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205 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Define Autocoid
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Substance released from tissues that acts locally to regulate function
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PGI2 causes vasoconstriction / vasodilation.
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vasodilation
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PGF2α constricts / relaxes uterine smooth muscle
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constricts
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List 3 common side effects of NSAIDS
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Gastric or intestinal ulceration Prolong gestation
Hypersensitivity Asthma, broncospasm Decreased platelets Impaired renal function Impaired hepatic function Uncouples oxidative phosphorylation |
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Matching: choose the on best answer
PGE1 analog used to treat constipation a. Allopurinol b. Auranofin c. Etanercept d. Indomethacin e. Ketorolac f. Infliximab g. Lubiprostone h. Meloxicam i. Sulfinpyrazone j. Treprostinil |
g. Lubiprostone
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Matching: choose the on best answer
PGI2 analog used in pulmonary hypertension a. Allopurinol b. Auranofin c. Etanercept d. Indomethacin e. Ketorolac f. Infliximab g. Lubiprostone h. Meloxicam i. Sulfinpyrazone j. Treprostinil |
j. Treprostinil
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Matching: choose the on best answer
NSAID used primarily for post operative pain a. Allopurinol b. Auranofin c. Etanercept d. Indomethacin e. Ketorolac f. Infliximab g. Lubiprostone h. Meloxicam i. Sulfinpyrazone j. Treprostinil |
e. Ketorolac
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Matching: choose the on best answer
NSAID used mainly for arthritis a. Allopurinol b. Auranofin c. Etanercept d. Indomethacin e. Ketorolac f. Infliximab g. Lubiprostone h. Meloxicam i. Sulfinpyrazone j. Treprostinil |
h. Meloxicam
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Matching: choose the on best answer
NSAID used to close ductus arteriosus a. Allopurinol b. Auranofin c. Etanercept d. Indomethacin e. Ketorolac f. Infliximab g. Lubiprostone h. Meloxicam i. Sulfinpyrazone j. Treprostinil |
d. Indomethacin
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Matching: choose the on best answer
Human antibody that binds TNF receptor a. Allopurinol b. Auranofin c. Etanercept d. Indomethacin e. Ketorolac f. Infliximab g. Lubiprostone h. Meloxicam i. Sulfinpyrazone j. Treprostinil |
c. Etanercept
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Matching: choose the on best answer
Oral gold salt a. Allopurinol b. Auranofin c. Etanercept d. Indomethacin e. Ketorolac f. Infliximab g. Lubiprostone h. Meloxicam i. Sulfinpyrazone j. Treprostinil |
b. Auranofin
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Matching: choose the on best answer
Human/murine antibody to TNFα a. Allopurinol b. Auranofin c. Etanercept d. Indomethacin e. Ketorolac f. Infliximab g. Lubiprostone h. Meloxicam i. Sulfinpyrazone j. Treprostinil |
f. Infliximab
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Matching: choose the on best answer
Inhibits Xanthine oxidase a. Allopurinol b. Auranofin c. Etanercept d. Indomethacin e. Ketorolac f. Infliximab g. Lubiprostone h. Meloxicam i. Sulfinpyrazone j. Treprostinil |
a. Allopurinol
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Matching: choose the on best answer
Prevents uric acid reabsorption in renal tubules a. Allopurinol b. Auranofin c. Etanercept d. Indomethacin e. Ketorolac f. Infliximab g. Lubiprostone h. Meloxicam i. Sulfinpyrazone j. Treprostinil |
i. Sulfinpyrazone
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Explain the triple response
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Wheal - increased vascular permeability or edema (H1)
Flare – reflex vasodilation (H2) Redness – local vasodilation (H1 and H2) |
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TXA2 constricts / relaxes bronchiolar smooth muscle
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constricts
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PGE2 increases / decreases vascular permeability
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increases
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List 3 common Therapeutic uses of NSAIDS
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Anticoagulant
