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311 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Drug metabolism results in (A&B)
An oxidized compound/    A more water soluble compound
TRUE of plasma protein binding drugs
Albumin is most prevalent plasma protein for drug binding
Mechanisms for passage of most drugs through biological membranes
Simple diffusion (high to low conc.)
Components of drug oxidizing electron transport system EXCEPT
Glucuronic acid
Route of drug admin. With fastest onset
IV
Of routes listed below, slowest onset time of action
Swallowing
P-450 drug metabolizing enzyme complex is
Found in smooth ER or hepatic cell
Which of following plasma proteins has greatest ability to bind drugs
Albumin
Urinary elimination of drugs controlled by
ALL of above (Glom filtration/ tubular reabsorption/ active transport)
Avg onset time for drug after S.C. admin
15mins
Most important enzyme systems for biotransformation of drugs found mostly in
Liver
Physicochemical properties of drugs that influence their passage across cell membranes
ALL of above (lipid solubility/ degree ionization/ molecular size-shape)
Which route of drug admin most known for FIRST PASS metabolism
Oral
TRUE statement which describes drug efficacy
Degree of max intensity of drug effect
Best describe drug potency
Best describe drug potency
Best describes notation CYP1A2
Indicates subfamily of P-450 enzymes
Antacids can interfere w/ absorption of which?
Doxycycline (low dose = periostat)
Valium not give simultaneously with
Alcohol
Pt. is taking phenobarb; you prescribe pain meds metabolized by P-450. Compared to pt. not taking phenobarb, you would expect
DECR in drug duration of action
Pt. taking sedating antihistamine for allergy. Which drug could you use in tx plan?
Articaine (Septocaine)
Theophylline pt requires abx therapy. Which could be safely used
Amoxicillin
Your pt. requiring doxycycline (periostat) therapy takes Tums as calcium source. Which is true
ALL TRUE (possible interaction/ INCR chance therapy failure of periostat/ OJ with fortified calcium could be used instead
Which of agents below inhibits enzyme cyclo-oxygenase
Flubiprofen (ansaid) / ibuprofen (Motrin)
Which of NSAIDs below used to tx. Arthritis also used to tx. Dental pain
Ibuprofen
Which of NSAIDs is selective COX-2 inhibitor
Celecoxib (Celebrex)
Which of NSAIDs below is also avail in combo w/ hydrocodone and known as Vicoprofen
Ibuprofen (Motrin)
Many of NSAIDs are derivs of which acid listed below
Phenylpropionic
Many NSAIDs may cause internal bleeding when admin w/ what drug
Oral anticoagulants
Ibuprofen may interact w/ what drug or drug group to result in confusion, slurred speech, tremors
LIthium
Most common AE reported by pts taking ibuprofen
Nausea
Pt taking following meds. Which used to tx signs/symp of rheumatoid arthritis
Piroxicam (Feldene)/ Prednisone
Which NSAID selective for COX-2
Celecoxib (Celebrex)
Hypersensitivity rxn due to acetaminophen are rare
TRUE
Acetaminophen is rx drug when used in combo w/ narcotic agent
TRUE
Most serious AE by acetaminophen is GI (nausea)
FALSE (it’s hepatotoxicity)
Both aspirin and acetaminophen affect blood clotting time
FALSE (not acetaminophen)
Pharm actions of acetaminophen include anti-thrombotic effect
FALSE
Aspirin is NSAID
TRUE
Acetaminophen is inhibitor of cyclooxygenase
TRUE (but only in CNS)
Max suggested dose of acetaminophen is up to 3g daily
FALSE (max dose is 4g daily)
Which category drugs does NOT affect blood clotting
Opiate analgesics
Which of the following agents has little value in tx. Acute inflamm?
Acetaminophen
Pt w/ history of drug abuse, which given with no liability-addiction
Ibuprofen
Incidence of aspirin allergy in general pop is 2:1000 individuals
TRUE
Which drug exerts analgesic effect through opiate receptor agonism?
