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90 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The “component” definition of general anesthesia refers to the following change(s) in the behavior and perception in the subject:
a.Unconsciousness b. Immobility c. Analgesia d. Amnesia e. All of the above components f. None of the above components |
e. All of the above components
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The cellular mechanism(s) of action for most of the inhalational and intravenous general anesthetics can be defined as:
a. Enhance excitatory synapses and suppress inhibitory synapses. b. Enhance both excitatory synapses and inhibitory synapses. c. Inhibit both excitatory synapses and inhibitory synapses. d. Inhibit excitatory synapses and enhance inhibitory synapses. e. All of the above are correct. f. None of the above is correct. |
d. Inhibit excitatory synapses and enhance inhibitory synapses.
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GABA-gated chloride channels (GABAA receptors) are one of the molecular targets of general anesthetics. The interaction between most general anesthetics and GABAA receptors and the consequence of the interaction(s) can be characterized as follows:
a. They (most general anesthetics) compete with GABA to bind to the GABAA receptors and hence decrease the inhibitory GABAergic neurotransmission. b. They (most general anesthetics) compete with GABA to bind to the GABAA receptors and hence increase the inhibitory GABAergic neurotransmission. c. They (most general anesthetics) do not compete with GABA to bind to the GABAA receptor but instead interact at a different site to increase the receptor’s affinity to GABA, hence enhancing the inhibitory GABAergic neurotransmission. d. They (most general anesthetics) do not compete with GABA to bind to the GABAA receptor but instead interact at a different site to decrease the receptor’s affinity to GABA, hence increasing the inhibitory GABAergic neurotransmission. e. All of the above are correct. f. None of the above is correct. |
c. They (most general anesthetics) do not compete with GABA to bind to the GABAA receptor but instead interact at a different site to increase the receptor’s affinity to GABA, hence enhancing the inhibitory GABAergic neurotransmission
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An inhalational general anesthetic that has a very high MAC value (minimal alveolar concentration) and a very low blood:gas partition coefficient will:
a. Have a high potency and a fast induction rate. b. Have a low potency but a fast induction rate. c. Have a high potency but a slow induction rate. d. Have a low potency and a slow induction rate. e. All of the above are correct. f. None of the above is correct. |
b. Have a low potency but a fast induction rate.
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For an amide type local anesthetic to exert its effect on the sodium channels of the target neurons to block neurotransmission, its charge-carrying status is critical to its effectiveness because:
a. It has to be charged to effectively bind to the neuronal sodium channel but has to be uncharged to efficiently pass through the neuronal membranes to gain access first. b. It has to remain uncharged to both efficiently pass through the neuronal membranes and bind to the neuronal sodium channel. c. It has to be uncharged to effectively bind to the neuronal sodium channel but has to be charged to efficiently pass through the neuronal membranes to gain access first. d. It has to remain charged to both efficiently pass through the neuronal membranes and effectively bind to the neuronal sodium channel. e. All of the above are correct. f.None of the above is correct. |
a. It has to be charged to effectively bind to the neuronal sodium channel but has to be uncharged to efficiently pass through the neuronal membranes to gain access first.
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The reason (s) that ester type local anesthetics in general, are less potent and shorter-acting than amide type local anesthetics is (are):
a. Ester types local anesthetics do not carry any charge. b. The ester bond in the ester type local anesthetics is very prone to be oxidized by MAO-B. c. The ester type local anesthetics are easily broken down by various esterase’s in the tissues and blood. d. The ester type local anesthetics carry too much charge. e. All of the above are correct. f. None of the above is correct. |
c. The ester type local anesthetics are easily broken down by various esterase’s in the tissues and blood.