Alzheimer’s Antipyretic Ductus arteriosus Analgesia Rheumatoid arthritis Anti-inflammatory Gout Colon cancer |
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Matching: choose the on best answer
PGF2α analog used in post partum bleeding a. Adalimumab b. Aurothioglucose c. Carboprost d. Colchicine e. Latanoprost f. Leflunomide g. Olsalazine h. Piroxicam i. Rasburicase j. Tolmetin |
c. Carboprost
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Matching: choose the on best answer
PGF2α analog used in glaucoma a. Adalimumab b. Aurothioglucose c. Carboprost d. Colchicine e. Latanoprost f. Leflunomide g. Olsalazine h. Piroxicam i. Rasburicase j. Tolmetin |
e. Latanoprost
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Matching: choose the on best answer
Converted to 5-aminosalicyclic acid in gut bacteria a. Adalimumab b. Aurothioglucose c. Carboprost d. Colchicine e. Latanoprost f. Leflunomide g. Olsalazine h. Piroxicam i. Rasburicase j. Tolmetin |
g. Olsalazine
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Matching: choose the on best answer
NSAID used mainly for arthritis a. Adalimumab b. Aurothioglucose c. Carboprost d. Colchicine e. Latanoprost f. Leflunomide g. Olsalazine h. Piroxicam i. Rasburicase j. Tolmetin |
h. Piroxicam
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Matching: choose the on best answer
Gold salt used in arthritis a. Adalimumab b. Aurothioglucose c. Carboprost d. Colchicine e. Latanoprost f. Leflunomide g. Olsalazine h. Piroxicam i. Rasburicase j. Tolmetin |
b. Aurothioglucose
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Matching: choose the on best answer
Recombinant human antibody to TNFα a. Adalimumab b. Aurothioglucose c. Carboprost d. Colchicine e. Latanoprost f. Leflunomide g. Olsalazine h. Piroxicam i. Rasburicase j. Tolmetin |
a. Adalimumab
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Matching: choose the on best answer
Non-selective NSAID, more potent that aspirin used for analgesic, antipyretic and anti inflammatory activity a. Adalimumab b. Aurothioglucose c. Carboprost d. Colchicine e. Latanoprost f. Leflunomide g. Olsalazine h. Piroxicam i. Rasburicase j. Tolmetin |
j. Tolmetin
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Matching: choose the on best answer
Inhibits T-cell proliferation, used in arthritis a. Adalimumab b. Aurothioglucose c. Carboprost d. Colchicine e. Latanoprost f. Leflunomide g. Olsalazine h. Piroxicam i. Rasburicase j. Tolmetin |
f. Leflunomide
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Matching: choose the on best answer
Anti-inflammatory only in gout a. Adalimumab b. Aurothioglucose c. Carboprost d. Colchicine e. Latanoprost f. Leflunomide g. Olsalazine h. Piroxicam i. Rasburicase j. Tolmetin |
d. Colchicine
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Matching: choose the on best answer
Recombinant urate oxidase a. Adalimumab b. Aurothioglucose c. Carboprost d. Colchicine e. Latanoprost f. Leflunomide g. Olsalazine h. Piroxicam i. Rasburicase j. Tolmetin |
i. Rasburicase
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Autocoids are released into the blood to be transported to the site of action b. Autocoids are released continuously and are not subject to stimulated release c. Bradykinin is an algesic agent d. Bradykinin acts mainly on B1 receptors which are constitutively expressed e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
c. Bradykinin is an algesic agent
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Which of the following is/are true about the triple response?
a. The redness is due to vasodilatation caused by histamine actions on H1 and H2 receptors b. The wheal is due to H2 receptor mediated increases in vascular permeability c. The flair is due to H1 mediated vasodilatation d. A and B are correct e. B and C are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
d. A and B are correct
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Eicosanoids
a. Are all derived from Cyclooxygenase action on Arachidonic acid b. 15-Lipoxygenase metabolites of Arachidonic acid act as endogenous ligands for the cannabinoid receptor c. 12-Lipoxygenase converts Arachidonic acid into Hepoxillins that may play a role in psoriasis d. Cyclooxygenase converts Arachidonic acid into PGH2 which is then further converted into PGE2, PGF2α, TXA2 and PGI2 e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
c. 12-Lipoxygenase converts Arachidonic acid into Hepoxillins that may play a role in psoriasis
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Which of the following receptor-prostaglandin-second messenger combinations is/are correct?
