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195 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What does the abbreviation stand for: a (or 'ante')
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before
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What does the abbreviation stand for: ac (or 'ante cibum')
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before meals
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What does the abbreviation stand for: ad lib
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freely
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What does the abbreviation stand for: AM
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ante meridiem or morning
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What does the abbreviation stand for: bid (or bis in die)
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twice each day
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What does the abbreviation stand for: c (or cum)
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with
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What does the abbreviation stand for: cap
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capsule
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What does the abbreviation stand for: cc
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cubic centimeter
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What does the abbreviation stand for: clt
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client
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What does the abbreviation stand for: D/C or DC
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discontinue, terminate
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What does the abbreviation stand for: elix
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elixir
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What does the abbreviation stand for: g or gm
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gram, 1000 milligrams
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What does the abbreviation stand for: gr
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grain, 60 milligrams
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What does the abbreviation stand for: gtt or guttae
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drops
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What does the abbreviation stand for: h or hr
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hora, hour
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What does the abbreviation stand for: hs
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hora somni, at bedtime
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What does the abbreviation stand for: IVPB
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IV piggyback, secondary IV line
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What does the abbreviation stand for: kg
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kilogram, 2.2 lb
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What does the abbreviation stand for: KVO
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keep vein open, very slow infusion rate
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What does the abbreviation stand for: L
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liter
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What does the abbreviation stand for: L
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left
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What does the abbreviation stand for: ug, mcg
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microgram, one millionth of a gram
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What does the abbreviation stand for: mg
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milligram, one thousandth of a gram
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What does the abbreviation stand for: mEq
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milliequivalent, number of grams of solute dissolved in 1 ml of a normal solution
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What does the abbreviation stand for: min or m
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minim, 1/15 or 1/16 ml
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What does the abbreviation stand for: ml or mL
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milliliter, one thousandth of a liter
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What does the abbreviation stand for: ng
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nanogram, one billionth of a gram
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What does the abbreviation stand for: o
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no or none
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What does the abbreviation stand for: OD
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oculus dexter, right eye
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What does the abbreviation stand for: OS
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oculus sinister, left eye
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What does the abbreviation stand for: os
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mouth
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What does the abbreviation stand for: OTC
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non-prescription, over the counter
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What does the abbreviation stand for: OU
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oculus uterque, each eye
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What does the abbreviation stand for: pc
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post cibum, after meals
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What does the abbreviation stand for: PM
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post meridiem, after noon
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What does the abbreviation stand for: PO
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per os, by mouth/orally
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What does the abbreviation stand for: prn
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pro re nata, according to necessity
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What does the abbreviation stand for: q or quaque
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every
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What does the abbreviation stand for: qd or quaque die
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every day
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What does the abbreviation stand for: qh or quaque hora
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every hour
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What does the abbreviation stand for: q4h, q4*
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every 4 hours
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What does the abbreviation stand for: qid
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quater in die, four times each day
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What does the abbreviation stand for: qod
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quaque aliem die, every other day
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What does the abbreviation stand for: qs
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quantum satis, sufficient quantity
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What does the abbreviation stand for: R
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right
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What does the abbreviation stand for: Rx
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receipt, take
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What does the abbreviation stand for: s
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sine, without
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What does the abbreviation stand for: SL
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sub linguam, under the tongue
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What does the abbreviation stand for: SOS
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si opus sit, if necessary
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What does the abbreviation stand for: ss
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semis, a half
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What does the abbreviation stand for: stat
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statim, at once
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What does the abbreviation stand for: SC, SQ
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subcutaneous
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What does the abbreviation stand for: tbsp
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tablespoon (15 mL)
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What does the abbreviation stand for: tid
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ter in die, three times a day
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What does the abbreviation stand for: TO
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telephone order
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What does the abbreviation stand for: tsp
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teaspoon (4-5 mL)
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What does the abbreviation stand for: U
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unit, a dosage measure
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What does the abbreviation stand for: VO
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verbal order
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What does the abbreviation stand for: i, ii
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one, two (as in "gr","gr")
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What does the abbreviation stand for: 3
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dram, 4 or 5 ml
