Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
175 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
acetaminophen
|
tylenol aka APAP
|
|
what act was passed in 1938?
|
the food drug and cosmetic act, modern history of us drug regulations, experimental requirements
|
|
purpose of a new drug application?
|
must be submitted to the FDA before marketing for approval
|
|
In what year was efficacy data required?
|
1962, must prove the efficacy along with safety of a drug
|
|
phase one of clinical testing
|
clinical pharmacology/establish safety of drug
|
|
phase 2 of clinical testing
|
clinical investigations-establish efficacy and what dose is needed
|
|
phase 3 of clinical testing
|
clinical trials! verify efficacy w/ more specific barriers, end points, detecting side effects and % compared to placebo
|
|
phase 4 of clinical testing
|
post marketing studies, only step that doesn't have to be completed before NDA; looking at other diseases drug could help with or notice additional adverse rxns
|
|
how long/how much does a drug take to be developed?
|
10-15 years, 400-800 million dollars
|
|
1 kg = ? lbs
|
2.2
|
|
1 ml = ? cc
|
1 mL = 1 cc
|
|
1 gram = ? mg
|
1 gram = 1000 mg
|
|
what is mylanta used for?
|
anti-acid
|
|
what drug rxn should you be aware of with mylanta?
|
mylanta has electrolytes that can bind to the antibiotic ciproflaxn and make it a different size compound (don't take min/vit with cipro either)
|
|
what does cc stand for?
|
cubic centemeter
|
|
30 cc = 30 mL = 30 g
|
all equal to one oz (ounce)
|
|
how many mL is one dram?
|
4 mL= 1 dram
dram=dr |
|
how many mg is one grain equal too?
|
60 mg= 1 grain
grain=gr |
|
how many oz is one pound?
|
16 oz= 1 pound
|
|
how many mL are in a teaspoon?
|
5 mL=1 tsp=5 cc
|
|
how many mL are in a table spoon?
|
15 mL= 1 tbsp
|
|
how many ounces are in a cup?
|
8 oz=1 cup=240 mL
|
|
pharmacodynamics
|
Biochemical & physiological effects of drugs and mechanisms of action study of how drug effects body
|
|
Pharmacokinetics
|
Study of how the body absorbs, distributes, metabolizes and excretes drugs
study of body's effect on drugs |
|
what is teratology?
|
How drugs taken during pregnancy can cause fetal morphology
|
|
what is an example of a category X drug for pregnancy?
|
Accutane (retinols) used for acne treatment
|
|
what is the TI of a drug?
|
therapeutic index/margin of safety
|
|
what is the therapeutic index ratio for humans?
|
TD1/ED1
minimum toxic dose/minimum therapeutic dose high # = safe:) |
|
what doe drug specificity mean?
|
the receptor must be able to recognize drug for it to work
|
|
what do drug receptor complexes do?
|
produce a biochemical or physiologic response
|
|
what are the general effects of drug binding?
|
Release of NT, hormone or endogenous chemicals
Change electrical potential or membrane permeability Cause cascade effect |
|
what is an agonist?
|
Drug that combines with a receptor and activates that receptor
*same response as endogenous chemical or stimulates release of endogenous chemical |
|
epinephrine
|
adrenergic agonist
give to pts to increase HR/BP |
|
antagonist
|
Drug that combines with a receptor used by an endogenous chemical and blocks or diminishes the response of the endogenous agent or blocks release of NT or inhibits signaling of released NT.
|
|
atropine
|
cholinergic antagonist
|
|
what is a partial agonist?
|
has affinity but low efficacy
binds but elicits less response and blocks receptor for more effective drug |
|
butorphenol (stadol) u and K activity
|
bind to opioid receptors for pain relief but not as well as morphine would-less addictive and no high
|
|
competitive antagonism
|
agonist and antagonist compete for the same receptor site.
|
|
Non-competitive antagonism
|
agonist and antagonist bind at different sites on the same receptor
ex- binds and changes receptor configuration so agonist can't bind |
|
what is efficacy?
|
The magnitude of the maximum effect (predefined)
|
|
what is potency?
