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92 Cards in this Set

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  • Back

MI & Angina treatments:

Nitrates, Beta blockers, Ca++ channel blockers work by ___________

Decrease workload/ O2 demand

Three families of anti-anginal agents

Organic nitrates


Beta-blockers


Calcium channel blockers

Three types of Angina Pectoris

Chronic Stable Angina (exertional)


Variant angina (Prinzmetal's)


Unstable angina

Fast acting Nitro
Slow release Nitro

MOA of Nitrates

Fast: Nitrostat Slow: Isordil




Bind vascular SM receptor >
changes to nitric oxide by sulfhydral groups > activates enzyme making cGMP >
high cGMP dephos. myosin >
myosin can't bind to actin >
VSM relaxes and dilates

Six adverse effects of nitrates

1. Hypotension (worse with alcohol)


2. Orthostatic hypotension


3. Headache/flushing


4. Dizzy


5. Dilates bronchial/uterine/urethral/GI SM


6. Reflex tachycardia

Six routes of admin. for Nitrates

1. IV


2. Oral sustained-release (isosorbide dinitrate)


3. Sublingual


4. Topical


5. Transdermal delivery system


6. Translingual spray

3 important teachings for Nitrates

1. don't expose it to air, heat, or moisture


2. check expiry, it becomes inactive over time


3. don't give with other hypotensive drugs

5 adverse effects of Beta Blockers for Angina

1. Asthmatic effects


2. Bradycardia


3. Caution with diabetes


4. Decreased AV conduction


5. Reduced contractility

Three Calcium channel blockers used for Angina

1. Diltiazem


2. Verapamil


3. Nifedipine

3 adverse effects of Calcium Channel Blockers for Angina

1. Hypotension


2. Reflex Tachycardia


3. Bradycardia

4 phases of a clot

1. Platelet aggregation


2. Platelet-fibrin plug


3. Clot retraction


4. Fibrinolysis

Clot life cycle:




7 Steps of platelet aggregation

1. platelet adhesion to site of injury


2. platelet activates and releases serotonin


3. serotonin causes vasospasm


4. cyclooxygenase changes to thromboxane A2


5. TXA2 binds other platelets + ADP


6. platelets change shape, bind glycoprotein IIa/IIIb receptors


7. glycoprotein IIa/IIIb bind with fibrinogen and platelets aggregate



Clot life cycle:




4 Steps of Platelet-fibrin plug formation

1. Activated platelets & damaged tissue stimulate coagulation cascade


2. Fibrin is incorporated into the plug


3. traps platelets/RBCs to plug damage


4. lays mesh for new epithelial cells

Clot life cycle:




Steps of Clot Retraction & Fibrinolysis

1. Platelet proteins contract pulling clot tight


2. ruptured edges together, endothelial cells multiply and damage is repaired




3. fibrinolysis pathway activated during plug formation by plasminogen activators in endothelial cells


4. plasminogen activator turns plasminogen into plasmin


5. plasmin degrades fibrin

MOA of IV Heparin - High Doses

Activates antithrombin III




Suppresses fibrin formation and limits extension of thrombi

Why is Heparin normally given as IV or s/c?

(High dose both, low dose only s/c)

It's not absorbed well from the GI

When dosing Heparin you should measure aPTT every _________ hours until therapeutic and stable, then daily.

Aim for an aPTT that is ________ x the normal.

4-6




1.5-2

3 adverse effects of IV heparin: high doses

and its antidote

1. Hemorrhage (10%)


2. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia




Protamine sulfate

MOA of s/c Heparin: Low Doses

Binds to endothelium, causing local anti-thrombin III activity (no change in aPTT)




Binds to platelets and decreases activation

What are the two low-molecular weight heparins

What are their three advantages

Lovenox/ Enoxaparin




1. no aPTT monitoring, can use fixed dose schedule, so good for home therapy


2. less incidence of thrombocytopenia


3. costs more but less lab tests and hospital stay

MOA of Warfarin (Coumadin)




Therapeutic uses?

Competes with Vitamin K at the same sites in the liver to inhibit production of clotting factors. Interferes with synthesis of factors VII, IX, X, prothrombin that require Vit K.




