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150 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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define agonist
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A drug with a high level of affinity and efficacy that binds to a receptor and casues a specific action.
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define contraindiction
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a reason not to use a drug in a particular situation, causes undesirable side effects
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define efficacy
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the degree to which a drug produces its desired response.
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define over the counter drug
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a drug that may be purchased without a prescription from a vet
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define prescription drug
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a drug that must be prescribed by a vet and taken while under the supervision of a vet
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define receptor
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a molecule located on a cell that binds with drugs or neurotransmitters to cause an effect
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define therapeutic index
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the relationship between a drug's ability to achieve the desired effect compared to its tendency to produce toxic effects. Expressed as a ration between the LD and the ED. LD/ED 50% of the time.
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define withdrawal time
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the amount of time that must elapse between the end of drug therapy and the elimination of that drug from the patients tissue or products.
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define veterinarian client patient relationship
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the relationship that must exist between the veterinarians, hris or her patient and the patient's owner before prescription drugs may be dispensed
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List four sources of drugs used in veterinary medicine
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animal products, plant products, minerals, and synthetic products
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what are four components of a drug regimen
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includes the dose, the route of administration, the frequency of administration, and the duration of administration
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discuss the conditions that must be met before a valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship can be shown to exist.
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1. the vet must assume responsibility for making clinical judgements in relation to the health of the animal. 2. the vet must have recently seen the animal and be acquainted with its care and 3. the vet must be available for follow up care of the animal.
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discuss the responsibilities of a veterinary technician in the administration of drug orders.
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carry out orders correctly, read the drug label 3x to ensure that the proper drug is being adminstered and take care to administer the correct dose by the correct route. be aware of posibble side effects and monitor patient in a responsible way.
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Describe the sequense of events that a drug undergoes from administration to excretion.
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a drug is first absorbed or directly placed into the bloodstream. In the blood, the drug may bind with a plasma protein or exist in the free state. The circulating blood distributes the drug to the capillary level, where the drug leaves the circulation and enters the interstitial fluid. The interstitial fluid bathes the cell or bind with surface receptors. The drug then exits the cell or its surface, moves back to interstitial fluid, reenters circulation and then is metabolized in the liver and sent to the kidneys for excretion.
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List 11 possible routes for administering a drug and discuss the advatages and/or disadvantages of each.
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1. oral route
2. SQ 3.IM 4. IV 5. IP 6. IA, intraarterial 7. IC, intracardiac 8. IM, intramedullary 9. Inhalation 10. topical 11. intradermal |
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List some of the factors that influence drug absorption
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1. method of absorbtion, 2. the ph of the durg and its ionization status, 3. the absorptive surface area, 4. the blood supply to the area, 5. the solubility of the drug, 6. the dosage form, 7. the status of the gi tract 8 interactions with other drugs
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Most biotransformation of drugs occurs in where?
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liver
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Must durg excretion occurs via?
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kidneys
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Drugs usually produce their effects by combining with specific cellular
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receptors
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The drug name that is chosen by the manufacturer and that is the exclusive property of that company is called
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proprietary/trade
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What are six items that must be on a drug label?
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1.drug names
2.drug concentration 3.name and address of the manufacturerer 4.controlled substance status 5.manufacturer's control or lot number 6. expiration date |
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What are three government agencies that regulate the development, approval and use of animal health products?
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FDA, EPA and USDA
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Why do many veterinary clinics dispense rather than prescribe most of the drugs that they use?
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profit
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Describe the marketing of animal health products
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veterinary pharmaceuticals may be purchased directly from the manufacturer, from distributors, or from generic mail order companies. In some instances drugs may be sold under one label to gradute veterinarians and under another as an over the counter product
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All FDA approved veterinary drugs are listed in the publication titled
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The Green Book
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What is the purpose of FARAD?
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provides resources concerning the avoidance of drug residues in animals
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Extralabel veterinary drug use was made legal under prescribed circumstances by what act of Congress?