NONE OF ABOVE (not carbamazepine/ nortriptyline/ pregabalin)
Which drug has dental use for burning mouth syndrome
Nortriptyline
Which non-opiate analgesic drug has dental use tx. Trigeminal neuralgia
Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Which drug has mech. action binding to alpha 2-delta subunit of voltage gated channels?
Pregabalin (Lyrica)
Opiate receptor when stimulated causes resp. depression
Mu
Can displace morphine from mu opiate receptor
Naloxone
Opiate compound is chem derivative of codeine
Hydrocodone
Opiate is found naturally in poppy
Codeine
Methoxy derivative of morphine
Codeine
Dose of codeine every 4-6h for dental pain
30-60mg
Dose hydrocodone every 4-6h for dental pain
5mg
Most common side effect codeine
Nausea
Following dental narcotic is schedule II
Meperidine
Which analgesic may interact w/ warfarin to cause bleeding
Ibuprofen and Aspirin (A&E)
Which are AE of oxycodone (oxycontin)
Nausea & constipation (A&B)
Why does nitrous have such rapid onset time
LOW solubility in blood
Which gen anesthetic below used IV
Propofol (Diprivan)
Best describes definition MAC
Min conc. to prevent response to pain in 50% subjects
Condition in patient that could preclude use of nitrous
Emphysema
Mechanism of inhalant anesthetics (B&C)
Dissolve in axonal membranes to diminish action potentials/ act to enhance GABA actions
Halogenated hydrocarbon used as maint. Anesthetic
Halothane
All are GABAmimetic agents EXCEPT
Ketamine
Agent works by antagonizing dopamine
Droperidol (Inapsine)
Agent works by mu receptor interaction
Alfentanil (Alfenta)
Agent works by antagonizing cholinergic receptor
Glycopyrrolate (Robinul)
Agent used to prevent vomiting during anesthetic recovery
Droperidol (Inapsine)
Agent can be antagonized by naloxone
Alfentanil (Alfenta)
Inhalation agent NOT considered gen. anesthetic
Nitrous oxide
Agent antagonizes NMDA receptor to cause catatonia and dysphoria
Ketamine
Agent used tin anesthetic regimen to reverse actions of midazolam (versed)
Flumazenil (Romazicon)
Which drug is sedative given by IV
Fentanyl
For which condition is nitrous contraindicated
COPD
Chronic exposure to low levels nitrous by female
Spont abortion
When used as sedative gas, nitrous always given as mixture with what
Oxygen
IV sedative is a barbiturate
Methohexital (Brevital)
IV sedative is benzodiazepine
Midazolam (versed)
IV sedative is opiate derivative
Fentanyl
IV agent is antagonist at NMDA receptor
Ketamine
A hypersensitivity reaction caused by local anesthetics (LA) is asthmatic wheezing
TRUE
It is the protonated form of the LA molecule which easily penetrates the nerve membrane to gain access inside the nerve
FALSE
LAs block pain at the nerve site by preventing the influx of sodium into the nerve
TRUE
LAs block pain at the nerve site by preventing a nerve action potential along the axon
TRUE
Ester-type LAs are rapidly metabolized in the liver
FALSE
Ester-type LAs have a chemical linkage which contains an amino group
FALSE
LAs block pain at the nerve site by preventing the influx of potassium into the nerve
FALSE
In general, the amide-type LAs have a longer duration of action than the ester-type LAs
TRUE
In general, LAs are more effective in inflammed and infected tissue
FALSE
The low pH at an infection site affects the anesthetizing actions of LA
TRUE
Drowsiness is a sign of LA toxicity
FALSE
Nausea is a sign of LA hypersensitivity reaction
FALSE
Dental use of Oraqix is as an injection near nerve trunks to produce nerve block
FALSE
Hypertension is a sign of LA toxicity.