a. DP – PGD2 – Gq – increase IP3 and DAG b. FP – PGI2 – Gi – decrease cAMP c. TP - TXA2 - Gs - increase cAMP d. EP1 –PGE2 –Gq – increase IP3 and DAG e. IP – PGF2α - Gs - increase cAMP f. None of the choices are correct |
d. EP1 –PGE2 –Gq – increase IP3 and DAG
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Which of the following statements is/are true?
a. PGF2α - Increases vascular permeability b. TXA2 - Contracts non-pregnant uterus c. PGE2 – Increases stomach acid production d. PGI2 - Decreases renal blood flow e. LTD4 – Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle f. None of the choices are correct |
b. TXA2 - Contracts non-pregnant uterus
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Which of the following is/are correct?
a. Epoprostenol – PGI2 analog used in pulmonary hypertension b. Bimatoprost - PGF2α analog used as an abortifacient c. Carboprost - PGF2α analog used to increase aqueous humor outflow in glaucoma d. Travoprost - PGF2α analog used to maintain ductus arteriosis open e. Misoprostol – PGE1 analog used in erectile dysfunction f. None of the choices are correct |
a. Epoprostenol – PGI2 analog used in pulmonary hypertension
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Leukotrienes increase endothelial permeability b. PGE2 increases leukocyte migration into inflammed tissue c. PGE2 increase release of IL-1. IL-6 and TNFα in the hypothalamus to cause fever d. Leukotrienes cause capillary vasodilatation e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
a. Leukotrienes increase endothelial permeability
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Which of the following is/are common side effects of NSAIDS?
1. Gastric ulcerations 2. Increased bleeding 3. Decreased renal function 4. Premature closure of ductus arteriosis in fetus A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the choices are correct F = None of the choices are correct |
E = All of the choices are correct
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Aspirin
a. Is a reversible inhibitor of Cox1, COX2 and COX3 b. May induce fever at therapeutic doses used to treat inflammation c. May induce asthma because of reductions in PGE2 which relaxes bronchial smooth muscle d. Antiplatelet activity shows a linear dose response curve e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
f. None of the choices are correct
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Reye’s syndrome
1. Is directly caused by the use of aspirin in children with viral diseases 2. Symptoms include persistent vomiting, progressive CNS damage, hepatic injury and hypoglycemia 3. Is seen only in children less than 8 years old 4. Treatment includes glucose, fresh frozen plasma and mannitol A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All the choices are correct F = None of the choices are correct |
C = 2,4
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Diflusinal has good anti-inflammatory and analgesic effects but limited antipyretic activity b. Olsalazine is converted by GI bacteria into 5 aminosalicylic acid the active agent. c. Ibuprofen has less severe GI and bleeding effects than Aspirin d. Celecoxib is the least selective of the COX2 inhibitors e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
e. All of the choices are correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. DMARDS all suppress neutrophils and macrophages b. Aurothioglucose rapidly induces inhibition of cytotoxic T-cells c. Auranofin can inhibit migration of macrophages into synovial fluid d. Corticosteroids inhibit cytokine production and are very useful for long term control of Rheumatoid arthritis e. A and C are correct f. B and D are correct |
e. A and C are correct
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Which of the following is/are true
a. Methotrexate limits lymphocyte proliferation by decreasing leukotriene production b. Leflunomide inhibits T-cell proliferation and is used in place of Methotrexate during pregnancy c. Infliximab is a human-murine monoclonal antibody to Human P75 TNF receptor d. Adalimumab use may lead to opportunistic infections and leucopenia e. Tocilizumab is used mainly to prevent erosive active arthritis f. None of the choices are correct |
d. Adalimumab use may lead to opportunistic infections and leucopenia
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Which of the following is/are true about the drugs used in gout?
a. Colchicine is a useful anti-inflammatory in both gout and rheumatoid arthritis b. Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase and should be avoided in patients with heart and liver problems c. Probenecid reduces the motility of leukocytes and binds tubulin d. Sulfinpyrazone increases uric acid transport into the renal tubule e. Rasburicase is indicated for patients not responding to Colchicine f. None of the choices are correct |
b. Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase and should be avoided in patients with heart and liver problems
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Which of the following is/are true?
