?
Cockcroft-Gault equation
what are organophosphates?
irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors
nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents
Competitive antagonist of ACH at nicotinic muscle receptors (takes ACH place on receptor)
paralysis/relaxation
Atracurium, pancuronium, vecuronium
depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents
Causes “persistent” depolarization, constant stimulation-flacid paralysis
Succinylcholine