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117 Cards in this Set
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What is the MOA of Carbocaine (Mepivacaine)?
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Carbocaine is a local anesthetic that blocks generation and the conduction of nerve impulses, presumably by increasing the threshold for electrical excitation in the nerve, by slowing the propagation of the nerve impulse and by reducing the rate of rise of the action potential
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What are the adverse reactions associated with Carbocaine (Mepivacaine)?
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excessive plasma levels which may be due to overdosage, inadvertent intravascular injection, or slow metabolic degradation. CNS and Cardiovascular reactions.
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What is the MOA of xylaxine (Rompun)?
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Alpha2-adrenergic agonist used for its sedative and analgesic in a variety of species; sometimes used as an emetic in cats. Causes skeletal muscle relaxation through central mediated pathways. Xylazine does NOT cause emesis in equine.
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What are the adverse effects in horses of Xylazine (Rompun)?
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The adverse effects in equine are muscle tremors, bradycardia with partial A-V block, reduced respiratory rate, movement in response to sharp audiotry stimuli, sweating, increased intracranial pressure or decreased mucocilliary clearance. Does NOT cause CNS excitation in equine like morphine. In horses visceral analgesia produced has been demonstrated to be superior to that produced by meperidine, butorphanol or pentaxocine.
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What are the common reversible agents for Xylazine (Rompun)?
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Yohimbine, atipamezole and tolazoline may be used alone or in combination to reverse effects or speed recovery times.
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what is Xylazine's drug classification?
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Xylazine is classified as a sedative/analgesic with muscle relaxant properties.
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What are the contraindications/precautions with xylazine?
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contraindicated in animals receiving epinephrine or having active ventricular arrhythmias. extreme caution in animals with preexisting cardiac dysfunction, hypotension or shock, respiratory dysfunction, severe hepatic or renal insufficiency, preexisting seizure disorders or severly debilitated.
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What are some potential drug interactions with xylazine?
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The use of epienphrine with and without the concurrent use of halothane concomitantly with xylazine may induce the development of ventricular arrhythmias. Acepromazine with xylazine is generally considred safe, but there is a potential for additive hypotensive effects and this combination should be used cautiously in animals susceptible to hemodynamic complications. Other CNS depressants can have an additive effect (barbiturates, narcotics, anesthetics, phenothiazines, etc.)
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What is the MOA of Oxfendazole?
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Limited information is available regarding this compounds. Benzimidazole anthelmintic, oxfendazole occurs as white powder with a characteristic odor. sulfoxide metabolite of fenbendazole.
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What is the use of Oxfendazole?
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Primarily used in horses and cattle for the removal of the following parasites in horses: large roundworms (Parascaris equorum), large strongyles (S. edentatus, S. equinus, S. vulgaris), small strongyles and pinworms (Oxyuris equi)
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What are the contraindications of oxfendazole?
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there are no contraindications to using this durg in horses, but it is recommended to use oxfendazole cautiously in debilitated or sick horses.
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What are the adverse effects of Oxyfendazole?
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it is unlikely any adverse effects will occurr if used as labeled. Hypersensitivity reactions secondary to antigen release by dying parasites are theoretically possible, particularly at high dosages.
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What bacteria are not resistant to chlortetracyclilne?
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Many bacteria are now resistant, still may be very useful to treat mycoplasma, rickettsia, spirochetes and Chlamydia.
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What are the contraindications to chlortetracycline?
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Hypersensitivity. Extreme caution: pregnancy. Caution: liver, renal insufficiency.
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What is the pharmacology of tetracyclines?
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tetracyclines generally act as bacteriostatic antibiotics and inhibit protein synthesis by reversibly binding to 30S ribosomal subunits of susceptible organisms, thereby preventing binding to those ribosomes of aminoacyl transfer-RNA. Tetracyclines also are believed to reversibly bind to 50S ribosomes and additionally alter cytoplasmic membrane permeability in susceptible organisms. In high concentrations, tetracyclines can also inhibit protien synthesis by mammalian cells.
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What are the adverse effects of tetracyclines?
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given to young animals can cause discoloration of bones and teeth to a yellow, brown, or gray color. High dosages or chronic administration may delay bone growth and healing. Equine that are stressed by surgery, anesthesia, trauma, etc., may break with severe diarrheas after receiving tetracyclines (especially with oral administration)
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What is the MOA of Decoquinate?