1. Adaptive or learned immunity relies on B cell and T cell lymphocytes to provide protection 2. B Lymphocytes form memory cells which when exposed to antigen again proliferate and begin producing antibodies 3. T cells respond very quickly to specific antigens presented by antigen presenting cells and are the main targets of immunosuppression in transplantation 4. Natural or innate Immunity requires priming, is of low affinity and highly specific A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the choices are correct F = None of the choices are correct |
A = 1,2,3
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Antigen presenting cells express specific antigens on their cell surface after processing them. b. T-helper type 1 cells release IL-2, INF gamma, and TNF alpha to activate macrophages, natural killer cells and cytotoxic T-cells. c. Cytotoxic T-cells contain CD 8+ and attack tumor and viral infected cells d. CD4 + containing helper T-cells express MHC class II antigens e. A and C are correct f. All of the choices are correct |
f. All of the choices are correct
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Which of the following is/are true about rejection?
a. Hyperacute rejection is due to preformed recipient antibodies to the donor organ b. Chronic rejection is due specifically to cumulative long term drug toxicity c. Acute rejection is mediated by both cellular and humoral immunity d. Drugs used to treat rejection mainly target humoral immunity e. A and C are correct f. All of the choices are correct |
e. A and C are correct
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Which of the following is/are true about antiproliferative agents? (2 answers)
a. Azathioprine disrupts guanine incorporation into DNA to prevent proliferation of T-cells b. Mycophenolate shows less bone marrow toxicity than Azathioprine c. Azathioprine would be preferred over Mycophenolate in patients with liver toxicity d. Mycophenolate may lead to opportunistic infections like pneumocystis jirovicii e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
a. Azathioprine disrupts guanine incorporation into DNA to prevent proliferation of T-cells
or d. Mycophenolate may lead to opportunistic infections like pneumocystis jirovicii |
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Which of the following is/are true about antibodies used in immunosuppression?
a. Antithymocyte Globulin (ATGAM) targets T-cell antigens CD2, CD3, CD4. CD8. CD11 and CD 18 b. Muromonab (OKT-3) specifically targets CD4 and CD8 antigens to selectively decrease T-helper cells c. Basiliximab rapidly decreases T-cells by binding to the CD3 region of the T-cell d. Daclizumab rapidly depletes all circulating T-cells e. A and C are correct f. All of the above are correct |
a. Antithymocyte Globulin (ATGAM) targets T-cell antigens CD2, CD3, CD4. CD8. CD11 and CD 18
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Calcineurin inhibitors
1. Both inhibitors induce hypertension in most heart transplant patients that needs to be treated 2. All bind cyclophilin which inhibits Calcineurin mediated dephosphorylation of nuclear factor of activated T-cells (NF-AT) 3. Tacrolimus may damage pancreatic beta cells and induce diabetes 4. Cyclosporine cause less CNS mediated tremor that Tacrolimus A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the choices are correct F = None of the choices are correct |
B = 1,3
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Sirolimus
a. Directly binds to mammalian Target of Rapamycin (mTOR) to inhibit cell proliferation b. May interfere with would healing and use should be delayed for 12 month after transplant c. Taken together with cyclosporine reduces bone marrow suppression d. Analog Everolimus produces much less dyslipidemia and thrombocytopenia than Sirolimus e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
f. None of the choices are correct
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Which of the following would be an appropriate maintenance immunosuppressive regimen to prevent graft rejection?
a. Muromonab, Basiliximab, Daclizumab b. Cyclosporine, Azathioprine, Prednisone c. Mycophenolate, Azathioprine, Muromonab d. ATGAM, Prednisone, Mycophenolate e. Cyclosporine, Tacrolimus, Sirolimus f. None of the choices are appropriate |
b. Cyclosporine, Azathioprine, Prednisone
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Which of the following is/are true about viruses?
