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128 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Atropine
source |
atropa belladonna (deadly nightshade)
|
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Paclitaxel
source |
Western yew
|
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Heparin
source |
animal (bovine lung or porcine intestinal mucosa)
|
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Penicillin G
source |
Penicillium mold
|
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Erythromycin
source |
streptomyces erythrens mold
|
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Amoxacillin and mezlocillin are derived from what?
|
Penicillin G
|
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Clarithromycin is derived from what?
|
Erythromycin
|
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4 examples of semisynthetic drugs
|
amoxicillin
mezlocillin clarithromycin atropine methylbromide |
|
Semisynthetic drug
definition |
Natural compounds that are chemically modified to produce new compounds
|
|
3 examples of monoclonal antibodies used phamaceutically
|
abciximab
infliximab traztuzumab |
|
Controlled Substances Act of 1970
|
drugs considered to have a risk of abuse (i.e.risk of physical and/or psychological dependence) be placed in one of 5 categories depending on their perceived risk.
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Schedule 1 drugs
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no accepted medical use in US (heroin, LSD) - illegal to use or possess
|
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Schedule 2 drugs
|
high abuse potential (morphine, cocaine, amphetamines) - only written prescriptions limited to 34 day supply & no refills
|
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Schedule 3 drugs
|
less abuse potential (codeine plus acetaminophen, hydrocodone plus acetaminophen) - less restrictive prescription requirements
|
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Schedule 4 drugs
|
(diazepam) - least restrictive distribution
|
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Schedule 5 drugs
|
(codeine-containing cough syrups, pseudoephedrine) - OTC purchase though states may add restrictions (ex. Michigan requires stocking behind the pharmacist counter)
|
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3 names for each pharmaceutical
|
chemical
nonproprietary/generic proprietary or trade name |
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-olol
|
beta-adrenergic antagonist
|
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-caine
|
local anesthetic
|
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-dipine
|
Ca2+ channel antagonist of the dihydropyridine type
|
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-tidine
|
H2 receptor antagonist
|
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-prazole
|
proton pump inhibitor (PPI)
|
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-zosin
|
alpha-1 receptor antagonist
|
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-pril
|
angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor (ACE inhibitor)
|
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By convention, a trade name is written in _______ and a generic name in ______ letters
|
By convention, a trade name is written in all upper case letters and a generic name in lower case letters
|
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SYMMETREL
|
amantadine
(Ca2+ channel inhibitor) |
|
ABILIFY
|
aripiprazole
(PPI) |
|
COGENTIN
|
benztropine
(Anti-Parkinsonian - antagonizes AChR and histamine Rs) |
|
PARLODEL
|
bromocriptine
(Anti-Parkinsonian - DA agonist) |
|
THORAZINE
|
chlorpromazine
|
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CLOZARIL
|
clozapine
|
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HALDOL
|
haloperidol
|
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DOPAR
|
levoDOPA
|
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ZYPREXA
|
olansepine
(anti-psychotic; mania/bipolar) |
|
MIRAPEX
|
pramipexole
Anti-Parkinsonian |
|
SEROQUEL
|
quetiapine
Anti-psychotic; Mania/bipolar Black box warning |
|
RISPERDAL
|
risperidone
Anti-psychotic |
|
REQUIP
|
ropinirole
Anti-Parkinsonian - DA agonist |
|
ELDEPRYL
|
selegiline
Anti-Parkinsonian - selectively inhibits MAO type B, increasing striatum levels of DA |
|
MELLARIL
|
thioridazine
Anti-psychotics |
|
forward pharmacology
|
compounds are discovered and assayed for biologic activity
process directed on the cell or physiology try to determine the mechanism of the compound's action |
|
reverse pharmacology
|
start with known target
try to isolate effective molecule refine and test product in vivo |
|
Biochemical Classes of Drug Targets of Current Therapies
|
45% Receptors
28% Enzymes 7% Unknown 5% Ion channels 2% DNA |
|
average duration of preclinical testing and discovery
|
6.5 years (significant monetary investment)
|
|
Phase I Clinical Trials
|
test new drug on healthy volunteers over 1 year
exceptions: AIDS, CA drugs goals: level of safety, appropriate dosage |
|
Phase II Clinical Trials
|
200 patient volunteers with the target condition.
goals: drug efficacy, side effects |
|
Phase III Clinical Trials
|
1000-3000 volunteers
3-4 years duration verify effectiveness monitor side effects with "long term" use |
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NDA
|
New Drug Application
given to drug company by FDA application process takes 1-2 years |
|
Post Marketing Studies
|
on-going regulatory requirements
- annual reports - immediate notification to the FDA of safety issues discovered in patients |
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Phase IV studies
|
Post marketing study
continued exploration of additional formulations, safety data, and characteriziation of efficacy |
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Why are Phase IV studies critically important?
|
Many serious drug reactions are rare and may escape detection in Phase 3 trials.