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What does the abbreviation stand for: Rx
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receipt, take
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What does the abbreviation stand for: s
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sine, without
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What does the abbreviation stand for: SL
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sub linguam, under the tongue
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What does the abbreviation stand for: SOS
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si opus sit, if necessary
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What does the abbreviation stand for: ss
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semis, a half
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What does the abbreviation stand for: stat
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statim, at once
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What does the abbreviation stand for: SC, SQ
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subcutaneous
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What does the abbreviation stand for: tbsp
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tablespoon (15 mL)
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What does the abbreviation stand for: tid
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ter in die, three times a day
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What does the abbreviation stand for: TO
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telephone order
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What does the abbreviation stand for: tsp
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teaspoon (4-5 mL)
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What does the abbreviation stand for: Rx
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receipt, take
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What does the abbreviation stand for: U
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unit, a dosage measure
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What does the abbreviation stand for: s
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sine, without
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What does the abbreviation stand for: VO
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verbal order
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What does the abbreviation stand for: SL
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sub linguam, under the tongue
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What does the abbreviation stand for: i, ii
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one, two (as in "gr","gr")
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What does the abbreviation stand for: SOS
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si opus sit, if necessary
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What does the abbreviation stand for: 3
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dram, 4 or 5 ml
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What does the abbreviation stand for: ss
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semis, a half
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What does the abbreviation stand for: stat
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statim, at once
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What does the abbreviation stand for: SC, SQ
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subcutaneous
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What does the abbreviation stand for: tbsp
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tablespoon (15 mL)
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What does the abbreviation stand for: tid
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ter in die, three times a day
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What does the abbreviation stand for: TO
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telephone order
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What does the abbreviation stand for: tsp
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teaspoon (4-5 mL)
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What does the abbreviation stand for: U
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unit, a dosage measure
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What does the abbreviation stand for: VO
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verbal order
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What does the abbreviation stand for: i, ii
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one, two (as in "gr","gr")
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What does the abbreviation stand for: 3
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dram, 4 or 5 ml
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What does the abbreviation stand for: x
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times
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What does chelate mean?
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bind to
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What is the purpose of rapid injection?
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To limit the dilution of iodine by the cardiovascular system
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Define osmolality
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controls the distribution and movement of water between body compartments. It is the concentration of molecules per weight of water.
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What is standard concentration for serum iodine?
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280 to 370 mg/ml
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How many patients die as a result of iodine adverse effects?
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one of every 20,000-40,000 patients
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Define endothelium.
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the layer of cells lining the inside of blood and lymph vessels, heart and other closed cavities
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What is it called when there is less fluid outside a vessel and more inside? What are the symptoms?
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vasodilation, skin flushing experience during injection
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What is ischemia?
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decreased oxygen
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ROCM can chelate calcium ions in the cardiovascular system after injection. What are the effects from this?
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adverse heart rhythms, cardiac arrest, and sudden death
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Do low osmolality ROCM produce anticoagulant effects?
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No
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Anaphylaxis is an immediate life-threatening systemic hypersensitivity reaction. What side effects may occur?
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Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, hives, rash, flushing, lightheadedness, unconsciousness, wheezing, etc. Can be fatal.
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ROCM is responsible for __% of all acute renal failure events.
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10
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ROCM is the ____ most common cause of hospital acquired acute renal failure.
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1/3
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What drugs are used in radiology to assist in preventing renal dysfunction after contrast administration?
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saline, fenoldopam, acetylcysteine and sodium bicarbonate
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ROCM can lead to sickling of RBC's. Why?
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A result of osmotic fluid shifts
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What effects can occur as a result of barium?
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constipation, intestinal obstruction, ulceration, and perforation as a result of impaction of the colon
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What are the five rights of drug administration?
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Right patient
Right drug Right amount Right time Right route |
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What is sublingual administration and what are the benefits of using this route?
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Tablet placed under the tongue for absorption or dissolution. Will access the circulatory system without passing through the liver or being affected by gastric or intestinal enzymes.
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What is the buccal route? List examples.
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holding a tablet in the mouth by the pocket between the gum and cheek to dissolve (ex. nitroglycerin tablets and morphine sulfate solution)
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What is keratin?
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a tough insoluble protein substance found in hair and nails
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What is the ID method of administration?
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Intradermal: injection made into the upper layers of the skin almost parallel to the skin surface, injected into the inner aspect of the midforearm or scapula. Amount injected is small and absorption is slow. Use 26 or 27 gauge needle x 3/8 inch, volume= .1 ml (ex. allergy testing, tuberculin and local anesthetics)
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What is the SC method of administration?