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Decoquinate is 4-hydroxy quinolone agent that has anticoccidial activity. Decoquinate acts on the sporozoite stage of the life cycle. The sporozotie apparently can still penetrate the host intestinal cell, but further development is prevented. The mechanism of action for decoquinate is to disrupt electron transport in the mitochondrial cytochrome system of cocidia.
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What is Decoquinates use or indication?
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Decoquinate is labeled for use in cattle for the prevention of coccidiosis in either ruminating or non-ruminating calves, cattle or young goats cuased by the spp E. christenseni or E. ninakohlyakimoviae.
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What are the contraindications/ precautions of Decoquinate?
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Decoquinate is not effective for treating clinical coccidiosis and has no efficacy against adult coccidia. Not approved for use in animals producing milk for food or in laying chickens.
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What is the MOA of Ivermectin?
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Ivermectin enhances the release of gamma amino butyric acid (GABA) at presynaptic neurons. GABA acts as an inhibitory neurotransmitter and blocks the post-synaptic stimulation of the adjacent neuron in nematodes or the mucsle fiber in arthropods. By stimulating the release of GABA, ivermectin cuases paralysis of the parasite and eventual death. As liver flukes and tapeworms do not use GABA as a peripheral nerve transmitter, ivermectin is ineffective against these parasites.
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What are the uses of Ivermectin?
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Ivermectin is approved for horses for the conrol of: large strongyles (adult) (S. vulgaris, S. edentaatus, S. equinus, Triodontophorus spp.), small strongyles, pinworms (adults and 4th stage larvae), ascarids (adults), neck threadworms (microfilaria), bots (oral and gastric stages), lungworms (adults and 4th stage larvae), intestinal threadworms (adults) and summer sores (cutaneus 3rd stage larva) secondary to Hebronema or Draschia spp.
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Contraindications/precautions of Ivermectin?
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The ivermectin should not be used in foals less than 4 months old, as safely of the durg in animals this young has not been firmly established.
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What are the adverse effects of Ivermectin?
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In horses, swelling and pruritus at the ventral mid-line can be seen approximately 24 hours after ivermectin administration due to a hypersensitivity reaction to dead Onchocerca spp. microfilaria. Causes flaccid paralysis that may be reversible in reptiles.
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What is Pyrantel Pamoate used for?
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Pyrimidine anthelmintic used primarily for ascarids in a variety of species.
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What are the adverse effects and contraindications of Pyrantel Pamoate?
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unlikly, but emesis is possible in small animals. It is contraindicated in severely debilitated animals.
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What is the MOA of Pyrantel pamoate?
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Pyrantel acts as depolarizing, neuromuscular-blocking agent in susceptible parasites, which paralyzes the organism. The drug possesses nicotine-like properties and acts similarly to acetylcholine. It also inhibits cholinesterase.
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What is the MOA of Phenylbutazone?
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Has analgesic, anti-inflammatory , antipyretic, and mild uricosuric properties. MOA is by the inhibiton of cyclooxygenase, thereby recducing prostaglandin synthesis.
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What class of drugs does phenylbutazone belong too?
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It is an NSAID
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What are teh contraindications of Phenylbutazone?
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hypersensitivity, history or preexisting hematologic or bone marrow abnormalities, preexisting GI ulcers, food producing animals. Caution should be used with foals or ponies, preexisting renal disease, CHF, other drug allergeis.
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What are the adverse effects of phenylbutazone?
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Horses: oral and GI erosions and ulcers, hypoalbuminemia, diarrhea, anorexia, and renal effects. Will cause seizures if given by an IA injection. Do not give IM or SC.
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What are the uses/indications of phenylbutazone?
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For the relief of inflammatory conditions assoicated with the musculoskeletal system in dogs and horses. It has been used primarily for the treatment of lameness in horses and occasionally as an analgesic/anti-inflammatory, antipyretic in dogs, cattle, and swine.
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What is the use/indication of penicillin?
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Natural penicillins remain the drugs of choice for a variety of bacteria, including group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, many gram-positive anaerobes, spirochetes, gram-negative aerobic cocci, and some gram-negative aerobic bacilli.