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AMDUCA Animal medicinal drug use clarification act
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Define compounding
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Compounding refers tot he diluting or combining of existing drugs
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What are the potential danges of residues in animal products
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Drug residues in animal products may cause allergic reations or neoplasia in people and they may cause the development of antibiotic resistant strains of bacteria
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List three class of drug interactions.
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pharmacodynamic, pharmacokinetic and pharmaceutic
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Drug interaction can be anticipated when giving two drugs both metabilized by the?
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Liver
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Define ethical product
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one sold only through veterinarians as a policy of the manufacturer rather than by the FDA requirement
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Once a drug has been biotransformed it is called a:
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metabolite
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Pharmacodynamics
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the action or effect on one drug is altered by another (antagonistic, additive, and synergistic)
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pharmacokinetic
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plasma or tissue levels of the durg are altered by the presense of another (drug interaction)
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pharmaceutic
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physical or chemical reactions take place as a result of mixing drugs in a syringe or other container.
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bioavailability
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the degree to which a drug is absorbed and reaches the general circulation
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partition coefficient
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the degree of lipid solubility of a drug. high lipid partition coefficient indicated enhanced drug absorption
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What are the four chemical reactions induced by microsomal enzymes in the liver to biotransform drugs
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1. oxidation (loss of e-)
2. reduction (gain of e-) 3. hydrolysis (splitting of the drug molecule with the addition of a water molecule 4. Conjugation (the addition of glucuronic acid to the drug |
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The kidneys excrete drugs by two principle mechanisms
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1. glomerular filtration
2. tubular secretion |
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2.1. Name four common drug preparations
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oral, parenteral, topical, inhalation
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2.2. Boluses are used in the treatment of ________animals and are adminstered with a _______
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large, balling gun
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2.3.Name two types of parenteral injection forms
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injections
implants |
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2.4. Vials may be either ______dose or ______dose
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single, multi
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2.5. All used needles should be discarded in a _________
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sharps container
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2.6. Name the five rights of drug administration.
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1. right patient
2. right drug 3. right dose 4. right route 5. right time and frequency |
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2.7. Oral drugs should never be administered in animals that are __________
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vomiting
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2.8. IV administration of drugs allows the most __________and effective drug administration
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rapid
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2.9. An indwelling catheter should be replaced with a new one every __________hours
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72
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2.10. A simplex (gravity set) IV system is used to administer fluids to ________ animals
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large
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2.11. Name six items that should be recorded in the controlled substance log
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1. patient name
2. owner name 3. name of person administering 4. amount dispensed 5. date |
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2.12. Why should drugs give by injection not be stored in syringes for any length of time before administration?
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drug interaction with plastic, it may absorb the drug, making it less potent
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2.13. List four types of syring tips
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1. slip tip
2. luer lock 3. catheter tip 4. eccentric |
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2.14. A tuberculin syringe holds up to _________ ml of medication
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1 ml
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2.15. What type of syringe is divided into units rather than milliliters?
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insulin U40
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4.1.Define the difference between agonist and an opiod antagonist.
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an agonist is a drug that combines with a receptor to bring about an action, whereas an antagonist combines with a receptor to block that action.
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4.2.define neurotransmitter
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a chemical substance released by a nerve ending at the synapse. It acts on the adjacent neuron to stimulate, inhibit, or change its activity.
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The area of the brain that serves to relay information 4.3.from the spinal cord and brain stem to the interpretation center in the cerebrum is the...
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thalamus
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4.4.Most CNS drugs act by _______ or ________ the effects of neurotransmitters
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interupting the generation or conduction of nerve impulses, interferring with
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4.5.What are the primary neurotransmitters for adrenergic receptors?
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epinephrine and norepinephrine
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4.6. List four primary ways in which drugs affect the ANS
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1. mimicking neurotransmitters 2. interfering with neurotransmitter release 3. blocking the attachment of neurotransmitters to receptors 4. interfering with the breakdown of neurotransmitters
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4.7. List five indications for the use of cholinergic agents.