a. They all contain RNA b. Retroviruses contain reverse transcriptase within the viral particle c. Acyclovir inhibits viral DNA polymerase enzyme d. The preferred NRTI based therapy for HIV includes: Abacavir, Lamivudine, and Zidovudine e. B and D are correct f. None of the above are correct |
b. Retroviruses contain reverse transcriptase within the viral particle
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Match the drug to the correct mechanism
Emtricitabine a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c. Protease inhibitor d. Fusion inhibitor e. CCR5 antagonist f. Integrase inhibitor |
a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
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Match the drug to the correct mechanism
Efavirenz a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c. Protease inhibitor d. Fusion inhibitor e. CCR5 antagonist f. Integrase inhibitor |
b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
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Match the drug to the correct mechanism
Enfuvirtide a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c. Protease inhibitor d. Fusion inhibitor e. CCR5 antagonist f. Integrase inhibitor |
d. Fusion inhibitor
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Match the drug to the correct mechanism
Fosamprenavir a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c. Protease inhibitor d. Fusion inhibitor e. CCR5 antagonist f. Integrase inhibitor |
c. Protease inhibitor
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Match the drug to the correct mechanism
Lamivudine a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c. Protease inhibitor d. Fusion inhibitor e. CCR5 antagonist f. Integrase inhibitor |
a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
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Match the drug to the correct mechanism
Nevirapine a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c. Protease inhibitor d. Fusion inhibitor e. CCR5 antagonist f. Integrase inhibitor |
b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
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Match the drug to the correct mechanism
Maraviroc a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c. Protease inhibitor d. Fusion inhibitor e. CCR5 antagonist f. Integrase inhibitor |
e. CCR5 antagonist
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Match the drug to the correct mechanism
Reltegravir a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c. Protease inhibitor d. Fusion inhibitor e. CCR5 antagonist f. Integrase inhibitor |
f. Integrase inhibitor
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Which of the following is/are true about HIV therapy?
a. A goal is to suppress viral RNA to less than 50 copies/ml b. Therapy should be initiated in all patients with a CD4 count of less than 350 cells/mm3 c. Drug resistance testing should be done for all patients prior to beginning therapy d. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase based therapy should be reserved for those who cannot tolerate non-nucleoside protease based therapies e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
e. All of the above are correct
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Choose the one best answer
Fusion Inhibitor a. Efavirenz b. Emtricitabine c. Enfuvirtide d. Lopinavir e. Maraviroc f. Raltegravir g. Rimantidine h. Zanamivir |
c. Enfuvirtide
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Choose the one best answer
CCR5 antagonist a. Efavirenz b. Emtricitabine c. Enfuvirtide d. Lopinavir e. Maraviroc f. Raltegravir g. Rimantidine h. Zanamivir |
e. Maraviroc
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Choose the one best answer
Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor a. Efavirenz b. Emtricitabine c. Enfuvirtide d. Lopinavir e. Maraviroc f. Raltegravir g. Rimantidine h. Zanamivir |
b. Emtricitabine
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Choose the one best answer
Integrase inhibitor a. Efavirenz b. Emtricitabine c. Enfuvirtide d. Lopinavir e. Maraviroc f. Raltegravir g. Rimantidine h. Zanamivir |
f. Raltegravir
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Choose the one best answer
Protease inhibitor a. Efavirenz b. Emtricitabine c. Enfuvirtide d. Lopinavir e. Maraviroc f. Raltegravir g. Rimantidine h. Zanamivir |
d. Lopinavir
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Choose the one best answer
Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor a. Efavirenz b. Emtricitabine c. Enfuvirtide d. Lopinavir e. Maraviroc f. Raltegravir g. Rimantidine h. Zanamivir |
a. Efavirenz
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Antiretroviral therapy should be initiated for which of the following?
1) Symptomatic patient with a viral load of > 100,000 copies/ml 2) Asymptomatic patient with a viral load of 200,000 copies/ml 3) Asymptomatic patient with a CD4 count of 150 4) Asymptomatic patient with CD4 > 350 and a viral load > 100,000 copies/ml A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2, 4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F = None of the above are correct |
B = 1,3
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Which of the following are listed as preferred drugs for HIV therapy?
a) Amprenavir b) Atazanavir (boosted) c) Abacavir d) Zalcitabine e) Stavudine f) Enfuvirtide |
b) Atazanavir (boosted)
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Antiretroviral therapy should be initiated for which of the following patients.