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Subcutaneous. Needle inserted quickly with a slight withdraw to make sure a blood vessel has not been hit. Site of injection: upper arm, thights, abdomen or fat pads. Needle size: 25 to 27 gauge x 1/2 to 5/8 inch, Volume= .5 to 1.5 ml. (ex. epinephrine, insulin, heparin, vaccines)
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What is necrosis?
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Death of cells or tissue
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Describe intramuscular injection.
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Common sites of injection: dorsogluteal, mid thigh, upper arm. Needle size: 20-23 gauge x 1 to 3 inches. Volume= 1-5 ml (ex. vaccines, narcotics, sedatives, vitamin B12, or lidocaine)
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Describe IV injection.
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Used when immediate effects are needed. Most common sites: basilic or cephalic veins on back of hand, basilic vein on anterior forearm and elbow or cephalic vein on elbow. Needle: winged tip or butterfly 18-27 gauge, 1/4 to 1 1/4 inch in length.
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Organisms capable of causing disease are _________.
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Pathogens
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List the shapes of bacteria
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spherical, rod shaped, spiral, or comma shaped and can grow together to form S shapes
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Every __ minutes bacteria can reproduce by cell division.
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20
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What is the highly resistant form of bacteria called?
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Endospore (resting, nonactive state)
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What is the treatment for MRSA?
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3 months of bacterium meds, Hibicleans showers for entire family, and nasal flushes
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What are the simplest forms of life?
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Viruses. They cannot live without a living cell b/c they use the organelles and metabolic functions of a host cell to reproduce. (ex. herpes simplex-cold sores)
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What are protozoa?
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Unicellular and colonial organisms. Can spread by fecal matter, direct contact, person to person or mechanical transmission (ex. insect bites)
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What are fungal diseases called?
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Mycoses; the drug Mycostatin is antifungal agent
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List the chain of infection
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1. Pathogens in sufficient quantity
2. Reservoir 3. Port of exit where the pathogen leaves the host 4. Mode of transportation 5. Port of entry where pathogen enters another host 6. A susceptible host |
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What is a fomite?
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An object that is been in contact with pathogens
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What is a vector?
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Insect or animal that transmits disease
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True or false. ROCM can pass the placental barrier.
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True
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What is pharmacodynamics?
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The study of actions or the outcome elicited by drugs when the site of action is reached.
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True or false. Osmolality controls the distribution and movement of water between body compartments.
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True
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_________ is the preferred route of administration unless some distinct advantage is to be gained by using an alternative route.
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Oral route
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_________ is the route by which the drug is placed under the tongue or is held in the mouth in the pocket between the gums.
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Sublingual or buccal route
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_________ is the route by which a drug is administered through the skin or membrane and absorbed into the blood stream.
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Topical route
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__________ is the route by which a drug is administered when the stomach is traumatized or when the digestive enzymes can change it.
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Rectal route
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___________ is the route by which a drug is administered by injection.
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Parenteral
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What is the method of injection that is administered into the upper layers of the skin, where the amount of drug is small and absorbs slowly?
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Intradermal
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What injection method involves a quick movement but the injection is slow and steady?
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Subcutaneous
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What injection method is used when a drug is too irritating to be given by any other method?
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Intramuscular
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What injection method is used when immediate effects are needed?
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Intravenous
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Name the veins on the back of the hand.
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Basilic or cephalic
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Name the vein on the medial, anterior forearm.
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Basilic
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Name the vein on the lateral, anterior forearm or elbow.
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Cephalic
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Is "right physician" part of the five rights of administration?
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No
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The AHA states that there is an increase in survival rate if the patient receives CPR within ___ min plus receive meds through advance cardiac life support within ___ min.
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4, 8
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What does epinephrine do?
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Increases blood pressure and has onset of 1-2 min with action w/in 2-10 min. IM, IV, SC, ET, IO
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What does vasopressin (pitressin) do?
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Alternative to epinephrine for shock resistant ventricular fibrillation and for cardiovascular shock. Increases blood flow and improves oxygen delivery to the brain. Action w/in 3 min effects w/in 20 min post injection. IV or IM.
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What does dopamine (intropin) do?
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Is used for treating hypotension secondary to congestive heart failure, myocardial infarction, trauma, sepsis and overt heart failure. Used to increase renal output w/ renal failure. Action w/in 2-4 min duration less than 10 min. IV infusion with controlled delivery.
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What does atropine do?
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Used when cardiac arrest pt. exhibits bradycardia below 40 bpm. Action w/in 2-4 min after IV administration. Oral, IM and pulmonary. IV & ET are the only acceptable routes for cardiac arrest.