|
If the dose of drug A is less than drug B to achieve the same response – Drug A is more potent. (1mg vs. 100mg)
|
|
what is tolerance?
|
Reduced response to the same dose or increased dose needed for the same response
happens with narcotics/nitroglycerin/pain relievers |
|
what causes tolerance?
|
•Change in receptor sensitivity
•Change in pharmacokinetics of drug doesn't occur with all drugs |
|
dependence
|
ADDICTION need for drug
can be psychological or physiological |
|
allergy
ABCD |
hypersensitivity!
adverse immune reaction that results from a previous exposure to a particular chemical or one that is structurally similar. |
|
type 1 allergy
|
Anaphylactic rxns, histamine released, IgE response
urticaria, rash, vasodilation, hypotension, edema, inflammaion, rhinitis, asthma, tachycardia |
|
type 2 allergy
|
B for BLOOD CELLS-ANEMIA
cytolytic rxns w/ IgG and IgM, effect cells and circ sys=hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, granulocytopenia |
|
examples of type 2 allergies?
|
quinidine, Methyldopa
These autoimmune reactions to drugs usually subside within several months after drug discontinuation |
|
type 3 allergy
|
C is for Complexes/rash-
IgG mediated, immune complexes are deposited in the vascular endothelium=serum sickness occurs |
|
symptoms of type 3 allergy
|
erythema multiforme, arthritis, nephritis, CNS abnormalities, myocarditis and systemic lupus erythematosus.
ex: sulfonamide antibiotics |
|
type 4 allergy
|
DELAYED hypersensitivity
mediated by T cells/WBC antigen+ lymphokines=inflam rxn ex poison ivy, antibiotics, benzocaine |
|
idiosyncratic rxn
|
Unusual response to a drug, usually caused by genetic differences in metabolism or immunologic mechanisms.
|
|
how do drugs cross the membrane?
|
passive diffusion, facilitated diffusion, active transport, pinocytosis
|
|
passive diffusion?
|
down concentration gradient, most common
|
|
what determines a drugs ability to diffuse across the membrane?
|
more lipid soluable-crosses easier
non electrolytes-related to lipid sol electrolytes-based on pH |
|
facilitated diffusion
|
passes with concentration gradient, but it requires a transporter (i.e. carrier protein). still uses no E
|
|
Active transport
|
against concentration gradient and requires E
|
|
Pinocytosis
|
formation and movement of vesicles (packages) across membranes, requires energy
|
|
absorption
|
the rate at which a drug leaves its site of administration and the extent to which it occurs
|
|
bioavailability
|
extent (%) to which a drug reaches its site of action or a biological fluid that has access to that site
|
|
first pass effect
|
occures with oral drugs!
Drugs that are well absorbed from the G.I. tract and are metabolized in the liver, have decreased bioavailability in systemic circulation |
|
what are factors that modify absorption?
|
drug solubility (solutions>suspensions>capsules>tablets), circulation at site, absorbing surface area, astric emptying time, intestinal motility,
food |
|
what effect does food have on drug absorption?
|
can delay effects or reduce the drug absorption so usually suggest to take drugs on empty stomach (or with food if drug upsets stomach)
|
|
enteral routes of administration?
|
ie GI tract-
oral (PO) sublingual (SL) good for high lipid rectal (PR)- if oral not possible but abs is unpredicatble |
|
parenteral route of administration
|
IV, IM, SQ or SC (subcutaneous)
|
|
topical route of drug administration?
|
cream, lotions, eye drops
"local" |
|
transdermal route of drug administration?
|
absorbed through skin into systemic system
|
|
Oral administration
|
Safest Easiest, Cheapest. Absorption in first third of the small intestine. BUT some drugs can’t be absorbed
|
|
what are some negatives to oral administration?
|
too irritating,
destroyed by acids or enzymes in G.I. Tract altered by food or chemicals. |
|
IV parenteral administration
|
no absorption phase, accurate, immediate, irreversible, must be aqueous.