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What is the MOA of penicillins?
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bactericidal against susceptible bacteria and act by inhibiting mucopeptide synthesis in the cell wall resulting in a defective barrier and an osmotically unstable spheroplast. The exact mechanism for this effect has not been definitively determined, but beta-lactam antibiotics have been shown to bind to several enzymes within the bacterial cytoplasmic membrane that are involved with cell wall synthesis.
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What are the contraindications/precautions of penicillin?
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hypersensitivites to them, Do NOT administer systemic antibiotics orally in patients with septicemia, shock, or other grave illnesses as absorption of the medication from the GI tract amy be signifantly delayed or diminshed (IV routes should be used instead)
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What are the drug interactions of penicillin?
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penicillins can have synergistic or additive activity agasint certain bacteria when used with aminoglycosides or cephalosporins. Bacterostatic antibiotics with penicillins is generally not rec. particularly in acute infections where the organism is proliferating rapidly as penicillins tend to perform better on actively growing bacteria.
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What is the use/indication of lincomycin?
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antibiotic similar to that of clindamycin; broad spectrum against many anaerobes, gram-positive aerobic cocci, Toxoplasma, etc. Clindamycin is usually choosen due to the lower cost. Has a use in dogs, cats, swine, and chickens.
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What is the MOA of Lincomycin?
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Share a mechanism of action with clindamycin and have similar spectrums of activity; bacteriostatic or bactericidal agents, depending on the concentration of the drug at the infection site and the susceptibility of the organism. The lincosamides are believed to act by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit of susceptible bacteria, thereby inhibiting peptide bond formation.
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What are the contraindications/precautions of Lincomycin?
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although there have been case reports of parenteral administration of lincosamides to hroses, cattle and sheep, the lincosamides are considered to be contraindicated for use in rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, horses and ruminants because of serious GI effects that may occur, including death.
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What are the adverse effects of Lincomycin?.
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adverse effects reported in dogs and cats include gastroenteritis (emesis, loose stools, and infrequently bloody diarrhea in dogs)
IM injections reportedly cause pain at the injection site. Rapid IV administration can cause hypotension and cardiopulmonary arrest Swine may develop GI disturbances while taking the medication. |
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What is the use of Fenbendazole?
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indicated for the removal of the following parasites in dogs: ascarids, hookworms, whipworms, and tapeworms. Not effective against dipylidium caninum. Horses: large strongyles, small strongyles, and pinworms. Swine: large roundworms, lung worms, nodular worms, small stomach worms, whipworms, and kidney worms. NOT been used in cats, sheep, goats, pet birds, and llamas.
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What is the contraindication of fenbendazole?
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NOT to be used in horses used for food.
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What are the adverse effects/ warnings of fenbendazole?
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generally does not cause any adverse effects if given according to the label; Hypersensitivity reactions secondary to antigen release by dying parasites may occur, particularly at high doses; vomiting may infrequently occur in dogs or cats (single doses are not effective in dogs and cats; must be treated for three days)
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What drug class is Triamcinolone?
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It is a glucocorticoid that is 4-5X more potent than hydrocortisone, no appreciable mineralocorticoid activity
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what are the contraindications of triamcinolone?
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Systemic fungal infections, manufacturer lists: "in viral infections, animals with arrested tuberculosis, peptic ulcer, acute psychoses, corneal ulcer, and Cushingoid syndrome. Presence of diabetes, osteoporosis, chronic psychotic reactions, predisposition to thrombophlebitits, hypertension, CHF, renal insufficiency, and active tuberculosis necessitates carefully controlled use.
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What is the MOA of Triamcinolone?
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glucocorticoids have effects on virtually every cell type and system in mammals. Cells: inhibit fibroblast proliferation, macrophage response to migration inhibiting factor, sensititzation of lymphocytes and the cellular response to mediators of inflammation. Also stabilize lysosomal membrnaes. Musculoskeletal: cause muscular weakness (also caused by lack of glucocorticoids), atrophy,m and osteoporosis. Bone growth can be inhibited via grwoth hormone and somatomedin inhibition, increased calcium excretionj and inhibitition of vit D. Fibrocartliage growth is also inhibited.
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What is the MOA /pharmacology of hyaluronate?
