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57 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1) What is the etiology of CHF?
A. Impaired ability of the cardiac muscle to contract or increased workload imposed on the heart
B. Aberrations in impulse generation (abnormal automaticity) or defects in impulse conduction (reentry is the most common cause)
C. Sudden, severe pressing substernal pain radiating to the neck, jaw, back and left arm, which may be triggered by emotional disturbance or physical exertion
D. More than 90% are idiopathic or called essential hypertension, may also occur secondary to other disease processes
A. Impaired ability of the cardiac muscle to contract or increased workload imposed on the heart
2) What is an example of the anticoagulant warfarin (Coumadin) and what is it used for?
A) Injectable, rapid acting anticoagulant that acts by binding to antithrombin III to cause a rapid anticoagulation effect, and is often used acutely to interfere with the formation of thrombi
B) Oral anticoagulant, should never be used in pregnancy because it is teratogenic and can case spontaneous abortion
C) Product of recombinant DNA technology, and currently approved for the treatment of thromboembolic diseases, such as myocardial infarction, massive pulmonary embolism, and acute ischemic stroke
B) Oral anticoagulant, should never be used in pregnancy because it is teratogenic and can case spontaneous abortion
3) What is the mechanism of action of cardiac glycosides (digitalis)?
A. Inhibits sodium-potassium pump, resulting in increased intracellular calcium concentration and stronger cardiac muscle contraction
B. Stimulates uterine contraction to induce or reinforce labor or promotes breast mild ejection.
C. Has both antidiuretic and vasopressor effects, its major use is to treat diabetes indipidus and it also finds use in controlling bleeding due to esophageal varices or colonic diverticula
D. Increases glucose uptake and utilization by target tissues, thus decreasing insulin resistance. Is also effective in treating PCOS in which there is insulin resistance. Does not stimulate insulin secretion
A. Inhibits sodium-potassium pump, resulting in increased intracellular calcium concentration and stronger cardiac muscle contraction
4) What is not one of the 3 categories of oral hypoglycemic agents?\
A. Insulin Secretagogues
B. Beta-Glucosidase Antagonists
C. Insulin sensitizers
D. Alpha-Glucosidase inhibitors
B. Beta-Glucosidase Antagonists
What is an example of the platelet inhibitor dipyridamole and what is it used for?
A) (Ecotrin, Aspergum): currently employed in the prophylactic treatment of transient cerebral ischemia, to reduce the incidence of recurrent myocardial infarction, and to decrease mortality in postmyocardial infarction patients
B) (Plavix): have been shown to be effective in preventing cerebrovascular and cardiovascular as well as peripheral vascular disease, and are not routinely used in coronary stent insertion during a myocardial infarction
C) (Persantine): is usually given in combination with aspirin to prophylactically treat angina pectoris and prevent stroke and TIA, and in combination with warfarin for inhibiting embolization from prosthetic heart valve
C) (Persantine): is usually given in combination with aspirin to prophylactically treat angina pectoris and prevent stroke and TIA, and in combination with warfarin for inhibiting embolization from prosthetic heart valve
What is not a way that hyperthyroidism is treated?
A. Remove all or part of the thyroid, surgery or radioactive iodine
B. Inhibit thyroid hormone synthesis
C. Use oxytocin and vasopressin
D. Block hormone release
E. Beta blockers
C. Use oxytocin and vasopressin
What antihyperlipidemic drug has the strongest effect on TG?
A. Bile acid binding resins
B. Niacin
C. Fibrates
D. Cholesterol absorption inhibitors
C. Fibrates
What of these sets of drugs is not part of the 9 categories of antihypertensive drugs?
A. Diuretics, Beta-Blockers, ACE inhibitors
B. Angiotensin II antagonists, Calcium channel blockers, Alpha-Blockers
C. Platelet inhibitors, Cardiac glycosides, Beta-Adrenergic antagonists
D. Centrally acting adrenergic drugs, Vasodilators, Drugs used in hypertensive emergency
C. Platelet inhibitors, Cardiac glycosides, Beta-Adrenergic antagonists
What is not a type of angina pectoris?