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1. control vomiting
2. treat urinary retention 3. stimulate gi activity 4. treat glaucoma 5. diagnose myasthenia gravis |
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4.8. Atropine, scopolamine, glycopyrrolate and aminopentamide are examples of what specific drug class?
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cholingergic blocking agents - anticholingergic
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4.9. What category of drug is used to treat cardiac arrest and anaphylactic shock?
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adrenergic - sympathomimetic
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4.10. Propranolol is an example of waht category of drug?
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beta blocker
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4.11. What are some adverse side effects of xylazine, and what drug may be used to antagonize it effects?
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Bradycardia and hypotension may be antagonized by using atropine; respiratory depression or excessive CNS depression may be antagonized by using yohimbine.
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4.12.Why would you be concerned about using a thiobarbiturate to induce anesthesia in a very thin dog?
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Thiobarbiturates are very soluble in fat, so thin animals don't absorb as much and more remains in the bloodstream and may cause excessive depression of the CNS.
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4.13. What are some of the characteristics of a cat anesthetized with ketamine?
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Analgesia, increased muscle tone, maintenance of pharyngeal/laryngeal reflexes, muscle tremors, and loss of the blink reflex.
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4.14. List some of the signs of a narcotic overdose.
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respiratory depression, cardiac depression, agitation, excitement, or seizures
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4.15. List two narcotic antagonists.
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naloxone and nalorphine
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4.16. why should glyceryl guaiacolate not be mixed until just before use?
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tendancy to precipitate out of soln
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4.17.What drug would you administer to a puppy delivered via c-section that was not breathing?
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doxapram may be administered on or under the tongue, into the umbilical vein or IM injection.
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4.18. Why are euthanasia solutions containing only pentobarbital classified as Class II whereas those containing pentobarbital and other substances are Class III controlled substances
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some pentobarbital euthanasia agents have a red dye added to distinguish them from pentobarbital agents used for anesthesia. less potential for abuse because easily identified.
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4.19. All psychotherapy drugs are thought to produce their effects by altering _________ in the brain.
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neurotransmitter
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4.20. Dissociative agents such as ketamine and tiletamine may cause ______ at the injection site.
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burning
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4.21. A hypnotic (anesthetic) known for its very short duration and white color is_________
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propofol
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4.22. An inhibitory neurotransmitter widely distributed in the brain is
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GABA
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4.23. a benzodiazepine used as an antianxiety medication and as an appetite stimulant in cats is ____________
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diazepam
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4.24. An example of a tricyclic antidepressant used in veterinary medicine for seperation anxiety in dogs is
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Clomicalm
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4.25. _______________ is used to treat old dog dementia
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Anipryl
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What do cholingergic agents do?
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1. diagnose myasthenia gravis
2. reduce intraocular pressure of glaucoma. 3. stimulate GI motility 4. Treat urinary retention 5. Control vomiting 6. antidote for neuromuscular blockers |
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What are the direct acting cholinergics
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1. acetycholine
2. carbamylcholine 3. bethanechol 4. Pilocarpine 5. Metoclopramide |
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Acetylcholine
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seldom used since it is broken down by acetylcholinesterase
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Carbamylcholine
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treat atony of the GI tract and to stimulate uterine contractions in swine
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Bethanechol (Urecholine)
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treat GI and urinary tract atony
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Pilocarpine
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direct acting cholingergic.
reduces intraocular pressure associated with glaucoma. |
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Metoclopramide
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direct acting cholingeric. controls vomiting and to promote gastric tract emptying.