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found naturally in the connective tissue of both man and animals and is identical chemically regardless of spp. Highest concentrations found naturally are in the synovial fluid, vitreous of the eye and umbilical cord. Surfaces of articular cartilage are covered with a thin layer of a protein-hyaluronate complex, hyaluronate is also found in synovial fluid, and the cartilage matrix. The net effects in joints are: a cushioning effect, reduction of protein and cellular reflux into the joint and a lubricating effect. Hyaluronate aslo has a direct antiinflammatory effect in joints by scavenging free radicals and suppressing prostaglandins.
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What are the uses/indications of hyaluronate?
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for the treatment of synovitis not associated with severe degenerative joint disease. May be helpful to treat secondary synovitis in conditions where full thickness cartilage loss exists.
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What are the adverse effects of hyaluronate?
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some patients may develop local reactions manifested by heat, swelling and/or effusion. Effects generally subside within 24-48 hours; some animals may require up to 96 hours for resolution. No treatment for this effect is rec. when used in combination with other drugs, incidence of flares may actually be higher. no systemic adverse effects have been noted.
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What class is acepromazine considered?
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It is a phenothiazine neuroleptic agent.
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What is the MOA of Acepromazine?
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The exact mechanism is not fully understood, the phenothiazines block postsynaptic dopamine receptors in the CNS and may aslo inhibit the release of, and increase the turnover rate of dopamine. They are thought to depress portions of the reticular activating system that assists in the control of body temperature, basal metabolic rate, emesis, vasomotor tone, hormonal balance, and alertness. Additionally, phenothiazines have varying degrees of anticholinergic, antihistaminic, antispasmodic, and alpha-adrenergic blocking agents.
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What is the primary desired effect of Acepromazine in veterinary medicine?
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Its tranquilizing action.
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What is the major contraindication for acepromazine?
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In epileptic patients it can precipitate seizures!
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What is the use/indication of Acepromazine in equine?
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aids in controlling fractious animals, and in conjunction with local anesthesia for various procedures and treatments. commonly used in horses as a preanesthetic agent, at very small doeses to help control behavior.
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What are the major adverse effects/warnings with acepromazine?
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It has effect on blood pressure (hypotension), this effect is thought to be mediated by both central mechanisms and through alpha-adrenergic actions of the drug. In large animals (males) can cause protrusion of the penis, may last upto 12 hours in equine. (resultant swelling and permanent paralysis of the penis retractor muscle have occured) Other symptoms: sweating, trembling, seizures, tachycardia, tachypnea, and recumbency.
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What is the MOA / pharmacology of guaifenesin formly known as glyceryl guaiacolate?
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the exact mechanism for the muscle relaxant effects is not known, it is believed that guaifenesin acts centrally by depressing or blocking nerve impulse transmission at the internuncial neuron level of the subcortical areas of the brain, brainstem and spinal cord. It relaxes both the laryngeal and pharyngeal muscles, thus allowing easier intubation. Has mild intrinsic analgesic and sedative qualities. CAUSES EXCITMENT FREE INDUCTION IN EQUINE! does not effect the diaphragmatic function and has little if any effects on respiratory function at usuall doses. Potentiates the activity of preanesthetic and anesthetic agents.
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What is the use/indication of quaifenesin?
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used to induce muscle relaxation and restraint as an adjunct to anesthesia for short procedures in large and small animals species. There are combination oral products containing quaifenesin for treating respiratory conditions in horses.
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What are the pharmacokinetic properties of quaifenesin?
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When administered alone to horses IV, recumbency usually occurs within 2 minutes and light restraint persist for about 6 minutes. Muscle relaxation reportedly persists for 10-20 minutes after a single dose. Conjugated in the liver and excreted in the urine.
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What are the adverse effects of quaifenesin?
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a mild decrease in blood pressure and increase in cardiac rate can be seen. Thrombophlebitis has been reported after IV injection and perivascular administration may cause some tissue reaction. Hemolysis may occur in solutions containing greater than a 5% concentration of guaifenesin, but some sources state this is insignificant at even a 15% concentration.
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Why would you use Quaifenesin over a ket/val combo?
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GGE can be titrated to effect therefore decreasing the possibility of overdosing which leads to a depression of the cardio/pulmonary systems. Ket/Val is usually given as a bolus and therefore not titrated to effect. Quafenesein avoids the excitment stage of induction in equine species.