A. Insufficient angina
B. Stable angina
C. Unstable angina
D. Prinzmetal or variant angina
A. Insufficient angina
What is not a major class of oral contraceptives and implantable contraceptives?
A. Combination pills
B. Progestin pills
C. Progestin implants
D. Insulin sensitizers
E. Postcoital contraception
D. Insulin sensitizers
) What is the clinical indication of danazol (Danocrine)?
A. Increases the section of GnRH and gonadotropins, leading to a stimulation of ovulation
B. Is currently used in the palliative treatment of advanced breast cancer in postmenopausal women
C. A progestin antagonist with partial agonist activity, also a potent antiglucocorticoid, effectively used in terminating early gestation (abortifacient), and as a contraceptive, given once a month during midluteal phase of the uterine cycle
D. Is a mild androgen used to treat endometriosis
D. Is a mild androgen used to treat endometriosis
) What is an example of the thrombolytic agent Alteplase (tPA) and what is it used for?
A) Injectable, rapid acting anticoagulant that acts by binding to antithrombin III to cause a rapid anticoagulation effect, and is often used acutely to interfere with the formation of thrombi
B) Oral anticoagulant, should never be used in pregnancy because it is teratogenic and can case spontaneous abortion
C) Product of recombinant DNA technology, and currently approved for the treatment of thromboembolic diseases, such as myocardial infarction, massive pulmonary embolism, and acute ischemic stroke
C) Product of recombinant DNA technology, and currently approved for the treatment of thromboembolic diseases, such as myocardial infarction, massive pulmonary embolism, and acute ischemic stroke
What are the commonly observed adverse effects of long-term corticosteroid therapy?
A. Just hypoglycemia
B. Hypoglycemia, GI disturbances, weight gain and a risk of hepatotoxicity
C. Osteoporosis, increased risk of infection, increased appetite, hypertension, edema, peptic ulcers, euphoria and psychosis
C. Osteoporosis, increased risk of infection, increased appetite, hypertension, edema, peptic ulcers, euphoria and psychosis
) Which is not a category of drugs that can be used to treat CHF?
A. Renin-angiotensin system inhibitors (Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and Angiotensin II receptor blockers- ARBs)
B. Beta-Adrenergic antagonists
C. Platelet inhibitors
D. Diuretics
D. Diuretics
The diuretic drug Spironolactone has the action of what, respectively?
A. Retain calcium
B. Retain potassium
C. Treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and male pattern hair loss
D. Treatment of prostatic carcinoma in males
B. Retain potassium
) What are the differences between ACE inhibitors (enalapril) and ARBs (losartan)?
A. ACE inhibitor enalapril (Vasotec) inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, causing decreased preload and afterload and increased cardiac output- causes a cough
B. ARB losartan (Cozaar) is an extremely potent competitive antagonist of increased cardiac output- does not cause a cough
C. ACE inhibitor enalapril (Vasotec) inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, causing decreased preload and afterload and increased cardiac output- does not cause a cough
D. ARB losartan (Cozaar) is an extremely potent competitive antagonist of increased cardiac output- causes a cough
E. A and B
F. C and D
E. A and B
) What is the definition of arrhythmias?
A. Failure of the heart to pump sufficient blood to meet the needs of the body
B. Abnormalities in impulse formation and conduction in the myocardium, which may occur in the atria, AV node, or ventricles
C. Chest pain caused by coronary blood flow that is insufficient to meet the oxygen demands of the myocardium
D. Either a sustained systolic blood pressure of greater than 140 or a sustained diastolic blood pressure greater than 90
B. Abnormalities in impulse formation and conduction in the myocardium, which may occur in the atria, AV node, or ventricles
) What are the characteristics of angina pectoris?