|
|
IM parenteral administration
|
onset is slower and duration is longer than IV, absorption is delayed and is related to vascularity
|
|
subcutaneous (SC/SQ) parenteral administration
|
onset is slower and duration is longer than IM because fat is less vascular than muscle
|
|
distribution
|
is the delivery of drug from circulation to tissues and its movement through compartments (BBB and placental)
|
|
what is a reservoir
|
drug protein binding sites
|
|
drugs must be xxxx to be active
|
free/unbound and then must bind to the right receptor
|
|
what is the BBB?
|
Blood-Brain Barrier- memebrane that separates the blood from the cerebro-spinal fluid and brain. more restrictive than any other membrane and the brain is highly lipophilic
|
|
because bbb is lipophilic CNS depressants xxx and antibiotics xxxx
|
depressants- concentrate in brain
antibiotics- dont pass into bbb |
|
placental barrier
|
membrane separating the blood from the placenta- LESS restrictive than most
|
|
what does meningitis do to the BBB?
|
the inflammation to the meninges decreases the restrictiveness of the BBB so antibiotics can get in
|
|
what is the bodies natural response to drugs?
|
wants to convert any chemical into inactive/water soluble form for excretion. Most biotransformations occur in the liver
|
|
what is a prodrug?
|
needs to undergo a transformation in the body to be active
|
|
phase 1 of metabolism
|
Non-synthetic! oxidation reduction rxns, hydrolysis
cyt P450! BREAKS DOWN COMPOUNDS |
|
Phase II of metabolism
|
synthetic- conjugation (glucuronidation, sulfonation) to make more polar/water soluble and easier to excrete
|
|
all phases of metabolism are ______
|
enzymatic
|
|
where can metabolism occur?
|
LIVER, gi tract, lungs, skin, kidneys
|
|
CYP450
|
Main phase I enzyme system involved in the oxidative metabolism of drugs, chemicals and some endogenous substances
|
|
CYP3A4
|
predominant isoform: 50% of CYP-mediated metabolism
benzos/HIV drugs/Ca channel blckr DONT drink FJ bc inhibits CYP3A4=toxicity |
|
CYP2D6
|
second most common isoform: 30% of CYP-mediated metabolism,
psychotropics, codeine, beta-blockers |
|
CYP2C9
|
third most common isoform: 10%
phenytoin, warfarin, NSAIDs |
|
Pharmacogenomics
|
the general study of all of the many different genes that determine drug behavior
|
|
Pharmacogenetics
|
refers to the study of inherited differences (variation) in drug metabolism and response.
|
|
SNP on CYP2D6?
|
most studied* Affects metabolism of psychotropics, codeine, β-blockers and antiarrhythmics
7% white, 1-3% black |
|
what effect does a SNP on CYP2D6 have on codeine metabolism?
|
codeine is a prodrug that must be activated first by CYP2D6 so if mutation then no activation=no efficacy on that person
|
|
what effect does a mutation on the CYP2C9 have?
|
affects phenytoin and warfarin metabolism so can't metabolize them and thus toxicity
|
|
phenytoin
|
anti-seizure drug
|
|
warfarin
|
anti-coagulant drug, if CYP2C9 mutation then increase risk of bleeding, easy bruising, gums bleeding
NARROW theraputic index |
|
what is INR
|
international normalized ratio to monitor bleeding time-checks for blood levels and watch when pt on warfarin so that they don't blled out
|
|
Alcohol and aldehyde dehydrogenase in Asians is decreased →
|
increase in cancer in upper respiratory tract
|
|
G6PD deficiency in 14% African Americans →
|
RBC hemolysis with sulfa drugs
|
|
N-acetyltransferse → “slow acetylators” more common in middle east population
phase 2 metabolism |
therefore increase risk of INH (isoniozine, TB drug) induced ADRs
can't metabplize drugs as efficiently |
|
transport protein polymorphism?
|
p-glycoprotein normally promotes movement of drugs towards GI tract/kidney for excretion so mutation=decreased elimination and toxicity
|
|
routes of drug excretion?
|
kidney, feces, breast milk
|
|
How is excretion in the kidney controlled?
|
pH related!