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What drug classification of Ketamine?
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Ketamine is classified as a dissociative anesthetic with analgesic activity and a lack of cardiopulmonary depressant effects.
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What is the MOA of ketamine?
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It is thought to induce both anesthesia and amnesia by functionally disrupting the CNS through over stimulating the CNS or inducing a cataleptic state. Ketamine inhibits GABA, and also may block serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine in the CNS. The thalamoneocortical system is depressed while the limbic system is activated. It induces anesthetic stages I and II, but not stage III.
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What are the cardiovascular effects of ketamine?
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the cardiovascular system effects inlude increased cardiac output, heartrate, mean aortic pressure, pulmonary artery pressure, and central venous pressure. Its effects on total peripheral resistance are described as being variable. Cardiovascular effects are secondary to increased sympathetic tone; has negative inotropic effects if the sympathetic system is blocked, does not cause significant respiratory depression.
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What is the distribution, metabolism and elimination of ketamine?
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distributed into all body tissues rapidly (highest levels in brain, liver, lung and fat); drug is metabolized in the liver by demethylation and hydroxylation and eliminated in the urine.
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What is the MOA/pharmacology of Dobutamine
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considered a direct beta1-adrenergic agonist with mild beta2-and alpha1-adrenergic effects at therapeutic doses. these effects tend to balance one another and cause little direct effect on the systemic vasculature. Does not cause the release of NE like dopamine. It has relatively mild chronotropic, arrhythmogenic, and vasodilative effects.
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What is the result of administering Dobutamine?
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It causes increased myocardial contractility and stroke volumes resulting in increased cardiac output. Decreases in left ventricular filling pressures (wedge pressures) and peripheral resistance occur in patients with a failing heart. Blood pressure and cardiac rate generally are unaltered or slightly increased because of increased cardiac output. Increased myocardial contractility may incrase myocardial oxygen demand and coronary blood flow.
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What are the uses/indications of dobutamine?
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used as a rapid-acting injectable positive inotropic agent for short-term treatment of heart failure. It is also useful in shock patients when fluid therapy alone has not restored acceptable arterial blood pressure, cardiac output or tissue perfusion.
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What agents are affected by the use of betadine?
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active against both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and viruses.
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Is betadine bacteriostatic or bacteriocidial?
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It is considered a microbicide, therefore my guess it is a bacteriocidial agent.
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What is the use of nitarsone?
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It is used as a food additive for the prevention and treatment of histomoniasis in turkeys.
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What are two arsencial derivatives used to treat or prevent Histomoniasis in turkeys?
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Nitarsone and Roxarsone
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Currently in the United States which is the only drug approved for the prevention of histomoniasis?
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Nitarsone
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Are arecenicals (natarsone or roxarsone) effective against already established infections?
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Not at the perscribed dose. It would take a much higher concentration and even then it is debateable.
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What are the important anesthestic characteristics of Acepromazine? (according to Dr. Lee's powerpoint)
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slow onset, prolonged duration, minimal pulmonary effect, hypotension, stallion: penile priapism
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What are the imporant anesthetic characteristics of diazepam? (according to Dr. Lee powerpoint)
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Excellent muscle relaxation, minimal CP depression, not given alone due to excitement, usually part of induction
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What are the anesthetic characteristics for xylazine? (according to Dr. Lee's power point)
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profound sedation, onset 2 min; peak in 5 minutes, head drops, beware, still KICK!!!, CV depression, ataxic but remain standing, initial transient hypertension, then prolonged hypotension, duration 30 minutes, increasing dose not increase sedation, but duration
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What is the duration of action of Detomidine (Dormosedan)?
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Duration 45 minutes.
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What is the duration of action of Romifidine (Sedivet)?
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Duration 60 minutes, equine is less ataxic
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What occurs when guaifenesin is given outside of the vessel?
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Causes sloughing of the surrounding tissues
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Why is diazepam not given alone in equine?
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Due to excitement.
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How can you minimize V/Q mismatch for equine anesthesia?
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Lateral is better than dorsal , no grain for min. of 24 hours prior, no feed for min. of 12 hours prior, and efficient surgery time.
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What is the major risks of equine surgery?