MI, Atrial Fib., Heart valve disease/replacement, pulmonary embolism, venous thrombosis, systemic embolism

Warfarin (Coumadin):

Onset:
Depletion of factors occurs:
Goal for INR:


Antidote:

1-3 days


5-7 days


2-3


IM vitamin K

3 Antiplatelet drugs:




1. Cyclooxygenase inhibitor


2. ADP receptor antagonist


3. ADP receptor antagonist

1. Aspirin (ASA)


2. Ticlopidine (Ticlid)


3. Clopidogrel (Plavix)

MOA of ASA - antiplatelet drug




Keep below ______ mg/day

irreversibly blocks COX 1 (&2) so TXA2 can't be synthesized.

TXA2 promotes platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction.




325 mg/day

MOA of Clopidrogel (Plavix) - antiplatelet drug




________ mg/day; route ____


effects in _____ hours


Platelet function & bleeding time return to baseline in _________ days after last dose

irreversibly inhibits ADP-mediated platelet aggregation




75,


PO,


2,


7-10



Prototypical Statin used for LDL lowering:




MOA

Lovastatin (Mevacor)




inhibits HMG CoA reductase, which is needed to make LDL.




increases LDL receptors in the liver, so less LDL in circulation.

Cholesterol synthesis occurs primarily in the _________ so you should give statins in the _________. Route ________.

Night


eventing


PO

When starting a patient on Lovastatin (Mevacor), they are at slight risk for hepatotoxicity. Therefore you must check their liver function every _________ weeks for ______ months, then check every ___________ weeks.

4-6


3


6-8

Chemicals against invading organisms:




Produced by one mincroorganism that harms other microbes:




Any agent, natural or synthetic, that has ability to kill or suppress microorganisms:

Chemotherapy




Antibiotic




Antimicrobial Agent

__________ agents kill microbes




__________ agents slow down their growth enough that WBCs and immune system can overcome the invaders

Bactericidal




Bacteriostatis

4 Ways microbial resistance occurs:


1. increase production of metabolizing enzymes


2. cease active uptake of certain drugs


3. change drug receptors decreasing binding


4. synthesize compounds that antagonize drug action

Explain how selection pressure favours growth of newly resistant microbes.

Microbes compete for nutrients to survive. Killing off the non-resistant microbes frees up the nutrients for the resistant microbes.

Preferred drug for Staph. Aureus: resists methicillin (MRSA)

Vancomycin

Preferred drug for Streptococcus Pneumoniae - Resists Pen G

Cefotaxime

What three factors may rule out a drug of first choice?

1. allergy

2. inability of drug to penetrate site of infection


3. unusual susceptibility to toxicity


- pregnancy/ age/ site of infection/ host


defences




What are the three appropriate indications for prophylactic antibiotic use?

1. surgery


2. bacterial endocarditis


3. neutropenia (recurrent UTIs in young women)



An infection that appears during the course of treatment for a primary infection.

suprainfection

These broad spectrum drugs are the first drugs available for systemic tx. of bacterial infections. Primary use is UTIs.

Sulfonamides

MOA of sulfonamides for bacterial infection

Bacteriostatics. Inhibits synthesis of folic acid - needed for DNA/RNA/Protein synthesis.




Microbes only synthesize Folic Acid using PABA. Thus f's with PABA so you don't get Folic Acid.

4 adverse effects of sulfonamides

1. hypersensitivity rxns


2. kernicterus-bilirubin toxic to brain


3. renal damage - crystallization


4. hematologic effects

Sulfonamides can cause inhibition of hepatic metabolism of what three drugs?

Warfarin


Dilantin


Oral hypoglycemics

Two classes of sulfonamides:




Routes for each. Which one is safer? Water solubility?

Short acting: PO, IM, IV, or s/c, high




Intermediate acting: PO only, low

This broad-spectrum anti-microbial agent is used to treat respiratory, urinary, GI tract, bone, joint, and soft tissue infections.




It has mild side effects, and resistance is slow to develop.

Fluoroquinolones

Prototypical Fluoroquinolone and its MOA

Ciprofloxacin




inhibits bacterial DNA gyrase, needed to supercoil circular DNA. Without that, it can't replicate and the bacteria fkin dies babay.

Cipro route, dose, and half life

oral or IV


250 - 500 mg BID


4 hours

Cipro adverse effects for




GI: 3


CNS: 4


Elderly: 3


Candida infections of: 2

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea


dizzy, confused, headache, restless


confusion, psychosis, visual disturbances


vagina and pharynx

Cipro increases the plasma levels of what 2 drugs?