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what are the indirect-acting (anticholinesterase) agents
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1. Edrophonium (Tensilon)
2. Neostigmine (Prostigmine, Stiglyn) 3. Physostigmine (Antilirium, Eserine) 4. Organophosphate compounds 5. Demecarium (Humorsol) 6. Pyridostigmine (Mestinon) |
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Edrophonium
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Indirect-Acting Cholinergic (Anticholinesterase)Agent. used to diagnose myasthenia gravis
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Neostigmine
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Indirect-Acting Cholinergic (Anticholinesterase)Agent.treat urine retention and GI atony, antidote to neuromuscular blocking agents
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Physostigmine
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Indirect-Acting Cholinergic (Anticholinesterase)Agent.treat urine retention and GI atony, antidote to neuromuscular blocking agents.
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Organophosphate compounds
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Indirect-Acting Cholinergic (Anticholinesterase)Agent.commonly used as insecticide dips and can result in toxicity.
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Demecarium
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Indirect-Acting Cholinergic (Anticholinesterase)Agent. preventive mangement of glaucoma.
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Pyridostigmine
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Indirect-Acting Cholinergic (Anticholinesterase)Agent. treatment of myasthenia gravis.
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What are the adverse side effects of cholinergic agents?
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bradycardia, hypotension, heart block, lacrimation, diarrhea, vomiting, increased intestinal activity, intestinal rupture, increased bronchial secretions.
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What are Anticholinergic Agents?
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drugs that block the action of acetycholine at muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic nervous system.
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What are the clinical uses of anticholinergic agents?
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1. Treatment of diarrhea and vomiting by decreasing GI motility.
2. preanesthetic to dry secretions and prevent bradycardia. 3. dilate pupils 4. relieve ciliary spasm of the eye 5. treat sinus bradycardia |
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Atropine
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anticholinergic. preanethetic to dry secretions and prevent bradycardia, antidote to organophosphate poisoning, dilate pupils, slow hypermotile gut
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Scopolamine
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anticholinergic. antidiarrheal medication
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Methscopolamine
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anticholinergic. control diarrhea.
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Glycopyrrolate
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anticholinergic. similar to atropine, lasts longer. doesn't cross placential barrier.
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Aminopentamide
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anticholinergic. control vomiting and diarrhea in dogs and cats.
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propantheline
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anticholinergic. treat diarrhea, urinary incontinence and bradycardia, reduce colonic peristalsis in horses to allow rectal examination.
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Pralidoxime
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A cholinesterase reactivator used to treat organophosphate intoxication. (anticholinergic)
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What are the adverse side effects of anticholinergic drugs?
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they are dose related. can cause drowsiness, disorientation, tachycardia, photophobia, constipation, anxiety, and buring at injection site.
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What are the Adrenergic (Sypathomimetic) Agents?
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bring about action at receptors mediated by epinephrine or norepinephrine. Can be classified as catecholamines or noncatecholamines and receptor types (alpha-1, alpha-2,beta-1, beta-2.
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Alpha receptor activity causes an __________ response, except for the GI tract.
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excitatory
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beta stimulation causes an _______, except for in the heart.
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inhibitory
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What are the clinical uses for adrenergic agents?
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1. stimulate the heart during cardiac arrest.
2. reverse hypotension and bronchoconstriction of anphylactic shock. 3. strengthen the heart during congestive heart failure 4. correct hypotension through vascoconstriction 5. reduce capillary bleeding thru vacoconstriction 6. treat urinary incontinence 7. reduce mucous membrane congestion in allergic conditions. 8. prolong effects of local anesthetic agents by causing vascoconstriction. 9. treat glaucoma |
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Epinephrine
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adrenergic agent. stimulate all receptors to cause an increase in heart rate and cardiac output, constriction of blood vessels in muscle, dilation of bronchioles, and increase metabolic rate.
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Norepinephrine
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adrenergic agent. Alpha stimulator with some beta stimulation. vasopressor (raise blood pressure)
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Isoproternol
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adrenergic agent. pure beta stimulator. Bronchodilation.
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Phenylephrine
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adrenergic agent. alpha stimulator, nasal vasoconstrictor
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Dopamine
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adrenergic agent. precurser to epinephrine/norepinephrine.