A. Impaired ability of the cardiac muscle to contract or increased workload imposed on the heart
B. Aberrations in impulse generation (abnormal automaticity) or defects in impulse conduction (reentry is the most common cause)
C. Sudden, severe pressing substernal pain radiating to the neck, jaw, back and left arm, which may be triggered by emotional disturbance or physical exertion
D. More than 90% are idiopathic or called essential hypertension, may also occur secondary to other disease processes
C. Sudden, severe pressing substernal pain radiating to the neck, jaw, back and left arm, which may be triggered by emotional disturbance or physical exertion
What is the first line of the strategies of administration of antihypertensive drugs?
A. Diuretics and Beta blockers
B. ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers
C. Other agents like alpha-blockers, centrally-acting adrenergic drugs, and vasodilators
A. Diuretics and Beta blockers
Which of these is not one of the 5 categories of antihyperlipidemic drugs?
A. 3-Hydroxy 3 methylglutaryl coenzyme A (CoA) reductase inhibitors (statins)
B. Niacin (nicotinic acid) and Fibrates
C. Bile acid binding resins and Cholesterol absorption inhibitors
D. Centrally acting adrenergic drugs
D. Centrally acting adrenergic drugs
What is the differences between thiazide diuretics (hydrochlorothiazide) and loop diuretics (furosemide)?
A. Thiazide is the most efficacious of all diuretics, inhibits sodium, potassium, and chloride ions reabsorption in ascending loop of Henle, resulting in retention of these ions and water in the tubular lemen
B. Furosemide is the most commonly used, inhibits reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions in distal convoluted tubule
C. Thiazide is the most commonly used, inhibits reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions in distal convoluted tubule
D. Furosemide is the most efficacious of all diuretics, inhibits sodium, potassium, and chloride ions reabsorption in ascending loop of Henle, resulting in retention of these ions and water in the tubular lemen
E. A and B
F. C and D
F. C and D
) What are examples of the platelet inhibitor aspirin and what are they used for?
A) (Ecotrin, Aspergum): currently employed in the prophylactic treatment of transient cerebral ischemia, to reduce the incidence of recurrent myocardial infarction, and to decrease mortality in postmyocardial infarction patients
B) (Plavix): have been shown to be effective in preventing cerebrovascular and cardiovascular as well as peripheral vascular disease, and are not routinely used in coronary stent insertion during a myocardial infarction
C) (Persantine): is usually given in combination with aspirin to prophylactically treat angina pectoris and prevent stroke and TIA, and in combination with warfarin for inhibiting embolization from prosthetic heart valve
A) (Ecotrin, Aspergum): currently employed in the prophylactic treatment of transient cerebral ischemia, to reduce the incidence of recurrent myocardial infarction, and to decrease mortality in postmyocardial infarction patients
What are the clinical indications of leuprolide?
A. To increase cardiac output
B. Is a synthetic analog of Gn RH and is effective in suppressing production of gonadal hormones through down regulation mechanism, thus effective in the treatment of prostatic and breast cancers, endometriosis, and precocious pubery, also used to control ovarian stimulation in IVF
C. The treatment of infertility in men and women
D. Dopamine agonist used to treat galactorrhea and hypogonadism (and Parkinson’s)
B. Is a synthetic analog of Gn RH and is effective in suppressing production of gonadal hormones through down regulation mechanism, thus effective in the treatment of prostatic and breast cancers, endometriosis, and precocious pubery, also used to control ovarian stimulation in IVF
What are the clinical indications of vasopressin?