FALSE
Which component of LA solution causes allergy
Bisulfites
Tetracaine LA is metabolized where
Plasma
List three reasons why epi in LA
Hemostasis/ keep anesthetic around longer/ delay absorption into systemic circulation = less toxicity
he amide type LAs are metabolized in
Liver
hich statement best describes mech action LA on nerve axon
DECR Na uptake through Na channels of axon
Which chemical form of LA readily penetrate tissue membrane
ONIONIZED free base form
LA depress which fibers first
Small unmyelinated
LA less effective in inflamed tissue b/c
pH DECR = less avail free base
Calculate LA For 1% solution
1000mg/100ml = Xmg/1.8ml
Calculate vasoconstrictor For 1:100,000
1000mg/ 100,000mg = Xmg/1.8ml Then cross multiply: 100,000X=1800 (X=0.018
1.8ml – 2% lidocaine = X mg lidocaine
36mg
1.8ml – 3% mepivacaine = X mg mepivacaine
54mg
1.8ml – 1:100k epi vasoconstrictor = X mg epi
0.018
Duration anesthesia by lido 2% w/ epi 1:100k after infiltration is
60min
Pregnancy risk factor of lidocaine is
Risk factor C
Lido w/ epi avoided in patients w/
Uncontrolled hyperthyroidism
Lido w/ epi given in min. amounts to patients w/
Significant cardio problems
This drug could interact w/ vasoconstrictor to result in hypertension
Amitriptyline (Elavil)
Duration anesthesia mepivacaine 3% w/out vaso after infiltration is
20min
Duration anesthesia bupivacaine 0.5% w/ epi 1:200k after IAN block is
5 hours
Duration prilocaine w/ epi after infiltration is
2.25 hours
Indicate AMIDE or ESTER
Two I’s in name = AMIDE, b. One I in name = Ester
Maximal recommended adult dose lido is 300mg. How many mL lido needed to be given to reach this level
15mL
A dental anesthetic carpule contains 1.8ml 2% solution Lido 1:100k epi. How much lido and epi in carpule
36mg/ 0.018mg
Max dose articaine (septo) expressed in mg/kg. What dose is max recommended for articaine in children/ adults
7mg/kg
Of amide-type LA’s which is only one metabolized in bloodstream vs liver
Articaine (septocaine)
Insulin action involves all of following EXCEPT
Stimulation of gluconeogenesis in liver cell
All of following true for sulfonylureas EXCEPT
Useful in tx. Type 1 diabetes
All following indicated for type 2 diabetes EXCEPT
Levothyroxine (synthroid)
This drug works by inhibiting GIT enzyme alpha-glucosidase
Acarbose (Precose)
Improves target cell response to insulin
Pioglitazone (Actos)
AE of levothyroxine essentially resemble symptoms of hyperthyroidism. Include all EXCEPT
Weight gain
Patients w/ hyperthyroid may exhibit sensitivity to which of following drugs often used in dentistry
Epinephrine
If pt. taking this drug, would have hx of hyperthyroidism
Propylthiouracil (Propacil)
This estrogen replacement drug assoc. w/ incr risk endometrial cancer
Conjugated estrogens (Premarin)
True for raloxifene EXCEPT
Assoc. with incr in risk of breast cancer
Actions of this drug is to inhibit dissolution hydroxyapatite crystals
Alendronate (Fosamax)
Addition of what drug to estrogen replacement regimen REDUCES incidence of endometrial hyperplasia caused by estrogen
Medroxyprogesterone
Two ingredients in combo birth control pills
Synthetic estrogen and synthetic progesterone
Mestranol is
Synthetic estrogen
Norethindrone is
Synthetic progesterone
Best explains mechanism of ovulatory inhibition of combo oral contraceptives
Inhibits both FSH/LH from pituitary
This increases risk CV effects from oral contraceptive use
Smoking
Benefits oral contraceptive use EXCEPT
Decr risk of osteoporosis
IV bisphosphonates used in CA pts having assoc. of ONJ
Palmindronate (Aredia)/ Zolendronate (Zometa)
Oral bisphosphonates used to prevent osteoporosis having assoc. w/ ONJ
Alendronate (Fosamax)/ residronate (Actonel)/ ibandronate (Boniva)
How is zolendroic acid (Reclast) used?