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Dysplasia- refers to the adaptive substitution of one cell type for another due to chronic irritation b. Metaplasia – refers to an increase in cells size or number c. Neoplasia - refers to loss of uniformity and architectural orientation d. Hyperplasia – refers to cells that show a decreased response to cyclin-dependent kinases like P53 e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
f. None of the above is correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Tumor cell growth is constant regardless of type and stage of cancer b. A single tumor cell will always lead to cancer c. All tumors show homogeneous cell types. d. Grade 3 tumors are poorly differentiated and do not resemble the tissue of origin e.All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
d. Grade 3 tumors are poorly differentiated and do not resemble the tissue of origin
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Which of the following is/are true about the Gompertzian model of tumor cell growth?
a. A constant fraction of cells are killed with each cancer treatment b. Clinical detection of tumors usually occurs at 106 cells c. Killing 99.9% of tumor cells results in a decrease of 3 log units in tumor cell load d.Death usually occurs with a tumor load of 1010 cells e. A and C are correct f. All of the above are correct |
e. A and C are correct
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Which of the following is/are true about the cell cycle?
a. Alkylating agents are G1 specific b. P53 gene activity acts as a gate keeper for cell growth at the G1/S phase interface c. G2 phase is when DNA synthesis occurs d. All cells in a tumor are at the same stage in the cell cycle e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
b. P53 gene activity acts as a gate keeper for cell growth at the G1/S phase interface
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Which of the following is/are true about cancer therapy?
a. Myelosuppression is always the major dose limiting factor in treatment b. Time between treatments doesn’t matter because cell growth is inhibited by therapy c. Therapy is targeted to the most rapidly dividing cells d.Surgical removal of the original tumor enhances the effectiveness of chemotherapy against metastasis e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
c. Therapy is targeted to the most rapidly dividing cells
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Alkylating agents
1. Cross alkylate the 7 Nitrogen of guanine on separate strands of DNA 2. Increase P53 gene activity 3. May cause abnormal base pairing 4. Cause minor nausea and vomiting A = 1,2,3 B = 1, 3 C = 2, 4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F = None of the above is correct |
A = 1,2,3
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Cyclophosphamide
a. Is metabolized into acrolein which is the active agent b. Is only effective against solid tumors like breast, lung and testicular tumors c. Is phase specific d. May cause hemorrhagic cystitis e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
d. May cause hemorrhagic cystitis
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Lomustin
a. Is a prodrug requiring enzymatic activation b. Requires co-administration of Amifostine to prevent renal damage c. May alkylate DNA and carbamoylate proteins d. Only causes mild nausea and vomiting e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
c. May alkylate DNA and carbamoylate proteins
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Which of he following is/are true?
a. Procarbazine is used mainly in Hodgkin’s disease b. Dacarbazine produces significantly more CNS depression than Procarbazine c. Temozolomide is a prodrug that is converted into Dacarbazine d. Busulfan is a component of the ABVD regimen for Hodgkin’s Disease e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
a. Procarbazine is used mainly in Hodgkin’s disease
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Cisplatin
a. Cross links DNA strands by binding guanine b. MESNA is co-administered with Cisplatin to limit renal toxicity c. Requires prehydration of patient d. Dose limiting toxicity is myelosuppression e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
c. Requires prehydration of patient
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Methotrexate
a. Inhibits thymidylate synthase b. Its therapeutic use is limited to leukemia’s c. It is actively secreted into the proximal tubule in the kidney d. Is the drug of choice for acute leukemia’s during pregnancy e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
c. It is actively secreted into the proximal tubule in the kidney
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Which of he following is/are true about pyrimidine analogs?
a. 5-Flurouracil (5-FU) is used mainly in acute lymphoblastic leukemia in children b. Leucovorin is used to limit 5-FU mucosal toxicity c. 5-FU is combined with deoxyribose sugar and phosphorylated and then incorporated into DNA in place of thymidine d. May cause problems with sensory neurons in the hands and feet (glove and sock syndrome) e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
d. May cause problems with sensory neurons in the hands and feet (glove and sock syndrome)
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Which of he following is/are true?
a. Cytarabine contains d-arabinose sugar b. Gemcitabine is a cytodine analogue with fluoride molecules replacing the OH groups on the sugar moiety c. 6-Mercaptopurine is mainly used for acute lymphocytic and myelogenous leukemia’s d. Fludarabine is a fluorinated analog of adenosine which inhibits DNA polymerase e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
e. All of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/are true about the anticancer antibiotics?