A. Inhibits sodium-potassium pump, resulting in increased intracellular calcium concentration and stronger cardiac muscle contraction
B. Stimulates uterine contraction to induce or reinforce labor or promotes breast mild ejection
C. Has both antidiuretic and vasopressor effects, its major use is to treat diabetes insipidus and it also finds use in controlling bleeding due to esophageal varices or colonic diverticula
D. Increases glucose uptake and utilization by target tissues, thus decreasing insulin resistance. Is also effective in treating PCOS in which there is insulin resistance. Does not stimulate insulin secretion
C. Has both antidiuretic and vasopressor effects, its major use is to treat diabetes insipidus and it also finds use in controlling bleeding due to esophageal varices or colonic diverticula C. Has both antidiuretic and vasopressor effects, its major use is to treat diabetes insipidus and it also finds use in controlling bleeding due to esophageal varices or colonic diverticula
How is regular insulin (RI) used clinically?
A. Subcutaneously
B. Intravenously
C. Lowers blood sugar within minutes
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
What is a combination of estrogen and progesterone most commonly used for?
A. Contraception
B. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
C. Suppression of postpartum lactation
D. Treatment of endometrial carcinomas
A. Contraception
) What are the actions of the antiprogestin mifepristone (Mifeprex or RU-486)?
A. Increases the section of GnRH and gonadotropins, leading to a stimulation of ovulation
B. Is currently used in the palliative treatment of advanced breast cancer in postmenopausal women
C. A progestin antagonist with partial agonist activity, also a potent antiglucocorticoid, effectively used in terminating early gestation (abortifacient), and as a contraceptive, given once a month during midluteal phase of the uterine cycle
D. Is a mild androgen used to treat endometriosis
C. A progestin antagonist with partial agonist activity, also a potent antiglucocorticoid, effectively used in terminating early gestation (abortifacient), and as a contraceptive, given once a month during midluteal phase of the uterine cycle
What is the etiology of arrhythmias?
A. Impaired ability of the cardiac muscle to contract or increased workload imposed on the heart
B. Aberrations in impulse generation (abnormal automaticity) or defects in impulse conduction (reentry is the most common cause)
C. Sudden, severe pressing substernal pain radiating to the neck, jaw, back and left arm, which may be triggered by emotional disturbance or physical exertion
D. More than 90% are idiopathic or called essential hypertension, may also occur secondary to other disease processes
B. Aberrations in impulse generation (abnormal automaticity) or defects in impulse conduction (reentry is the most common cause)
) The diuretic drug hydrochlorothiazide has the action of what, respectively?
A. Retain calcium
B. Retain potassium
C. Treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and male pattern hair loss
D. Treatment of prostatic carcinoma in males
A. Retain calcium
What is the definition of hypertension?
A. Failure of the heart to pump sufficient blood to meet the needs of the body
B. Abnormalities in impulse formation and conduction in the myocardium, which may occur in the atria, AV node, or ventricles
C. Chest pain caused by coronary blood flow that is insufficient to meet the oxygen demands of the myocardium
D. Either a sustained systolic blood pressure of greater than 140 or a sustained diastolic blood pressure greater than 90
D. Either a sustained systolic blood pressure of greater than 140 or a sustained diastolic blood pressure greater than 90
) What is the difference of strategies of administration of antihypertensive drugs for mild and severe cases?
A. Mild cases may require treatment with several drugs that are selected to minimize adverse effects of the combined regime
B. More severe cases can often be controlled with a single drug
C. Mild cases can often be controlled with a single drug
D. More severe cases may require treatment with several drugs that are selected to minimize adverse effects of the combined regime.
E. A and B
F. C and D
F. C and D
What is the third line of the strategies of administration of antihypertensive drugs when patients still fail to respond?
A. Diuretics and Beta blockers
B. ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers
C. Other agents like alpha-blockers, centrally-acting adrenergic drugs, and vasodilators
C. Other agents like alpha-blockers, centrally-acting adrenergic drugs, and vasodilators
) What antihyperlipidemic drug has the strongest effect on LDL?
A. Bile acid binding resins
B. Niacin
C. Fibrates
D. Cholesterol absorption inhibitors
A. Bile acid binding resins
) What is an example of the anticoagulant heparin and what is it used for?