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Post anesthetic myopathy, physical compression causing ischemia and induce reperfusion injury, should muscles and hindquarters affected causing lameness and paralysis, and inability to stand
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What is receptor theory?
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Receptors have been isolated biochemically and genes encoding receptor proteins have been cloned and sequended
receptors determine the quantitative relationship between drug dose and pharmacologic effect. receptors are responsible for the selectivity of drug action receptors mediate the actions of pharmacologic agonists and antagonists. |
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What are drug receptors?
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Cell surface or intracellular regulatory proteins – mediate the effects
of endogenous chemical signals such as neurotransmitters and hormones. e.g. adrenoreceptors, steroid receptors, acetylcholine receptors Enzymes – cell surface, membrane-spanning or intracellular proteins inhibited (or less commonly activated) by the binding of a drug. e.g. Na+K +ATPase is the cell surface receptor for cardiac glycosides such as digitalis Structural proteins – extra- or intracellular proteins inhibited (or less commonly activated) by the binding of a drug. e.g.tubulin is the receptor for colchicine - an anti-inflammatory agent |
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One of the following is incorrect requarding drug receptors:
A. are found only at the surface of cells B. are responsible for the selectivity of drug action C. mediate the actions of pharmacologic agonists and antagonists D. determine the quantitive relationship between drug dose and pharmacologic effect E. may be structural proteins |
A. is not correct. The receptors can be surface, membrane-spanning, or intracellular proteins.
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What is the relationship between drug concentration and response?
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The relation between drug dose and the clinically observed response may be quite
complex. However, in carefully controlled in vitro systems, the relationship between drug concentration and its effect is often simple and may be described with mathematical precision. LD50 curve aka EC50 curves etc. |
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Referring to the relation between drug concentration and response, what does Effect max indicate, and EC50 indicate?
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Effect max is the maximum response of the system to the drug.
EC50 is that concentration of drug that produces a response one-half of the maximum response. |
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Regarding the relationship between drug concentration and response curves... why is the curve observed?
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Because drug binding to its receptor is characterized by saturation kinetics.
Consider the lilgand L and its cognate receptor R. |
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What is drug potency and efficacy?
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Efficacy is the maximum effect (effect max) of a drug.
Potency, a comparative measure, refers to the different doses of two drugs needed to produce the same effect. |
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What is a chemical antagonists?
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One drug may antagonize the action of a second by binding to and inactivating the second drug. e.g. potamine (a positively charged protein at physiologic pH) binds (sequesters) heparin (a negatively charged anticoagulant) making it unavailable for interactions with proteins involved in the formation of blood clots.
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What is a physiological antagonists?
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physicians often prescribe drugs that take advantage of physiologic antagonism between endogenous regulatory pathways. Thus the catabolic actions of glucocorticoids and insulin act on quite different pathways, insulin is sometimes administered to oppose the hyperglycemic action of glucocorticoid hormone- whether resulting from increased endogenous synthesis (e.g. a tumor of the adrenal cortex) or as a result of glucocorticoids therapy.
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What is a pharmacological antagonists?
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drugs that bind to receptors but do not act like agonists and, therefore, do not alter receptor function. These antagonists may block the ability of agonists to bind to the receptor by competing for the same receptor site or may bind to another site on the receptor that blocks the action of the agonist. In both cases, the biological actions of the agonist are prevented.
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What are receptor antagonists?
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receptor antagonists bind to the receptor but do not activate it. In general the effects of these antagonists result from preventing agonsits from binding to and activating receptors. Antagonists may be competitive (reversibly displace by agonists) or noncompetitive (not reversibly displaced by agonists).
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What are receptor agonists?
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Agonists may differ in how tightly they bind to their receptors (potentcy) and in the effect they produce (efficacy). Some drugs may bind very tightly (are highly potent) but produce only a modest effect (low efficacy).
Low efficacy drugs are termed "partial agonists" while the structurally related drugs which produce a full effect are called "full agonists". |
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How can an agonist be partial?
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The molecular basis is unknown however there are at least two theories?