Annual 15min IV infusion prevent osteoporosis
Which statement correct for benzodiazepines (BDZs)
ALL BDZs have some sedative effects
All respond to tx. With BDZ's EXCEPT
Schizophrenia
Which is shorter acting benzo used mainly as hypnotic to overcome insomnia
triazolam (Halcion)
Which is correct
Phenobarbitol induces P-450
This sedative can be purchased w/out Rx
diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
This hypnotic NOT a benzo
zolpidem (Ambien)
This tranquilizer NOT affect GABA receptor
Buspirone (BuSpar)
Does not affect medullary respiratory centers
diazepam (Valium)
Non-barbiturate sedative-hypnotic used in dental practice
Chloral hydrate
Ranitidine (Zantac) and cimetidine (Tagamet) act as antagonists to what
H2 receptors
Which of following is known as prokinetic drug
metaclopramide (Reglan)
Which of following is abx used in triple therapy regimen for peptic ulcers
tetracylcine
Which of following is D2 antagonist used as prokinetic agent
metoclopramide (Reglan)
Which of following is most important approach to healing peptic ulcers
Eradicating H. pylori bacteria
Inhibits absorption of tetracyclines
Aluminum-containing antacids
Binds to mucosa to form physical barrier to HCL and pepsin
sucralfate (Carafate)
Of drugs, this affects many drugs by inhibiting liver metabolism through P450 microsomal system
cimetidine (Tagamet)
All correct for nitroglycerin EXCEPT
significantly decreases AV conduction
AE assoc. with nitroglycerin
Headache
This drug, to tx angina, causes gingival hyperplasia
Nifedipine
Classes of drugs used to prevent angina pectoris EXCEPT
cardiac glycosides
longer acting form of nitroglycerin
isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil)
Which is true statement relative to tolerance of nitroglycerin
can be restored through brief "nitrate-free" periods
This anti-anginal not used in patients w/ COPD
propanolol (Inderal)
Class I antiarrythmics are Na channel blockers w/in myocardial cell. Which of following is class I antiarrythmic drug?
Quinine
All of following mechanisms correctly match a drug EXCEPT
Procainamide (blocks K channels)
Which statement is incorrect?
Lidocaine used mainly for atrial arrythmias
This drug commonly used to tx atrial fib
propanolol (Inderal)
The mechanism of this drug is through inhibition of an enzyme known as hydroxy-methylglutaryl CoA reductase (HMG-CoA reductase)
Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
This drug, used to treat coronary artery disease blocks the beta adrenergic receptors in the heart
atenolol (Tenormin)
The mechanism of this drug is through inhibition of an enzyme known as angiotensin converting enzyme
Lisinopril (Prinivil)
This drug is useful in coronary artery disease patients to lower cholesterol blood levels
ezetimibe (Zetia)
Regarded as most widely used antihypertensive medications
Thiazide diuretics
Inhibits Na tubular reabsorption primarily w/in distal portion of nephron
Thiazide diuretics
If your pt were taking this drug, they would be taking loop diuretic
furosemide (Lasix)
This diuretic can cause hypokalemia to result in INCR thirst/dry mouth
furosemide (Lasix)
This diuretic does not require K supplementation
tramterene (Dyrenium)
Actions of this class of antihypertensives is mainly to reduce heart rate and cardiac output
angiotensin II receptor antagonists
Which is cardioselective beta adrenergic receptor blocker
atenolol (Tenormin)
This class of anti--hupertensives causes sex dysfunction/ bradycardia/ and lethargy
beta adrenergic receptor blockers
This drug prevents conversion of angiotensin I --> II
enalapril (Vasotec)
There is a high incidence of dry cough w/ this drug
enalapril (Vasotec)
This drug causes ging. Overgrowth
Nifedipine (Procardia)
This drug blocks inward movement of Ca through voltage sensitive channels in smooth mm cells
amlodipine (Norvasc)
This drug inhibits central adrenergic outflow
clonidine (Catapres)