________ compounds reduce the absorption of cipro.

theophylline and warfarin




cationic

MOA of Metronidazole (Flagyl)

taken up, converted into active form in anaerobes.




Causes DNA strang breaks, loss of helical structure = can't make nucleic acids = death

Two side effects of Flagyl

metallic taste in mouth


dizzy

Used for protozoal infections and those caused by anaerobic bacteria mostly in GI or deep tissue.




Route is IV initially.

Flagyl

When given with tetracyclin, this bactericidal drug eradicates h.pylori for people with PUD

flagyl

3 categories of anti-virals

1. Purine nucleoside analogs


2. Hep B and C


3. Influenza

This anti-viral is used for the herpes virus family!


(Herpes, varcilla-zooster, cytomegalovirus)

Its route is:


In immunocompromised pts its given:

Acyclovir




topical, PO, IV




IV

MOA of Acyclovir for virus'

suppresses synthesis of viral DNA


decreases symptoms

Adverse effects of acyclovir:




GI: 3


CNS: 3


Topical: 2


IV: 1




How to reduce nephrotoxicity

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea


dizzy, headache, vertigo


burning, stinging


phlebitis




infuse IV slowly over 1 hour, hydrate well during and for 2 hrs after

Flu vaccine begins to protect ________ weeks after admin and lasts for _______ months. Only ____ in elderly.




Targets ____ strains.

1-2


6


4




3

Who should get vaccinated for the flu?





Age 6-23 mo.


6mo. and older - LT health problems or weakened immune system




>50 yo




Nursing home residents, HCPs, living in dormitories

Amantadines MOA against the flu




What's used for Influenza B? MOA?

Fights Influenza A by preventing its penetration of host cells, and inhibits viral uncoating.




Tamiflu targets both. Inhibits neuraminidase, viral enzyme needed for rep.

MOA of Pen G

inhibits transpeptidases >


no cross-linkage occurs of peptigoglycan chains>


Bacterial autolysins also activated>


together they disrupt cell wall synthesis.


promotes cell wall destruction>


Cell lysis = bactericidal

Is penicillin more effective against Gram neg or positive bacteria?

Why?

Gram positive.




Penicillin can't penetrate the cell envalope of Gram negative bacteria.



What is the main part of penicillins that is destroyed in resistant bacteria?

The beta-lactam ring by beta-lactamase/penicillinases

1. Narrow spectrum: penicillinase sensitive


2. Narrow spectrum: penicillinase resistant


3. Broad spectrum (3)


4. Extended spectrum (2)

1. Pen G


2. Cloxacillin


3. Ampicillin, Amoxicillin, Bacampicillin


4. Ticarcillin, Pipercillan

1. How is Pen G given? Why?


2. half life?


3. Adverse effects? What % of pts.

1. IM, IV only; destroyed by stomach acid


2. 30 minutes


3. Allergy in 1-10%

Three types of Pen allergy and their time?




What other drug type should you avoid?

1. Immediate 2-30 min


2. Accelerated 1-72 hours


3. Late days to weeks




Cyclosporins

What makes Pen V different from Pen G?

Can be taken with food.


Stable in stomach acid, can be given PO.


Food reduces chemical irritation to the gut.

1. What is the primary target for extended-spectrum penicillins?




2. Prototype?




3. Route?

4. Combined with?

1. pseudomonas aeruginosa (antipseudomonal)


2. Piperacillin


3. IV or IM


4. Gentamicin

MOA of cephalosporins?

Binds to penicillin-binding proteins>


Disrupts cell wall synthesis/activates autolysins>


Cell wall destroyed & cell dies from lysis

What is the difference in antimicrobial use of Cephalosporins from 1st gen to 4th gen?



Increased:

1. activity against Gram - germs



2. resistance to destruction by beta-lactamases


3. ability to reach





Cephalosporins:




Interactions?


Adverse effects?


Route?