1. Dactinomycin intercalates into DNA and causes single strand breaks 2. Daunorubicin can inhibit topoisomerase II 3. Doxorubicin cardiotoxicity may be related to free radical formation 4. Bleomycin inhibits superoxide dismutase and catalase A = 1,2,3 B = 1, 3 C = 2, 4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F = None of the above is correct |
A = 1,2,3
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Vinblastine
a. Blocks Topoisomerase II b. Is effective in CNS gliomas c. Dose limiting toxicity is peripheral neuropathies’ of hands and feet (glove and sock syndrome) d. May cause gout e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
d. May cause gout
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Vincristine
a. Dose limiting toxicity is nausea and vomiting b. May cause jaw pain due to cranial nerve damage c. Is not cell cycle specific d. Is a component of ABVD Hodgkin’s disease regimen e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
b. May cause jaw pain due to cranial nerve damage
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Which of the following is/are true about Taxanes?
2 answers a. They increase tubulin polymerization b. Docetaxel produces less myelosuppression and more sensory neuropathies than Paclitaxel c. They are both M phase specific d. Paclitaxel is only effective in cancers which have not metastasized e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
a. They increase tubulin polymerization
or c. They are both M phase specific |
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Etoposide
a. Inhibits activity of Topoisomerase I b. Is extensively metabolized and the dose must be reduced in liver disease c. May induce mutations in chromosome 11 leading to leukemia d. Produces much less myelosuppression than does Teniposide e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
c. May induce mutations in chromosome 11 leading to leukemia
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Camptothecins (Irinotecan, Topotecan)
2 answers a. Inhibit DNA polymerase b. Irinotecan can cause cholinergic side effects c. Do not cause hair loss d. Show dose limiting myelosuppression e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
b. Irinotecan can cause cholinergic side effects
d. Show dose limiting myelosuppression |
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Which of the following is/are true about tyrosine kinase inhibitors?
a. Imatinib is approved for use in non-metastatic breast cancer b.Gefitinib inhibits both HER1 and HER2 tyrosine kinase c. Erlotnib is useful in metastatic non-small cell lung cancer d. Lapatinib binds to the external HER 1 and HER 2 tyrosine kinase receptor e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
c. Erlotnib is useful in metastatic non-small cell lung cancer
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Which of the following is/are true about biological response modifiers?
a. Rituximab binds the CD 52 antigen on non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma b. Alemtuzumab is a chimeric human-mouse antibody c. Trastuzumab is an antibody to human epidermal growth factor HER2 receptors d. Bortezomib stimulates NFkappa B production e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
c. Trastuzumab is an antibody to human epidermal growth factor HER2 receptors
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Cetuximab is effective in metastatic colorectal cancer where 60-75% of cells express HER1 receptor b. Bevacizumab target both HER1 and HER2 receptors c. Gentuzumab Ozagamicin specifically targets vascular endothelial growth factor d. Asparaginase inhibits aspartate uptake into cancer cells e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
a. Cetuximab is effective in metastatic colorectal cancer where 60-75% of cells express HER1 receptor
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Tamoxifen is effective in all women with breast cancer b. Unlike Tamoxifen , Roloxifene has estrogenic effects on bone c. Fulvestrant is a pure estrogen antagonist that down regulates estrogen receptors d. Fulvestrant has been linked to endometrial cancer e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
c. Fulvestrant is a pure estrogen antagonist that down regulates estrogen receptors
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Which of the following is/are true about aromatase inhibitors?
a. Anastrozole is an irreversible inhibitor of aromatase b. Letrozole causes more visual disturbances than Exemestane c. Exemestane is a suicide inhibitor of aromatase d. Like Tamoxifen the effectiveness of aromatase inhibitors decreases with time. e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
c. Exemestane is a suicide inhibitor of aromatase
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Which of the following is/are true about agents used in prostate cancer?