This drug is more useful in tx. BPH that hypertension
terazosin (Hytrin)
A useful drug in treating congestive heart failure because it lowers the peripeheral resistance in the circulatory system
enalapril (Vasotec)
Overcomes weakened heart muscle to allow for more efficient pumping action
digitalis
Reduces overall fluid volume within the circulatory system
HCTZ (hydrochlorothiazide)
This drug lowers HR
metorpolol (Toproil XL)
This drug useful in preventing future Mis b/c DECR workload on heart muscle
atenolol (Tenormin)/ metoprolol (Toprol XL)
Which penicillin abx is active against salmonella, E. coli, shigella
ampicillin
Pen VK should be taken on empty stomach
TRUE
Which penicilling is useful in tx. Infections where penicillinase-secreting bacteria are suspected
cloxacillin
One mech of bacterial resistance to penicillin involves INCR in ______ _______ which remove abx from site of action before it can act
efflux pumps
Time to peak blood levels of amoxicillin after oral admin of capsules is
2 hours
This abx can DECR effectiveness of penicillin if both given simultaneously
tetracycline
Which penicillin type abx has antipseudomonal properties
piperacillin and tazobactam (Zosyn)
This is considered a member of penicillin abx family
tetracycline
Chemically this abx is a beta-lactam
Ticarcillin (Ticar)
The antibacterial mechanism of this antibiotic is through binding to one or more of the penicillin binding proteins (PBPs); which in turn inhibits the final transpeptidation step of peptidoglycan synthesis in bacterial cell walls, thus inhibiting cell wall synthesis
ALL ABOVE (aztreonam (Azactam), cefaclor (Ceclor), loracarbef (Lorabid), cephalexin (Keflex)
This antibiotic is classified as a first generation cephalosporin
cephalexin (Keflex)
This beta-lactam abx used for early-stage odontogenic infections
pen VK
A beta-lactamase stable abx
Clindamycin
All have bactericidal actions except
Z-pak (azithromycin)
Alcohol, in combo w/ this drug has caused disulfarim like rxn
metronidazole (Flagyl)
useful in pt. allergic to penicillin
Clindamycin
condition in which a pen-metronidazole combo useful
infection > 3 days
Z-pak (Azithromycin) useful in tx. Late stage odontogenic infections
TRUE
Which history below contraindicates use of clindamycin
pseudomembranous colitis
The incidence of population w/ allergy to penicillin is
10%
Least freq. type of allergic manifestation caused by penicillin is
anaphylaxis
Describes interaction between clarithromycin and Lipitor
INCR risk muscle pain/breakdown
The dose of amoxicillin for prohpy of IE in adult patients
2g
The dose of clindamycin for prophy of IE in adult patient
600mg
Cardiac condition requiring abx premed according to 2007 guidelines
artificial heart valves
Dose amoxicillin as standard prophy in pt w/ total joint replacement
2g
Dose clindamycin as alternative abx in pt w/ total joint replacement
600mg
This abx binds to 50s subunit of bacterial ribosomes to inhibit protein synthesis
clindamycin
All are members of tetracycline family EXCEPT
Z-pak (azithromycin)
This abx has been shown to DECR effectiveness of penicillin
tetracycline
All are macrolid abx EXCEPT
quinupristin/Dalfopristin (Synercid)
This abx cause hearing loss
tobramycin
This abx targets bacterial DNA gyrase
ALL ABOVE (levofloxacin (Levoquin), gatifloxacin (Tequin), gemifloxacin (Factive))
This abx is competitive inhibitor of para-amino benzoic acid (PABA)
NONE OF ABOVE
This abx is member of quinolone family
gatifloxacin (Tequin)
True for carbamazepine (Tegretol) as antiepileptic EXCEPT
assoc. w/ causing heart failure
True for phenytoin (Dilantin) as antiepileptic EXCEPT
NOT effective in tonic-clonic seizures
True for phenobarb as anti-epileptic EXCEPT
causes ging. Hyperplasia
Valproic acid (Depakene) is anti-epileptic agent of benzodiazepene family)
FALSE
This drug is benzodiazepene useful in tx epilepsy
clonazepam (Clonopin)
A selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI).