Clinical trial volunteers generally do not reflect actual user population |
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Category A (wrt pregnancy)
|
controlled studies: no risk in pregnant women
|
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Category B (wrt pregnancy)
|
no risk in animal studies, but no human studies
|
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Category C (wrt pregnancy)
|
adverse fetal effects in animals; use only if benefit outweighs risk
|
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Category D (wrt pregnancy)
|
demonstrated human fetal risk; may use despite risk
|
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Category X
|
risk outweighs any possible benefit
|
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Pediatric Rule of 1998
|
Pharmacological studies must be done on children unless there is a good reason not to do so.
|
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Read through highlighted portions of G&G text in Drug Development Processes and Names Doc.
|
Read through highlighted portions of G&G text in Drug Development Processes and Names Doc.
|
|
drug metabolism
|
the chemical conversion of one compound to another compound
|
|
biotransformation
|
metabolic alteration
aka: drug metabolism |
|
xenobiotic transformation
|
anything that comes into the body from outside the body and has an action inside the body
|
|
active drug
|
a drug that can change biological function
|
|
metabolite
|
a product of drug metabolism
|
|
3 outcomes of biotransformation
|
activation
maintenance of activity inactivation |
|
activation as a result for biotransformation
|
a xenobiotic may need to be metabolized in order to become an active drug
the administered chemical is called a prodrug |
|
3 examples of prodrugs and their active forms
|
L-DOPA --> dopamine
codeine --> morphine prednisone --> prednisolone |
|
maintenance of activitydefinition
|
A xenobiotic may be transformed chemically but still maintain a majority of its normal pharmacological function
|
|
example of drug that undergoes maintenance of activity in vivo
|
diazepam is converted to oxazepam in vivo, (both compounds have pharmacological function)
|
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Inactivation
|
process most commonly associated with biotransformation
chemical alteration to biologically inactive form |
|
Biotransformation almost always converts more ____-soluble drugs into more ____-soluble metabolites.
|
Biotransformation almost always converts LIPID-soluble drugs into more WATER-soluble metabolites.
|
|
predominant organ of drug metabolism
|
liver (ER of hepatocytes)
|
|
exception of biotransformation trend from lipid to water soluble
|
acetylation of sulfonamides
|
|
Which form of the drug is exreted in the kidney, water- or lipid- soluble?
|
water-soluble
|
|
What happens to drugs in the smooth ER of hepatocytes?
|
high-polarity molecules are filtered, but not reabsorbed
|
|
Role of gallbladder in drug excretion
|
more lipid-soluble form of drug is exreted in bile and then in feces
|
|
Goal of drug metabolism
|
to facilitate the movement of a xenobiotic agent out of the body
|
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Phase I metabolism
|
adding or revealing nucleophilic/electrophilic groups on drug
|
|
Phase II metabolism
|
making more hydrophilic a drug that has already undergone phase I metabolism
|
|
Types of chemical reactions involved in phase I metabolism
|
Oxidation
Reduction Hydrolysis |
|
phase II metabolism
|
conjugation
|
|
5 enzyme (groups) that convert lipophilic drugs into electro-/nucleophilic compounds
|
CYP450
MAO COX reductases hydrolases |
|
which phase of metabolism is called functionalization? why?
|
Phase I
makes more water-soluble |
|
enzymes predominantly involved in metabolism
|
cytochrome 450 mixed function oxidases (microsomal)
|
|
amphetamine
inactive metabolite inactivating process |
aphetamine --> phenylacetone through deamination
|
|
phenobarbitol
inactive metabolite inactivating process |
hydroxyphenobarbitol through hydroxylation
|
|
range of MW that cytochrome P450 can handle
|
150 g/mol to 12,000 g/mol
|
|
most common moeity conjugated to drugs in phase II metabolism
|
glucuronate
|
|
5 endogenous donors of conjugation
|
glucuronate
sulfate methyl acetate glutathione glycine |
|
where do glucurodination reactions take place?
|
liver
kidney stomach intestine |
|
where do sulfonation reactions take place?