A) Injectable, rapid acting anticoagulant that acts by binding to antithrombin III to cause a rapid anticoagulation effect, and is often used acutely to interfere with the formation of thrombi
B) Oral anticoagulant, should never be used in pregnancy because it is teratogenic and can case spontaneous abortion
C) Product of recombinant DNA technology, and currently approved for the treatment of thromboembolic diseases, such as myocardial infarction, massive pulmonary embolism, and acute ischemic stroke
A) Injectable, rapid acting anticoagulant that acts by binding to antithrombin III to cause a rapid anticoagulation effect, and is often used acutely to interfere with the formation of thrombi
What is the mechanism of action of bromocriptine?
A. To increase cardiac output
B. Is a synthetic analog of Gn RH and is effective in suppressing production of gonadal hormones through down regulation mechanism, thus effective in the treatment of prostatic and breast cancers, endometriosis, and precocious pubery, also used to control ovarian stimulation in IVF
C. The treatment of infertility in men and women
D. Dopamine agonist used to treat galactorrhea and hypogonadism (and Parkinson’s)
D. Dopamine agonist used to treat galactorrhea and hypogonadism (and Parkinson’s)
) How is hypothyroidism treated?
A. Remove all or part of the thyroid, surgery or radioactive iodine
B. Inhibit thyroid hormone synthesis
C. Use Levothroxine or Synthroid
D. Block hormone release
E. Beta blockers
C. Use Levothroxine or Synthroid
What are the standard and intensive treatments of diabetes mellitus?
A. Standard TX: injection of insulin twice daily, resulting in mean blood glucose levels in the range of 225 to 275 mg/dL with HbA1C of 8-9% of total hemoglobin
B. Intensive TX: seeks to normalize blood glucose through more frequent injections of insulin (three or more times daily in response to monitoring blood glucose levels), achieving mean blood glucose levels of 150 mg/dL with HbA1C of of approximately 7% of total hemoglobin
C. Standard TX: seeks to normalize blood glucose through more frequent injections of insulin (three or more times daily in response to monitoring blood glucose levels), achieving mean blood glucose levels of 150 mg/dL with HbA1C of of approximately 7% of total hemoglobin
D. Intensive TX: injection of insulin twice daily, resulting in mean blood glucose levels in the range of 225 to 275 mg/dL with HbA1C of 8-9% of total hemoglobin
E. A and B
F. C and D
E. A and B
What is the mode of action of metformin (Glucophage)?
A. Inhibits sodium-potassium pump, resulting in increased intracellular calcium concentration and stronger cardiac muscle contraction
B. Stimulates uterine contraction to induce or reinforce labor or promotes breast mild ejection
C. Has both antidiuretic and vasopressor effects, its major use is to treat diabetes insipidus and it also finds use in controlling bleeding due to esophageal varices or colonic diverticula
D. Increases glucose uptake and utilization by target tissues, thus decreasing insulin resistance. Is also effective in treating PCOS in which there is insulin resistance. Does not stimulate insulin secretion
D. Increases glucose uptake and utilization by target tissues, thus decreasing insulin resistance. Is also effective in treating PCOS in which there is insulin resistance. Does not stimulate insulin secretion
What are the clinical indications of the antiestrogen clomiphene (Clomid)?
A. Increases the section of GnRH and gonadotropins, leading to a stimulation of ovulation
B. Is currently used in the palliative treatment of advanced breast cancer in postmenopausal women
C. A progestin antagonist with partial agonist activity, also a potent antiglucocorticoid, effectively used in terminating early gestation (abortifacient), and as a contraceptive, given once a month during midluteal phase of the uterine cycle
D. Is a mild androgen used to treat endometriosis
A. Increases the section of GnRH and gonadotropins, leading to a stimulation of ovulation
What is not a therapeutic action of adrenal corticosteroids?