1. if taken with alcohol = vomiting and GI distress


2. Allergy, bleeding, throbophlebitis at IV site


3. IM, IV, soooome PO

Indication and MOA of Vancomycin

Indication = antibiotic-related pseudomembranous colitis (C.diff), MRSA, srs infections if pts are alergic to penicillins




binds to precursor molecules for cell wall >


inhibits cell wall synthesis >


Weakened cell wall = lysis = bacteriocidal


***Doesn't interact with PBPs

Vancomycin route:


Rate and dilution:


Adverse effects: (3)

IV


1 hr, in 250 mL


Ototoxicity, thrombophlebitis at IV site, allergy (allergy is rare)

MOA of Aminoglycosides:

binds to 30S ribosomal subunit of bacteria >


blocks init. of protein synth/term. protein synth>


causes misreading of genetic code>


synthesis of faulty proteins (bactericidal)

3 Aminoglycosides

1. Gentamicin


2. Amikacin


3. Tobramycin

Indications for Aminoglycosides.




Narrow or broad spectrum?




What can't it be used on?

Serious infections due to aerobic Gram Neg.




Narrow spectrum




Can't be used on anaerobes because it uses O2 to cross the cell wall.

Aminoglycosides:




Route:



Parenterally or topically - not absorbed in GI tract







Aminoglycosides:




Loading dose:


Maintenance dose:




Why use either

1. 15 mg q24h - quicker therapeutic effect, quicker to reach plateau levels.




2. 5 mg q8h - to keep blood levels in therapeutic range

Aminoglycosides: Gentamicin




When should serum blood levels be taken?

IM:


IV:

- 30 minutes after IM injection


OR


- right after a 30 minute IV infusion

______________: the highest blood level achieved from a dose - should be in the therapeutic range

Peak levels

____________: lowest blood level achieved before giving the next dose.

With Gentamicin:


Important to achieve washout of ______ and _________ to avoid ___________ and _______________.

Trough


Kidneys


Hair of the cochlea


Nephrotoxicity


Ototoxicity

Aminoglycosides: Gentamicin




Checking for proper trough levels, what time do you draw blood?

q24h loading dose:


q8h maintenance dose:



prior to next dose


once at 2 hr, once at 12 hr post infusion

Aminoglycosides: Gentamicin




Isn't metabolized, putting pt at risk of nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity, SO why give over tobramycin or amikacin?

Cheaper. Moulah babay.

MOA of Beta-2 Adrenergic Agonists for Asthma

selectively activates Beta-2 receptors >


Acts on smooth muscle of lungs>


Bronchodilation/ H1 release suppression>


Increased ciliary action/motility




**Opposite effect on vascular smooth muscle

Beta-2 Adrenergic Agonists for Asthma


Short acting prototype:


Onset:


Peak:


Duration:


Route & Dose:

Ventolin


O: 5-15 min


P: 30-60 min


D: 3-5 hr


R&D: 2 puffs q4-6hr PRN

Beta-2 Adrenergic Agonists for Asthma


Inhaled Long acting prototype:


Dose:

Salmeterol (serevent)


2 puffs q12hr

Beta-2 Adrenergic Agonists for Asthma


Oral Long acting prototype:


Dose:

Terbutaline (Brethine)


5 mg PO TID

Five common side effects of beta-2 agonists

1. Tachycardia


2. High FOC


3. Vasoconstriction


4. Angina


5. Tremors/Diaphoresis/Agitation

Methylxanthines for asthma:




Prototype:


Indication:


Route:


Effects (3)

Theophylline (Theodur)


chronic asthma


Orally


1. CNS excitation (vasoconstriction)


2. Bronchodilation


3. Diuresis

What makes Theophylline so dangerous compared to other asthma drugs?

1. narrow TP range


2. Many interactions (caffeine, cigarettes) (drugs like antibiotics & anticonvulsants, it increases their effectiveness)

Theophylline normal blood levels:


mild effect blood levels:


adverse effects blood levels:

<20 mcg

20-25 mcg


>30 mcg


Theophylline


mild effects:


adverse effects:

N&V


Diarrhea


Insomnia


Restlessness




severe dysrhythmias (Vent. Fib)


convulsions


death

MOA of glucocorticoids

bind & stabilize mast cells >


block phospholipase A activity>


decrease synthesis & release of H1, Lt's>


decreased infiltration & activity of eosinophils>


decreased infiltration & activity of leukocytes>


decreased edema in airway mucosa>


suppressed inflammation

Two examples of glucocorticoids




Routes:


Ling term adverse effects:

Flovent, Pulmicort




PO, IV


Infection (less defensive response), fluid & electrolytes (Na H2O retention, K+ loss), Hyperglycemia (phuks wit glucose production) slows children's growth




****only give to children when all else fails