1. A patient with a CD4 T-cell count of 400 cells/mm3 2. Asymptomatic patient with a viral load of 300,000 copies/ml 3. Asymptomatic patient with a viral load of 55, 000 copies/ml and a CD4 T-cell count of > 350 cells / mm3 4. Symptomatic patient with a CD4 T-cell count of < 200/ mm3 A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F = None of the above are correct |
C = 2,4
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Match the drug with the antiviral mechanism
Abacavir a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c. Protease inhibitor d. Fusion inhibitor |
a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
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Match the drug with the antiviral mechanism
Amprenavir a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c. Protease inhibitor d. Fusion inhibitor |
c. Protease inhibitor
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Match the drug with the antiviral mechanism
Delviridine a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c. Protease inhibitor d. Fusion inhibitor |
b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
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Match the drug with the antiviral mechanism
Efavirenz a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c. Protease inhibitor d. Fusion inhibitor |
b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
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Match the drug with the antiviral mechanism
Enfurvirtide a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c. Protease inhibitor d. Fusion inhibitor |
d. Fusion inhibitor
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Match the drug with the antiviral mechanism
Lamivudine a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c. Protease inhibitor d. Fusion inhibitor |
a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
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Match the drug with the antiviral mechanism
Ritonavir a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c. Protease inhibitor d. Fusion inhibitor |
c. Protease inhibitor
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Match the drug with the antiviral mechanism
Zidovudine a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c. Protease inhibitor d. Fusion inhibitor |
a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
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Match the drug with the correct antiviral mechanism:
Abacavir (Ziagen) a) Inhibits viral Nucleic acid synthesis b) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor d) Protease inhibitor e) Fusion inhibitor |
b) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
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Match the drug with the correct antiviral mechanism:
Delvaridine (Rescriptor) a) Inhibits viral Nucleic acid synthesis b) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor d) Protease inhibitor e) Fusion inhibitor |
c) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
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Match the drug with the correct antiviral mechanism:
Efavirenz (Sustiva) a) Inhibits viral Nucleic acid synthesis b) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor d) Protease inhibitor e) Fusion inhibitor |
c) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
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Match the drug with the correct antiviral mechanism:
Emtricitabine (Emtiva) a) Inhibits viral Nucleic acid synthesis b) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor d) Protease inhibitor e) Fusion inhibitor |
b) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
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Match the drug with the correct antiviral mechanism:
Enfurvirtide ( Fuzeon) a) Inhibits viral Nucleic acid synthesis b) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor d) Protease inhibitor e) Fusion inhibitor |
e) Fusion inhibitor
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Match the drug with the correct antiviral mechanism:
Indinavir (Crixivan) a) Inhibits viral Nucleic acid synthesis b) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor d) Protease inhibitor e) Fusion inhibitor |
d) Protease inhibitor
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Match the drug with the correct antiviral mechanism:
Lamivudine (Epivir) a) Inhibits viral Nucleic acid synthesis b) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor d) Protease inhibitor e) Fusion inhibitor |
b) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
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Match the drug with the correct antiviral mechanism:
Lopinavir/ritonivar (Keletra) a) Inhibits viral Nucleic acid synthesis b) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor d) Protease inhibitor e) Fusion inhibitor |
d) Protease inhibitor
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Match the drug with the correct antiviral mechanism:
Nelfinavir (Viracept) a) Inhibits viral Nucleic acid synthesis b) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor d) Protease inhibitor e) Fusion inhibitor |
d) Protease inhibitor
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Match the drug with the correct antiviral mechanism:
Nevirapine (Vitamune) a) Inhibits viral Nucleic acid synthesis b) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor d) Protease inhibitor e) Fusion inhibitor |
c) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
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Match the drug with the correct antiviral mechanism:
Zidovudine (Retrovir) a) Inhibits viral Nucleic acid synthesis b) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor d) Protease inhibitor e) Fusion inhibitor |
b) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
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Which of the following is /are true about the triple response to histamine?