|
highest in liver
expressed in most tissues |
|
UGTs
|
enzymes used in glucurodination
|
|
SULTS
|
enzymes used in sulfonation reactions
|
|
To what extent do we need to memorize individual enzymes for biotranfer reactions?
|
??
|
|
7 factors that influence how a drug is metabolized
|
age
diet disease genetic variation genes sex hormones drug interactions |
|
3 classical inducers of cyt P450
|
phenytoin
barbituates chronic alcohol |
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4 cyt P450 inhibitors
|
cimetidine
isoniazid valproic acid disulfiram |
|
major excretion pathways
|
hepatic
renal pulmonary |
|
Major route of drug excretion
|
urine
|
|
2 ways drugs act on urine formation to influence the excretion rate of a second drug
|
diuretics - increase (volume) rate of urine formation or may influence acidity
drugs that influence perfusion of kidney and thus renal filtrate and urine formation |
|
Renal excretion =
|
Excretion =
Filtration - Reabsorption + Secrtion |
|
For 70 kg man, blood flow into afferent arteriole =
|
650 mL/min
|
|
Average glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
|
GFR = 125 mL/min
|
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Most of the fluid that is filtered in the kidneys is subsequently _____
|
reabsorbed
|
|
Which drug will be filtered in the kidney, free or protein-bound?
|
Free
|
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Flow out of collecting duct (to bladder) 1 mL/min ___ than flow into afferent arteriole
|
LESS
|
|
Amount of drug filtered per unit time is proportional to concentration of ...
|
FREE drug in plasma
|
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Why are lipid-soluble drugs much more slowly excreted than polar drugs?
|
Lipid-soluble drugs can penetrate tubular membrane, but are reabsorbed via diffusion
|
|
Why are polar drugs rapidly excreted
|
filtered, but not reabsorbed
|
|
pH of urine
|
pH 5-8
|
|
ion trapping
|
for weak acids and bases, increases in the ionized form in the kidney will enhance excretion
|
|
increasing urine pH by i.v. NaHCO3 administration -->
|
increased weak acid excretion
|
|
increasing urine pH by i.v. NH4Cl administration -->
|
increased weak base excretion
|
|
Generally, for drugs, increase excretion with ____ & decrease excretion with ____
|
increase excretion - NH4Cl
decrease excretion - NaHCO3 |
|
active reabsorption
|
from renal tubules into blood
e.g.: Na+, Cl-, glucose, amino acids, some drugs |
|
active secretion
|
blood plasma into tubules
e.g.: K+ |
|
where are active transporters located in the glomerular apparatus?
|
proximal tubules
|
|
When can secretion of a bound drug occur?
|
If affinity of a drug for the active transporter is greater than that for a plasma protein
|
|
T/F: some drugs are completely secreted into renal tubules during a single passage through the kidney
|
True
|
|
Renal Clearance definition
|
Renal clearance - volume of plasma that is completely cleared of a substance by the kidney per unit time
|
|
Units for renal clearance
|
mL/min
|
|
Renal clearance =
|
C = (U*V)/(Cp*T)
U = drug urine conc. V = urine volume Cp = av. plasma conc. of drug (mg/mL) T = urine collection time (min) |
|
Inulin
|
filtered; not absorbed, nor secreted
ergo, clearance rate for inulin = GFR |
|
4 types of biliary excretion
|
2 types for organic acids
1 type for organic bases 1 for neutral compounds |
|
Biliary excretion is sensitive to what? Why?
|
metabolic state of hepatocytes
b/c transport requires energy |
|
locations demarcating enterohepatic cycle
|
liver --> common bile duct --> sup. mesenteric v.
liver also --> systemic circulation small intestine also --> feces |
|
Summary of enterohepatic cycling
|
Large quantities of bile acids discharged into duodenum
80-90% of drug reabsorbed, transported thru the portal blood back to the liver to be available again for secretion |
|
Example of how enterohepatic cycle can be a drug reservoir (e.g.: morphine)
|
morphine metabolized (activated) to morphine-glucoronide in liver
secreted into bile morphine-glucoronide can’t be reabsorbed by passive diffusion hydrolyzed back into morphine in intestine by bacterial enzymes and then reabsorbed |
|
Pulmonary excretion
|
gases and volatile chemicals
b/c lrg SA, thin alv walls & high blood flow, lungs v. effective in eliminating volatile chemicals termination fo action of volatile anesthetics depends on this route |