more alkaline pee=more weak acid excreted more acidic pee= more weak base excreted |
|
clearance
|
rate at which drug is eliminated from the body
|
|
Steady state
|
when the rate of administration = clearance
|
|
how long does it take to reach steady state?
|
4-5 half lives
|
|
Half life
|
the amount of time it takes for the concentration of a drug to be reduced by half
|
|
what are some clinical applications of the half life?
|
determining dosing intervals
determining how long for a drug to reach its steady state determining how long for a drug to be completely eliminated from the body |
|
elimination half life
|
how long it takes a drug to leave the body once you stop taking it
|
|
synergism
|
combined effect of two drugs is greater than the sum
|
|
Potentiation
|
an inactive drug increases the effect of another
|
|
Induction
|
one drug increases the drug-metabolizing enzyme activity of another
|
|
Inhibition
|
metabolism or excretion of one drug is blocked by another
|
|
Unbinding
|
one drug displaces another from a protein binding site that its not supposed to be on. (More unbound drug = more activity)
|
|
elderly are _____ to anticholergic drug side effects such as______. why?
|
more susceptible to anticholenergic effects such as dry mouth/constipation bc produce less saliva and are prone to constipation already
|
|
creatinine
|
by product of muscle production, should eliminate 100%
elevated creatinine in serum=decrease in urine |
|
what are normal creatinine levels?
|
0.6-1.2 serum creatinine
100-120 creatinine clearance 100 percent should be eliminated with urine |
|
what does the creatinine levels give insight too?
|
the glomular filtration rate of the kidney- increased serum creatinine levels=kidney dysfunction
|
|
category A for teratogens
|
studied in women fail to show a risk, the SAFEST
|
|
category B for teratogens
|
something bad happened in animals but was not shown in women
|
|
category C for teratogens
|
something bad happened in animals, but no tests done in humans
|
|
category D for teratogens
|
there is evidence of fetal risk and only used in life threatening situations ex epilepsy meds
|
|
category X for teratogens
|
caused fetal abnormalities and benefits NEVER out weigh the risk to child
ex accutane |
|
what are some drugs that require special attention in the elderly?
|
Analgesics Anticholinergics
Anticoagulants Antidepressants Antidiabetics Antihpertensives Antipsychotics Beta blockers Digoxin H2 antagonists Hypnotics/anxiolytics OTCs |
|
Name 4 Teratogens
|
1) Amphetamines
2)Diethylstilbestrol 3)Ethanol 4)Thalidomide |
|
amphetamine effect on fetus
|
- abn development/bad in school
|
|
Diethylstilbestrol effect on fetus
|
vaginal adenosis and vaginal adenocarcinoma
|
|
ethanol effects on fetus
|
fetal EtOH syndrom, nerudevel defects
|
|
thalidomide effects on fetus
|
phocomelia (abnormalities to the face, limbs, ears, nose, vessels and many other underdevelopments)
|
|
what drugs are contraindicated in neonates?
|
sulfonamides, antihistamines and ceftriaxone abx
cause kernicterus |
|
what drugs are contraindicated in children?
|
aspirin (Ryes syndrome)
fluoroquinolones (ONLY for conjunctivitis, anthrax and cystic fibrosis) tetracyclines-yellow teeth |
|
Rye's syndrome
|
lowers blood sugar, fatty liver, encephalopathy
RASH*VOMITING*LIVER DAMAGE |
|
kernicterus
|
excessive jaundice, can be caused by sulfonamides and ceftriaxone abx in neonates
|
|
fxn of ANS
|
Regulates activity of smooth muscle, exocrine glands, cardiac tissue and certain metabolic activities HOMEOSTASIS
involuntary |
|
how many efferent neurons does the ANS have
|
2-postganlionic and preganglionic neurons
|
|
what is the primary NT of the sympathetic NS?
|
Norepinephrine
|
|
what is the primary NT of the parasympathetic NS?
|
Acetylcholine (ACH)
|
|
what are the general effects of the parasympathetic NS?
|
SLUDGE
salivation, lactation, urination, defication, gi and erection (decrease HR and bronchioconstriction) |
|
what are the general effects of the sympathetic system?