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What are the adverse effects of atropine?
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Worsening of myocardial ischemia or extension of infarct zone, ventricular fibrillation & tachycardia. Dry mouth, blurred vision, nausea, mental confusion etc.
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What does lidocaine (xylocaine) do?
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Used to treat ventricular tachycardia after cardiac arrest. Action 30-90 seconds post IV administration and 10 min post IM administration.
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What are the adverse effects of lidocaine?
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Mild toxicity, drowsiness, confusion, muscle twitching
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What is sodium bicarbonate?
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Strong alkalinizing agent. Used for treating metabolic or respiratory acidosis. Administered IV or IO.
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What is acidosis?
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When the body's alkaline level is below normal (acidic)
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What are the adverse effects of sodium bicarbonate?
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Extravation of IV sodium bicarbonate can lead to cellulitis, tissue necrosis, ulceration, & tissue sloughing.
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What is cellulitis?
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inflammation of connective tissue
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What is necrosis?
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death or decay of tissue
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When does epinephrine become unstable?
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When exposed to light for long periods of time (will turn pink or brown)
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When does vasopressin become unstable?
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When expired or when outside of temp range of 15-30 degrees celsius
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When does atropine become unstable?
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When expired or when exposed to light for long periods
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When does lidocaine become unstable?
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When expired or when exposed to heat > 40 degrees celsius. Should also be administered via separate IV line due to adverse effects with other medications.
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When does sodium bicarbonate become unstable?
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Until expired or if not kept at temps ranging from 15-30 degrees celsius
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What is oliguric ARF?
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Urine output does not exceed 400 ml/day
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Explain what astringent results look like.
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Vasoconstriction, tissue contraction, decreased secretions and sensitivity, thereby counteracting inflammatory effects
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Explain what antiseptic or bacteriostatic results look like.
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inhibits growth and development of microorganisms (Betadine, Bactroban)
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Explain what emollient results look like.
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soothing and softening effect to overcome dryness and hardness
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Explain what cleansing results look like.
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Removal of dirt, debris, secretions, or crusts (ex. Hibiclens)
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Explain what anesthetic results look like.
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remove sensation of pain (ex. benzocaine)
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Explain what antihistamine results look like.
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soothes manifestations caused by allergic reactions (ex. Benadryl)
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What is the angle of insertion for an SC injection?
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45-60 degrees
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What system is affected by diptheria?
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Respiratory
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What system is affected by TB?
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Respiratory
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What system is affected by mumps?
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Respiratory
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What system is affected by strep throat?
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Respiratory
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What system is affected by amebic dysentery?
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GI tract
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What system is affected by giardiasis?
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GI tract
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What system is affected by poliomyelitis?
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GI tract
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What system is affected by salmonellosis?
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GI tract
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What system is affected by shigellosis?
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GI tract
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What system is affected by cystitis, nephritis?
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Genitourinary tract
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What system is affected by lyme disease?
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Blood
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What system is affected by leptospirosis?
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Blood
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What system is affected by typhoid fever?
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Blood
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_______ may cause a patient to experience an unpleasant state of tension forewarning danger.
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Anxiety
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_____________ occurs as a sudden, unexpected, intense apprehension.
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Panic disorder
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__________ is a psychological condition that consists of irrational fear leading to avoidance.
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Phobia
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What are the names of the pharmacologic reversal agents for sedation?
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Flumazenil and naloxone
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What are the medications used in radiology for sedation?
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Barbiturate, benzodiazepine (antianxiety), and opiate analgesic
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What do opiate analgesics do?
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Stimulate the CNS receptors known as opioid receptors and cause a decrease in pain perception
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What are common narcotics used for conscious sedation?
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morphine, meperidine and fentanyl
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Should a respiratory arrest occur during sedation, what is given to reverse the effects of opiates?
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Naloxone
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If the reversal of antianxiety drugs is needed, what drug is given?
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Flumazenil
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Give three examples of barbiturates.
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thiopental, methohexital, and phenobarbital
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What do barbiturates do?
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Drecrease cortical brain activity by facilitating the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA and drepress cerebral cortex activity by blocking excitatory neurotransmitters.
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What is the most commonly used benzodiazepine and why?
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Midazolam because of rapid onset (2-15 minutes)
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What is the purpose of benzodiazepines?
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Cause selective CNS depression, muscle relaxation, antianxiety, anticonvulsant, and sedative-hypnotic w/ some amnesia effects.
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