Dose dependent action, treat shock and CHF, increase renal perfursion. |
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Phenylpropanolamine
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adrenergic agent. PPA to treat urinary incontinence
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Dobutamine
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adrenergic agent. beta-1 agonist used for short term treatment of heart failure
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Ephedrine
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adrenergic agent. beta agonists, bronchodilation.
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Xylazine
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alpha-2 agonist with analgesic and sedative properties.
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What are the adverse side effects of adrenergic agents (sympathomimetic)
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tachycardia, hypertension, nervousness and cardiac arrhythmias.
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what dilution of epinephrine is used to treat cardiac arrest?
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1:10,000
mix 1 ml of epi (1:1000) with 9ml of sterile water. |
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Adrenergic Blocking Agents are?
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used to disrupt the activity of the sympathetic nervous system.
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what are the alpha adrenergic blockers?
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1. Phenoxybenzamine
2. Tranquilizers (Ace, droperidol) 3. Prazosin 4. Yohimbine 5. Atepamezole (antisedan) |
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Phenoxybenzamine
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alpha adrenergic blocker, a hypotensive (vasodilator) agent.
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Tranquilizers - acepromazine
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alpha adrenergic blocker, cause vasodilation
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Prazosin
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alpha adrenergic blocker, a hyptensive agent
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Yohimbine
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alpha adrenergic blocker, antidote for xylazine toxicity
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Atipamezole (Antisedan)
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alpha adrenergic blocker, reversal agent for medetomidine (dormitor)
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What are the side effects of alpha adrenergic blockers?
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hypotension (phenoxybenzamine, tranquilizers, prazosin
tachycardia - phenoxybenzamine muscle tremors - yohimbine seizures - acepromazine |
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What are Beta Blockers (adrenergic)
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Used tp treat glaucoma, arrhythmias, and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
1. Propranolol 2. Timolol 3. Atenolol |
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Propranolol
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Adrenergic Beta Blocker, treat cardiac arrhythmias and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
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12.1 A determination can be made to distinguish different types of bacteria by employing a __________ stain
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12.1 Gram
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12.2 Gram positive bacteria will stain what color?
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12.2 blue
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12.3 Gram-negative bacteria will stain what color?
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12.3 red
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12.4 ___________ is approved for use in lactating dairy animals.
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12.4 Naxcel(Ceftiofur sodium)
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12.5 ______________ can cause staining of teeth in young animals.
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12.5 tetracyclines
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12.6 ____________ should never be given intravenously to horses.
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12.6 tetracycline
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12.7 Some aminoglycosides may be ___________ toxic and/or ___________ toxic
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12.7 oto, nephro
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12.8 Griseofulvin is used to treat _______________.
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12.8 Dermatophyytosis
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12.9 A drug's __________ of activity is the range of bacteria affected by its action.
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12.9 Spectrum
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12.10 T or F. Aerobes are bacteria that require oxygen to live.
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12.10 True
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13.1 Name five types of symbiotic relationships.
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13.1 1)predator-prey 2) phoresis 3)mutualism 4)commensalism 5)parasitism
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13.2 What is parasitiasis?
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13.2 an animal is infected with parasites, but no clinical signs can be observed.
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13.3 What is parasitosis?
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13.3 an animal is infected with parasites, and clinical signs can be observed.
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13.4 What are ectoparasites?
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13.4 infect outside of the body
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13.5 What are endoparasites?
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13.5 infect the inside of the body.
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13.6 An animal with endoparasites is said to be ___________, while an animal with ectoparasites is said to be ____________.
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13.6 infected, infested
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13.7 What is an anthelminitc?
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13.7 a drug that is adminstered to rid the body of endoparasites.
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13.8 _____________ should never be used on cats.
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13.8 organophosphate
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13.9 IGR is an acronym for?
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13.9 Insect growth regulators
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13.10 Praziquantel is a drug used to rid the body of ___________
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13.10 tapeworms
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