|
increase HR, bronchiodilation, mydriasis, opposite of para basically
EJACULATION |
|
when is it okay to use aspirin in children younger than 15 years old?
|
Kawasakis and juvinile rheumatoid arthritis
|
|
when is it okay to use fluoroquinolones in children?
|
for bac. conjunctivitis, anthrax and cystic fibrosis
|
|
where are muscurinic receptors located?
|
both in parasymoathetic and and the sympathetic (sweat glands only) and the CNS
|
|
direct agonists....
|
Activate postsynaptic receptors
|
|
Indirect agonists
|
Stimulate release of NT
Inhibit reuptake of NT Inhibit metabolism of NT |
|
Direct antagonists
|
Block postsynaptic receptors
|
|
Indirect antagonists
|
Inhibit synthesis of NT
Prevent vesicular storage of NT Inhibit release of NT |
|
organophosphate poisoning
|
augmented cholinergic NT at central and peripheral synapses- produces extreme SLUDGE, siezures. respiratory depression, coma, parlysis
|
|
treatment for organophosphate poisoning?
|
use atropine (ACh inhibitor) and pralidoxime (regenerate ACh)
|
|
what are the CNS side effects of using muscarinic receptor antagonist?
|
sedation, confusion, altered mental status
ex if want to help stomach pain could get all that^ |
|
always use a ______ and NEVER use a ______ zero
|
always use a leading zero and never use a trailing zero!
|
|
GTT
|
drops
|
|
AS
|
left ear
|
|
AD
|
right ear
"auricle droit" |
|
AC
|
before meals
|
|
what do you do if you make an error on a written Rx?
|
cross it out with ONE line and initial it
|
|
Schedule I (C-I)
|
very high potential for abuse - no current therapeutic use. heroin, hallucinogenic substances (LSD, mescaline, peyote)
|
|
Schedule II (C-II)
|
high potential for abuse with severe liability to cause psychic or physical dependence. Morphine, codeine, amphetamines, barbiturates, methylphenidate, oxycodone
|
|
what are CII on in NYS?
|
benzodiazepines (in NYS), anabolic steroids (in NYS),
|
|
Schedule III (C-III)
|
less potential for abuse than C-I or C-II. Vicodin, Tylenol with codeine tabs, some cough preparations
|
|
Schedule IV (C-IV)
|
still less abuse potential than I, II and III. phenobarbital, some cough preparations
|
|
Schedule V (C-V)
|
least potential for abuse - Lomotil
|
|
what are the two types of drugs that can only be orally prescribed in emergency situations?
|
CII and BDZs and Rx must then say authorization for Emergency Dispensing
|
|
what are the supply and refill limits for CII?
|
30 day supply and ZERO (O) refils
|
|
what is the supply and refill limits for CIII-CV
|
30 day supply with up to FIVE (5) refills
|
|
what does the diagnostic code A stand for?
|
pAnic disorder
|
|
diagnostic codes on Rx
|
for prescribing more than a 30-day supply of controlled substances
|
|
what does the diagnostic code B stand for?
|
ADD
|
|
what does the diagnostic code C stand for?
|
Chronic debilitating neurological conditions characterized as a movement disorder or exhibiting seizure, convulsive or spasm activity
|
|
what does the diagnostic code D stand for?
|
pain for patients with chronic/incurable Diseases
|
|
what does the diagnostic code E stand for?
|
Narcolepsy
E-asy to fall aslEEp |
|
what does the diagnostic code F stand for?
|
Hormone deficiency states in males; gynecologic conditions that are responsive with anabolic steroids or chorionic gonadotropin; metastatic breast cancer in women; anemia and angioedema
|
|
what equation is used to measure Creatinine clearance?
|
Cockcroft-Gault equation
|
|
what are organophosphates?
|
irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors
|
|
nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents
|
Competitive antagonist of ACH at nicotinic muscle receptors (takes ACH place on receptor)
paralysis/relaxation Atracurium, pancuronium, vecuronium |
|
depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents
|
Causes “persistent” depolarization, constant stimulation-flacid paralysis
Succinylcholine |