a. Flutamide interferes with the synthesis of testosterone b. Nilutamide may cause gynecomastia and vasomotor flushing c. Leuprolide is effective orally d. Goserelin specifically blocks testosterone receptors e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
b. Nilutamide may cause gynecomastia and vasomotor flushing
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Interferon alpha decrease expression of growth factors b. Aldesleukin may induce significant edema due to capillary leak syndrome c. Interferon alpha may produce confusion, depression, aggressive behavior and coma d. Aldesleukin treatment may decrease blood pressure to a point requiring treatment e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
e. All of the above are correct
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Histamine
a. Release caused by Succinlycholine is due to an IgE mediated response b. The flair of the triple response is due to direct capillary vasodilation c. Vasodilation though H1 receptors is mediated by NO d. H3 receptors antagonists are undergoing trials as anti-inflammatory agents e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
c. Vasodilation though H1 receptors is mediated by NO
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H1 receptor antagonists
a. Will completely block the vasodilation due to histamine release b. All show significant Antiemetic activity c. Promethazine shows the lowest anticholinergic activity d. Blockade of the histamine H1 receptor always leads to sedation e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
f. None of the above is correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Clorpheniramine has moderate Antiemetic activity b. Dimenhydrinate may cause urinary retention and dry mouth c. Fexofenadine may cause blurred vision d. Azelastine is available orally e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above is correct |
b. Dimenhydrinate may cause urinary retention and dry mouth
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The unitary theory of anesthesia is no longer considered the only and completely correct theory that can explain the mechanism(s) of action of general anesthetics because of the following discovery (discoveries):
a. The anesthetic agents are structurally very diverse compounds. b. Nitrous oxide is not a very potent anesthetic agent. c. The potency of inhalation anesthetics positively correlates with their hydrophobicity. d. Optical isomers (enantiomers) of certain agents have different potencies. e. All of the above f. None of the above. |
d. Optical isomers (enantiomers) of certain agents have different potencies.
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General anesthetics suppress neurotransmission by the following actions:
a. Inhibit the action of excitatory neurotransmission such as NMDA receptor-mediated neurotransmission. b. Stimulate (enhance) the action of inhibitory neurotransmissions such as GABA- or glycine-gated chloride channels c. Inhibit the action of neuronal nicotinic acetylcholine receptor-mediated neurotransmission. d. Activate two-pore domain potassium channel-mediated neurotransmission. e. All of the above f. None of the above. |
e. All of the above
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All anesthetic agents (general or local) are capable of producing the following effects:
a. Amnesia. b. Immobility c. Analgesia. d. Unconsciousness. e. All of the above f. A and C |
c. Analgesia.
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The sensory modalities of somatic sensory system are
1. Stimulus discrimination (detection of the location of stimuli) 2. Tactile sensation (touch, pressure) 3. Thermal sensation (cold, warmth and pain) 4. Special sensory (vision, hearing, smell and taste) A = 1,2 3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = all of the above are correct F = None of the above are correct |
A = 1,2 3
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The organization of the (somatic) sensory neurons includes:
1. Primary neurons: peripheral to spinal cord. 2. Secondary neurons: spinal cord to thalamus. 3. Tertiary neurons: thalamus to sensory cortex 4. Quaternary neurons: sensory cortex to motor cortex. A = 1,2 3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = all of the above are correct F = None of the above are correct |
A = 1,2 3
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The charge-carrying status (that is, neutral or positively charged) of local anesthetics agents strongly influences their potency in inducing anesthesia of target nerves because:
a. The charged form is more efficient in passing through the nerve membrane and the charged form is also more effective in binding to the sodium channel from the inside of the neuron to prevent sodium entry into the neuron. b. The uncharged form is more efficient in passing through the nerve membrane and the charged form is more effective in binding to the sodium channel from the inside of the neuron to promote sodium entry into the neuron. c. The charged form is less efficient in passing through the nerve membrane and but the charged form is more effective in binding to the sodium channel from the inside of the neuron to prevent sodium entry into the neuron. d. The uncharged form is more efficient in passing through the nerve membrane but the charged form is less effective in binding to the sodium channel from the inside of the neuron to prevent sodium entry into the neuron. e. The charged form is less efficient in passing through the nerve membrane but the uncharged form is more effective in binding to the sodium channel from the inside of the neuron to prevent potassium entry into the neuron. f. None of the above. |
c. The charged form is less efficient in passing through the nerve membrane and but the charged form is more effective in binding to the sodium channel from the inside of the neuron to prevent sodium entry into the neuron.