1. the partial agonist may fit the receptor binding site well but is less able to promote the receptor conformational change leading to transduction. 2. the receptor may isomerize between 2 states-- A (active and I (inactive). If the A form has high affinity for the agonist (L), the equilibrium will be shifted in favor of AL and full activation might be achieved. IF I and A forms of the receptor share similar affinities for L, both AL and IL will be formed but only AL will produce an effect and the agonsits will appear partial. |
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What is coupling (in regards to receptors)?
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The transduction process between receptor occupancy and drug response.
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What is reptivite vitamin, and what is it used for?
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It is a vitamin supplment for reptiles. It is placed over food such as vegetables, insects, and other foods.
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When is reptivite vitamin used?
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It is added to the feed every other feeding for a maximum of three times per week to prevent hypo or hyper vitaminosis.
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What does reptivite contain?
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It contains Vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol), Vitamin B1 (Thiamine), Vitamin A (Fish liver oil), Calcium, Phosphorous, potassium, magnesium etc...
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What is Meloxicam?
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It is an NSAID that is selective for COX-2 but not specific for, it is also known as Metacam.
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What is the MOA of Meloxicam?
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it has antiinflammatory, analgesic and antipyretic activity similar to other NSAIDs. Exhibits analgesic, antiinflammatory and antipyretic activity probalby through its inhibition of cyclooxygenase, phospholipase A2 and inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis. It is considered COX-2 preferential (not COX-2 specific) as at higher dosages its COX-2 specificity is diminished.
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What is the use/indications for Meloxicam?
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symptomatic treatment of osteoarthritis, antiinflammatory, antipyretic and analgesic agents
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What are the major pharmacokinetic properties of Meloxicam?
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bound to plasma proteins, well distributed
extensively biotransformed to several non-active metabolites in the liver eliminated in the feces significant amount of enterohepatic recirculation occurs. |
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What are the contraindications/precautions of Meloxicam?
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GI ulceration or bleeding, impaired hepatic, cardiac or renal function and hemorrhagic disorders, use with caution in dehyrdated, hpovolemic or hypotensive animals
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What are the adverse effects of Meloxicam?
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GI distress
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What class of drug is (Naxcel), Ceftiofur?
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third generation cephalosporin
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What is the mechanism of action of ceftiofur (Naxcel)?
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it is rapidly cleaved into furoic acid and desfuroylceftiofur, which is active. Inhibits cell wall synthesis (at stage three) of susceptible multiplying bacteria and exhibits a spectrum of activity similar to that of cefotaxime. Broad range of spp are affected, including Pasturella, Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Salmonella and E. coli.
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What is propofol?
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It is a short-acting injectable hypnoic agent unrelated to other general anesthetic agents. LITTLE IF ANY analgesia is provided. Does produce unconsciousness and good muscle relaxation.
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What are the adverse effects of propofol?
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transient respiratory depression is common, apnea possible especially if given rapidly, histamine release, anaphylactoid reactions possible, hypotension, seizure-like symptoms druing induction
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What drug class is Domitor (medetomidine)?
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It is an alpha2-adrenergic sedative analgesic
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What are the contraindications of Medetomidine (Domitor)?
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cardiac disease, respiratory disorders, liver, or kidney diseases, shock, severe debilitation or animals stressed due to heat, cold or fatigue. Caution in very old or young animals.
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What are the adverse effects of medetomidine (Domitor)?
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bradycardia, occasional AV blocks, decreased respiration, hypothermia, urination, vomiting, hyperglycemia, and pain on injection (IM). Rarely prolonged sedation, PARADOXICAL EXCITATION, hypersensitivity, apnea and death from circulatory failure.
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What is the reversal agent for medetomidine (domitor)?
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Antesedan
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What class of drug is antisedan (atipamezole)?
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Alpha2 adrenergic antagonist; antagonizes agonists such as medetomidine or xylazine
competitive inhibitor |
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What are the adverse effects of antisedan (atipamezole)?
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vomiting, diarrhea, hypersalivation, tremors, or excitation
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How should the reversal agent antisedan be administered?
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IM injection, death could occur with IV injection when reversing domitor.
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What is adequan?
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Polysulfated Glycosaminoglycan (PSGAG); proteolytic enzyme inhibitor
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What is the use of adequan (PSGAG)?
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used IM or intra-articularly for noninfectious and/or traumatic joint dysfunction and associated lameness of the carpal joints in horses and non-infectious degenerative and/or traumatic arthritis in dogs
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