fluoxetine (Prozac)
Dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor
buproprion (wellbutrin)
Norepinephrine (and to lesser extent serotonin) reuptake inhibitor
Nortriptyline (Pamelor)
Serotonin/norepinephrine (dual action) reuptake inhibitor
Amitriptyline (Elavil)
A dental use for this antidepressant is in the management of neuropathic pain in TMD patients
Amitriptyline (Elavil)
A unique use for this antidepressant is as an adjunct for smoking cessation
buproprion (wellbutrin)
Which classification of antidepressants listed below has precautions advised with the use of vasoconstrictor
MAOIs such as tranylcypromine
Which antidepressant below is associated with causing the most significant dry mouth
Amitriptyline (Elavil)
Precaution with the use of vasoconstrictor is suggested wirth this antideptessants since the antidepressant elevates norepinephrine
duloxetine (Cymbalta)
This antihistamine works by inhibiting the release of histamine from basophils and mast cells
cromolyn (Intal/ Nasalcrom)
This antihistamine is an antagonist at the H1 histamine receptor and is non-sedating
ceritizine (Zyrtec)
When this histamine receptor is stimulated, bronchoconstriction results
H1
When this histamine receptor is stimulated, acid secretion in the stomach results
H2
The mechanism of this antihistamine is to antagonize the H1 receptor
ALL ABOVE (loratadine (Claritin), fexofenadine (Allegra), certirizine (Zyrtec), chlorpheniramine (Chlor-Trimeton))
This antihistamine causes sedation as a side effect
diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
One use of this antihistamine drug is as an inhalant used for prevention of exercise-induced bronchospasm
cromolyn (Intal/ Nasalcrom)
Your dental patient is undergoing chemotherapy to treat cancer. What is the expectant adverse effect of chemotherapy
hair loss/ vomiting
Which of the drugs below is an antineoplastic categorized as an alkylating agent
cisplatin
Which drug below would be taken by a breast cancer patient
tamoxifen (Nolvadex)
5-FU is used to treat the following cancers EXCEPT
non Hodgkins lymphoma
Which medication below is not an antineoplastic
acyclovir (Zovirax)
This tyrosine kinase inhibitor has been approved to treat advanced renal cell cancer
sunitinib (Sutent)
Which of the drugs below is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor
imatinib (Gleevec)
This tyrosine kinase inhibitor is used to treat refractory advanced or metastatic nonsmall-cell lung cancer and pancreatic cancer
Erlotinib (Tarceva)
Exemestane (Aromasin) has been approved to treat what cancer below
advanced breast cancer
Which antineoplastic agent below is an inhibitor of the enzyme known as steroidal aromatase
Letrozole (Femara)
A monoclonal antibody used to treat metastatic colorectal cancer
Cetuximab (Erbitux)
Immunosuppressant used to treat atopic dermatitis
Pimecrolimus (Elidel)
This drug is taken orally to help in the prevention of an asthmatic attack
theophylline
The antiasthmatic is a corticosteroid
triamcinolone (Azmacort)
This drug is an beta-adrenergic receptor agonist
albuterol (Proventil)
This drug is representative of the antihistamine-type of drugs used as inhalants to treat asthma
ipratropium (Intal)
Frequent use of this agent can cause localized infection with Candida albicans in the oral cavity
beclomethasone (Beconase, Vancenase)
This bronchodilator is administered by inhalation
albuterol (Proventil)
This drug works by blocking the synthesis of leukotrienes
montelukast (Singulair)
Best describes the actions of theophylline
maintains airway dilation by inhibiting adenosine
This drug is a popular agent used to promote expectoration of excess fluid from the respiratory system
guaifenisen
This agent is a non-narcotic anti-tussive that is found in many over-the-counter drugs
dextromethorphan
The drug known as guaifenesin is usually available in combination with a decongestant agent. Which of the drugs below is a decongestant
pseudophedrine (Sudafed)
This decongestant comes in the form of a nasal spray.