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Which of the following is/are true about cancer?
a. There are over 750,000 cancer deaths/year. b. The life time risk in males for cancer development is 1 in 3. c. Prostate cancer in men and breast cancer in women account for the largest number of cancer deaths/year d. Lung cancer accounts for the greatest number of newly diagnosed cancer cases/year e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
f. None of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/are false about the Gomperzian model of tumor cell growth?
a. A constant fraction of cells are killed with each cancer treatment b. Clinical detection of tumor cells occurs at 106 cells. c. Killing 99.9 % of tumor cells will decrease tumor load by 3 log units d. Death usually occurs with a tumor load of 1010 cells e. A and C f. B and D |
f. B and D
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Which of the following is/are true?
1. A single tumor cell is enough to induce cancer. 2. All cells within a tumor are identical 3. Tumors grow at different rates depending on tumor type 4. The most important factor in determining the frequency of treatments is how fast the tumor grows A = 1,2 3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F = None of the above are correct |
B = 1,3
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Alkylating agents
1. Link adjacent Guanine nucleotides 2. May cause removal of purines from the DNA backbone 3. May cause significant diarrhea due to epithelial cells damage 4. Are appropriate therapy during pregnancy? A = 1,2 3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F = None of the above are correct |
A = 1,2 3
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Ifosfamide
a. Is metabolically activated to acrolein which links adjacent guanine nucleotides b. Is effective in sarcoma and testicular cancers c. Is highly lipophilic d. Requires use of Amifostine to prevent renal tubule damage e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
b. Is effective in sarcoma and testicular cancers
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Carmustine
a. Is a prodrug that requires metabolic activation b. Used for CNS tumors c. Only produces mild myelosuppression d. May cause hemorrhagic cystitis which is treated with MESNA e, All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
b. Used for CNS tumors
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Carboplatin
a. Is S phase specific b. Is effective in ovarian tumors c. Produces only very mild myelosuppression d. Hydration of the patient is required to limit severe nephrotoxicity e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
b. Is effective in ovarian tumors
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Methotrexate
a. Produced the first cure of a solid tumor b. Inhibits dihyrofolate reductase c. Is trapped inside the cell by addition of glutamyl residues d. is teratogenic e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
e. All of the above are correct
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5 – Fluorouracil
1. Is indicated for acute myelocytic and leukocytic leukemia 2. Is S phase specific 3. Inhibits hypoxanthine-guanine-phosphoribosyl- transferase 4. Is given as an intraarterial infusion A = 1,2 3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F = None of the above are correct |
C = 2,4
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Cytarabine inhibits DNA polymerase b. Cladribine is indicated for metastatic head and neck tumors c. Fludarabine is an adenosine analogue effective in CLL and lymphomas d. 6 – Mercaptopurine inhibits Xanthine oxidase e. A and C f. B and D |
e. A and C
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Which of he following is/are true?
a. Daunorubicin is indicated for solid tumors like breast, bladder, and testicular tumors b. Doxorubicin given as a lipid complex has decreased cardiac toxicity c. Daunorubicin produces very little myelosuppression d. Doxorubicin induced cardiac toxicity is reversible e. All of the above are true f. None of the above are true |
b. Doxorubicin given as a lipid complex has decreased cardiac toxicity
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Bleomycin
a. is S phase specific b. Cross links DNA strands c. Causes severe myelosuppression d. Increases the activity of superoxide dismutase e. All of the above are true f. None of the above are true |
f. None of the above are true
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Vincristine blocks microtubule disassembly b. Vinblastine is a component of MOPP’s therapy c. Vincristine’s dose limiting toxicity is neurotoxicity d. Vinblastine’s dose limiting toxicity is renal toxicity e. All of the above are true f. None of the above are true |
c. Vincristine’s dose limiting toxicity is neurotoxicity
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Paclitaxel causes more myelosuppression and less neuropathy than Docetaxel b. Paclitaxel and Docetaxel are G2 phase specific c. Etoposide inhibits topoisomerase II d. Teniposide may induce leukemia e. All of the above are true f. None of the above are true |
c. Etoposide inhibits topoisomerase II
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Which of the following is/are false?