A. Replacement therapy for primary adrenocortical insufficiency (Addison’s disease) and secondary (anterior pituitary) or tertiary (hypothalamus) adrenocortical insufficiency
B. Diagnosis of Cushing’s syndrome (dexamethasone suppression test)
C. Is currently used in the palliative treatment of advanced breast cancer in postmenopausal women
D. Replacement therapy for congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)
E. Relief of inflammatory and autoimmune symptoms
F. Treatment of allergic reactions (such as bronchial asthma)
C. Is currently used in the palliative treatment of advanced breast cancer in postmenopausal women
What is the pathophysiology of CHF?
A. Compensatory physiological responses include increased sympathetic activity, fluid retention, and myocardial hypertrophy, while decompensated state is the condition in which adaptive mechanisms fail to maintain cardiac output
B. Autonomic nervous system and renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
C. Because Jesus said so
D. Y’know, it’s hard coming up with alternate answers
A. Compensatory physiological responses include increased sympathetic activity, fluid retention, and myocardial hypertrophy, while decompensated state is the condition in which adaptive mechanisms fail to maintain cardiac output
) What are the clinical indications of the antiandrogen flutamide (Eulexin)?
A. Retain calcium
B. Retain potassium
C. Treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and male pattern hair loss
D. Treatment of prostatic carcinoma in males
D. Treatment of prostatic carcinoma in males
Which is not a category of drugs that can be used to treat CHF?
A. Direct vasodilators (Antianginal drugs)
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Inotropic (Cardiac glycosides- digitalis, Beta-Adrenergic agonists, Phosphodiesterase inhibitors)
D. Aldosterone antagonists
B. Calcium channel blockers
What is the definition of angina pectoris?
A. Failure of the heart to pump sufficient blood to meet the needs of the body
B. Abnormalities in impulse formation and conduction in the myocardium, which may occur in the atria, AV node, or ventricles
C. Chest pain caused by coronary blood flow that is insufficient to meet the oxygen demands of the myocardium
D. Either a sustained systolic blood pressure of greater than 140 or a sustained diastolic blood pressure greater than 90
C. Chest pain caused by coronary blood flow that is insufficient to meet the oxygen demands of the myocardium
What is the second line of the strategies of administration of antihypertensive drugs, when first-line agents are contraindicated or ineffective?
A. Diuretics and Beta blockers
B. ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers
C. Other agents like alpha-blockers, centrally-acting adrenergic drugs, and vasodilators
B. ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers
What can gonadotropins (hMG and hCG) be used for?
A. To increase cardiac output
B. Is a synthetic analog of Gn RH and is effective in suppressing production of gonadal hormones through down regulation mechanism, thus effective in the treatment of prostatic and breast cancers, endometriosis, and precocious pubery, also used to control ovarian stimulation in IVF
C. The treatment of infertility in men and women
D. Dopamine agonist used to treat galactorrhea and hypogonadism (and Parkinson’s)
C. The treatment of infertility in men and women
What is the etiology of hypertension?
A. Impaired ability of the cardiac muscle to contract or increased workload imposed on the heart
B. Aberrations in impulse generation (abnormal automaticity) or defects in impulse conduction (reentry is the most common cause)
C. Sudden, severe pressing substernal pain radiating to the neck, jaw, back and left arm, which may be triggered by emotional disturbance or physical exertion
D. More than 90% are idiopathic or called essential hypertension, may also occur secondary to other disease processes
D. More than 90% are idiopathic or called essential hypertension, may also occur secondary to other disease processes
What is an example of the platelet inhibitor clopidogrel and what is it used for?
A) (Ecotrin, Aspergum): currently employed in the prophylactic treatment of transient cerebral ischemia, to reduce the incidence of recurrent myocardial infarction, and to decrease mortality in postmyocardial infarction patients
B) (Plavix): have been shown to be effective in preventing cerebrovascular and cardiovascular as well as peripheral vascular disease, and are not routinely used in coronary stent insertion during a myocardial infarction
C) (Persantine): is usually given in combination with aspirin to prophylactically treat angina pectoris and prevent stroke and TIA, and in combination with warfarin for inhibiting embolization from prosthetic heart valve
B) (Plavix): have been shown to be effective in preventing cerebrovascular and cardiovascular as well as peripheral vascular disease, and are not routinely used in coronary stent insertion during a myocardial infarction
What is the most serious and common adverse reaction to an overdose of insulin?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Risk of hepatotoxicity
C. Osteoporosis
D. Psychosis
A. Hypoglycemia
) What are the clinical indications of oxytocin?