oxymetazoline (Afrin)
Guaifenesin is avalilable in combination with hydrocodone. Hydrocodone as what
an anti-tussive
If your patient had a history of schizophrenia, they might be taking which of the following drugs
risperidone (Risperdal)
Which of the following drugs blocks dopamine (D2) receptors
chlorpromazine (CPZ)
All the following drugs are used to treat psychoses EXCEPT
nitrous oxide
Which phrase describes the “extrapyramidal syndrome
spasms of facial muscles
Which phrase best describes “tardive dyskinesias”
involuntary movement of face muscles
What particular cardiovascular effect does chlorpromazine (CPZ) cause in approximately 10% of people
orthostatic hypotension
This drug is considered a prototypical antipsychotic agent
haloperidol (Haldol)/ chlorpromazine (CPZ)
This antipsychotic is a member of the phenothiazine family
thioridazine (Mellaril)
The following drug would be expected to increase bleeding
Clopidogrel (Plavix)
Which of the following is an anticoagulant
ALL ABOVE (Enoxaparin (Lovenox)/ Warfarin (Coumadin)/ Heparin)
The effect of this drug is measured as INR values
Warfarin (Coumadin)
Precursor substance from which corticosteroids are synthesized in the adrenal gland
cholesterol
Long term use corticosteroids suppresses production of adrenal corticosteroids
TRUE
AE of long term steroid use EXCEPT
Renal failure
Mechanism of corticosteroids is to reduce production of leukotrienes and prostaglandins
TRUE
Methylprednisone (Medrol) tablets are used to treat erosive lichen planus and major apthae
TRUE
This drug would be appropriate to cause xerostomia in patients to produce a dry oral cavity
propantheline (Probanthine)
This drug stimulates both alpha and beta autonomic nervous system receptors
epinephrine
This drug is a beta adrenergic receptor blocker at the beta type 1 receptor but not beta type 2 receptor
atenolol (Tenormin)
This drug is a beta receptor agonist used to manage asthma
albuterol (Proventil)
This drug belongs to the class of “nonselective” beta blocking agents
propanolol (Inderal)
This drug belongs to the class of antimuscarinic drugs
propantheline (Probanthine)
This top 50 drug is an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
This top 50 drug is a hydrogen ion pump (proton pump) inhibitor
esomeprazole (Nexium)
This top 50 drug is an ACE inhibitor (angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor)
Lisinopril (Prinivil)
This top 50 drug is a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic
zolpidem (Ambien)
This top 50 drug is a leukotriene receptor antagonist
montelukast (Singulair)
Articaine is 4% solution with epi 1:100k (T/F)
TRUE
Articaine is also available w/out vasoconstrictor (T/F)
FALSE
Articaine is classifed as an ester-type LA (T/F)
FALSE
Articaine molecule contains amide linkage similar to Lidocaine (T/F)
TRUE
Metabolite articainic acid has NO anesthetic properties (T/F)
TRUE
Each carpule articaine has 36mg anesthetic (T/F)
FALSE
Liver metabolizes 90% articaine (T/F)
FALSE
According to Haas Canadian study, incidence of articaine induced paresthesia is 2:1 million injections (T/F)
TRUE
According to Malamed study, incidence of articaine-induced paresthesia is significantly different from lidocaine (T/F)
FALSE