1. Topotecan causes strand breaks due to inhibition of topoisomerase 2. Bortezomib decreases IB levels and therefore tumor cell survival 3. Cetuximab is an antibody against epidermal growth factor I 4. Irinotecan produces dose limiting neurotoxicity A = 1,2 3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F = None of the above are correct |
C = 2,4
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Tamoxifen decreases the risk of deep vein thrombosis b. Fulvestrant down regulates estrogen receptors only in reproductive tissue c. Anastrozole may work in Tamoxifen resistant breast tumors d. Letrozole decreases estrogen by inhibiting aromatase activity e. All of the above are true f. None of the above are true |
d. Letrozole decreases estrogen by inhibiting aromatase activity
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Interferon alpha
a. Increases activity of cytotoxic natural killer cells b. Is approved for use during pregnancy c. May alter mental status d. Is effective in a variety of solid tumors like, breast, testicular, and head and neck e. A and C are correct f. B and D are correct |
e. A and C are correct
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Aldesleukin
1. Is indicated for metastatic renal cell carcinoma 2. My cause significant edema 3. Treatment may necessitate pressor therapy 4. Increases expression of tumor cell antigens A = 1,2 3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F = None of the above are correct |
A = 1,2 3
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Histamine
a. IgE mediated release of histamine involves degranulation of mast cells b. Toxins and drugs release histamine through a non - IgE mediated process c. The H1 receptor contracts bronchiolar smooth muscle through IP3 and DAG d. H3 receptors act as autoreceptors on histamine containing neurons e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
e. All of the above are correct
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H1 receptor antagonists
a. Antiemetic actions are due blocking H1 receptors in the vomiting center b. All have high levels of antimuscarinic activity c. Sedation is an essential part of H1 receptor blockade d. 2nd generation H1 blockers all have a short duration of action e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
f. None of the above are correct
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Choose the one best answer:
Alkylating agent used in malignant gliomas a. Dacarbazine b. Dactinomycin c. Leucovorin d. Temozolomide e. Busulfan |
d. Temozolomide
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Choose the one best answer: Alkylating agent used in ovarian cancer
a. Altretamine b. Gemcitabine c. Busulfan d. Cytarabine e. Leucovorin |
a. Altretamine
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Choose the one best answer:
Activated by P450 system to diazomethane the active cytotoxic agent a. Gemcitabine b. Leucovorin c. Dactinomycin d. Altretamine e. Dacarbazine |
e. Dacarbazine
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Choose the one best answer:
May cause fatal pulmonary fibrosis a. Dactinomycin b. Gemcitabine c. Temozolomide d. Busulfan e. Temozolomide |
d. Busulfan
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Choose the one best answer:
Converted to folinic acid inside cell a. Gemcitabine b. Busulfan c. Leucovorin d. Dacarbazine e. Temozolomide |
c. Leucovorin
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Choose the one best answer:
Contains d-arabinose sugar instead of deoxyribose a. Altretamine b. Temozolomide c. Cytarabine d. Dacarbazine e. Leucovorin |
c. Cytarabine
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Choose the one best answer:
Analog of cytidine with fluorine a. Gemcitabine b. Dacarbazine c. Altretamine d. Leucovorin e. Temozolomide |
a. Gemcitabine
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Choose the one best answer:
Indicated for Wilm’s tumor in children a. Dacarbazine b. Altretamine c.Gemcitabine d. Dactinomycin e. Leucovorin |
d. Dactinomycin
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Choose the one best answer:
Tyrosine kinase inhibitor effective in CML and CMML a. Imatinib b. Asaraginase c. Rituximab d. Tratuzumab e. Gefitinib |
a. Imatinib
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Choose the one best answer:
Epidermal growth factor inhibitor a. Tratuzumab b. Gefitinib c. Bevacizumab d. Rituximab e. Alemetuzumab |
b. Gefitinib
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Choose the one best answer:
Chimeric antibody against CD 20 antigen a. Gefitinib b. Rituximab c. Imatinib d. Asaraginase e. Alemetuzumab |
b. Rituximab
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Choose the one best answer:
Targets T and B cells with CD 52 antigen a. Bevacizumab b. Imatinib c. Gentuzumab Ozogamicin d. Gefitinib e. Alemetuzumab |
e. Alemetuzumab
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Choose the one best answer:
Human epidermal growth factor II antibody a. Gefitinib b. Rituximab c. Alemetuzumab d. Tratuzumab e. Bevacizumab |
d. Tratuzumab
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Choose the one best answer:
Antibody to vascular endothelial growth factor a. Bevacizumab b. Gentuzumab Ozogamicin c. Tratuzumab d. Asaraginase e. Imatinib |
a. Bevacizumab
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Choose the one best answer:
Inhibits aspartate uptake into tumor cells a. Gentuzumab Ozogamicin b. Rituximab c. Asaraginase d. Gefitinib e. Bevacizumab |
c. Asaraginase
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Choose the one best answer:
Antibody linked tumor antibiotic a. Rituximab b. Tratuzumab c. Imatinib d. Bevacizumab e.Gentuzumab Ozogamicin |
e. Gentuzumab Ozogamicin
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Which of the following is/are true ?
a) Histadine decarboxylase is the enzyme that inactivates histamine b) The late response of allergic reactions is caused by the non-mast cell mediated release of histamine c) Histamine in mast cells is stored in granule. d) Vancomycin induced histamine release is an example of IgE mediated release e) A and C f) All of the above |
c) Histamine in mast cells is stored in granule.
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Which of the following is are false?
a) H2 receptors mediate post capillary permeability b) H1 receptors mediate vasodilation c) H2 receptors activate adenylate cyclase and increase mucus secretion d) H3 receptors are the histamine autoreceptor e) All are false f) B and D |
a) H2 receptors mediate post capillary permeability
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H1 antagonist used for sedative properties
a) Calcium carbonate b) Diphenhydramine c) Doxylamine d) Hydroxyzine e) magnesium hydroxide f) Octrotide g) Promethazine |
c) Doxylamine
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H1 antagonist used allergic responses on skin
a) Calcium carbonate b) Diphenhydramine c) Doxylamine d) Hydroxyzine e) magnesium hydroxide f) Octrotide g) Promethazine |
d) Hydroxyzine
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Concerning H1 histamine receptors, which of the following is NOT true
a. They produce vasodilatation b. They decrease heart rate c. They increase mucus secretion d. They are involved in bronchoconstriction e. All of the above are true |
b. They decrease heart rate
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The intranasal H1 histamine antagonist is:
a. Promethazine b. Azelastine c. Chlorpheniramine d. Acrivastine |
b. Azelastine
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The second generation H1 histamine antagonist that has the potential to interact with ketoconazole and erythromycin to produce QT prolongation is:
a. Hydrazine b. Azelastine c. Cetirizine d. Fexofenadine |
d. Fexofenadine
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True/False
Structurally, H1 histamine antagonists more closely resemble histamine than do H2 histamine antagonists. |
False
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Which of the following is NOT true about histamine
a. It is an autacoid b. Synthesized Hom histidine c. Synthesized by the action of L-histidine decarboxylase d. Synthesized and stored in mast cells and basophils e. All of the above are true |
e. All of the above are true
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Which ofthe following is NOT a response produced by histamine:
a. increased systemic blood pressure b. increased heart rate c. increased mucus secretion d. bronchoconstriction |
a. increased systemic blood pressure
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True/False
Morphine can cause histamine release from mast cells. |
True
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True/False
H3 histamine receptors are post-synaptic structures of certain CNS neurons. |
True
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True/False
Histamine is formed from the amino acid histidine by the action of L-histidine decarboxylase. |
True
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