A. Inhibits sodium-potassium pump, resulting in increased intracellular calcium concentration and stronger cardiac muscle contraction
B. Stimulates uterine contraction to induce or reinforce labor or promotes breast mild ejection
C. Has both antidiuretic and vasopressor effects, its major use is to treat diabetes insipidus and it also finds use in controlling bleeding due to esophageal varices or colonic diverticula
D. Increases glucose uptake and utilization by target tissues, thus decreasing insulin resistance. Is also effective in treating PCOS in which there is insulin resistance. Does not stimulate insulin secretion
B. Stimulates uterine contraction to induce or reinforce labor or promotes breast mild ejection
What is the definition of CHF?
A. Failure of the heart to pump sufficient blood to meet the needs of the body
B. Abnormalities in impulse formation and conduction in the myocardium, which may occur in the atria, AV node, or ventricles
C. Chest pain caused by coronary blood flow that is insufficient to meet the oxygen demands of the myocardium
D. Either a sustained systolic blood pressure of greater than 140 or a sustained diastolic blood pressure greater than 90
A. Failure of the heart to pump sufficient blood to meet the needs of the body
What are the clinical indications of the antiestrogen tamoxifen (Nolvadex)?
A. Increases the section of GnRH and gonadotropins, leading to a stimulation of ovulation
B. Is currently used in the palliative treatment of advanced breast cancer in postmenopausal women
C. A progestin antagonist with partial agonist activity, also a potent antiglucocorticoid, effectively used in terminating early gestation (abortifacient), and as a contraceptive, given once a month during midluteal phase of the uterine cycle
D. Is a mild androgen used to treat endometriosis
B. Is currently used in the palliative treatment of advanced breast cancer in postmenopausal women
) What are the adverse effects observed with the use of oral hyperglycemic drugs?
A. Just hypoglycemia
B. Hypoglycemia, GI disturbances, weight gain and a risk of hepatotoxicity
C. Osteoporosis, increased risk of infection, increased appetite
D. Hypertension, edema, peptic ulcers, euphoria and psychosis
B. Hypoglycemia, GI disturbances, weight gain and a risk of hepatotoxicity
) What is the pathophysiology of hypertension?
A. Compensatory physiological responses include increased sympathetic activity, fluid retention, and myocardial hypertrophy, while decompensated state is the condition in which adaptive mechanisms fail to maintain cardiac output
B. Autonomic nervous system and renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
C. Because Jesus said so
D. Y’know, it’s hard coming up with alternate answers
B. Autonomic nervous system and renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
What is the therapeutic goal in the treatment of CHF?
A. To increase cardiac output
B. Is a synthetic analog of Gn RH and is effective in suppressing production of gonadal hormones through down regulation mechanism, thus effective in the treatment of prostatic and breast cancers, endometriosis, and precocious pubery, also used to control ovarian stimulation in IVF
C. The treatment of infertility in men and women
D. Dopamine agonist used to treat galactorrhea and hypogonadism (and Parkinson’s)
A. To increase cardiac output
) What antihyperlipidemic drug has the strongest effect on HDL?
A. Bile acid binding resins
B. Niacin
C. Fibrates
D. Cholesterol absorption inhibitors
B. Niacin
What are the clinical indications of the antiandrogen finasteride (Proscar)?
A. Retain calcium
B. Retain potassium
C. Treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and male pattern hair loss
D. Treatment of prostatic carcinoma in males
C. Treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and male pattern hair loss