a. The redness is due to nitric oxide induced reflex vasodilation b. The wheal is due to Bradykinin induced increases in vascular permeability c. The flair is due to histamine induced local vasodilation d. A and C are correct e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
f. None of the above are correct
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Which of the following receptor-prostaglandin-second messenger combinations is/are correct?
a. DP – PGI2 – Gs- increase cAMP b. FP – TXA2 – Gq – increase IP3 and DAG c. EP2 – PGD2 – Gs – increase cAMP d. IP – PGI2 – Gs – increase cAMP e. TP – PGF2α – Gq – increase IP3 and DAG f. None of the above are correct |
d. IP – PGI2 – Gs – increase cAMP
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Which of the following statement is/are true?
a. TXA2 - increase renin release b. LTD4 - increases vascular permeability c. PGI2 - activates platelets d. PGE2 – Contracts vascular smooth muscle e. B and D are correct f. All of the above are correct |
b. LTD4 - increases vascular permeability
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Which of the following combinations is/are wrong?
a. Treprostinil – pulmonary hypertension b. Alprostadil – used to maintain ductus arteriosus in newborns c. Latanoprost – pulmonary hypertension d. Travoprost – glaucoma e. Lubiprostone – control idiopathic constipation f. A and C are correct |
c. Latanoprost – pulmonary hypertension
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Which of the following is/are general side effects of NSAIDS?
a. Prevent ductus arteriosus from closing b. Decreased platelet aggregation c. Increased incidence of Reye’s syndrome d. Delayed spontaneous labor e. All of the above are correct f. B and D are correct |
f. B and D are correct
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Which of the following is/are true about aspirin?
a. Aspirin is a nonselective reversible inhibitor of cyclooxygenase b. Aspirin induced asthma is due to increased production of LTC4, LTD4 and LTE4 c. Aspirin may produce tinnitus at doses used for antiplatelet activity d. Aspirin induced antiplatelet activity increases with increasing doses e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
b. Aspirin induced asthma is due to increased production of LTC4, LTD4 and LTE4
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Diflusinsal is equal to Aspirin with respect to anti-inflammatory and anti-pyretic activity b. Sulfasalazine is converted to 5 aminosalicylic acid c. Naproxen shows 10-20 fold selectivity for COX2 d. Celecoxib induced MI and strokes are mainly due to inhibition of COX1 e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
b. Sulfasalazine is converted to 5 aminosalicylic acid
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Acetaminophen has poor antiplatelet activity because it reversibly inhibits COX1 b. Indomethacin is mainly used for its anti-inflammatory activity and to close the ductus arteriosus in newborns c. Ketorolac is more potent than aspirin and is used mainly in rheumatoid arthritis d. Piroxicam is equipotent with aspirin as an anti-inflammatory but is used mainly for postoperative pain e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
b. Indomethacin is mainly used for its anti-inflammatory activity and to close the ductus arteriosus in newborns
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Which of the following is/are true?
1. T-helper cells all contain CD4+ 2. Cytotoxic T-cells contain CD8+ and attack tumor and virus infected cells 3. Calcineurin dephosphorylates NF-AT (nuclear factor of activated t-cells) 4. B-lymphocytes mature in the thymus and are responsible for antibody production A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F = None of they above are correct |
A = 1,2,3
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Antigen presenting cells express specific antibodies on their cell surface b. Interleukin 2 increases proliferation of T-helper cells c. Once activated mTOR (mammalian Target of Rapamycin) enter the nucleus to stimulate transcription of IL-2 d. B-lymphocytes are involved in cellular immunity e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
b. Interleukin 2 increases proliferation of T-helper cells
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Which of the following is/are true about transplant rejection?
a. Hyperacute rejection is due to preformed circulating antibodies b. Accelerated acute rejection is due to prior sensitization to donor antibodies c. Acute rejection is 90% T-cell mediated d. Chronic rejection includes immune and non-immune mediated mechanisms e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
e. All of the above are correct
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Azathioprine
a. Disrupts purine incorporation into DNA b. Produces significantly more bone marrow suppression than mycophenolate c. Enhances IL-2 release from T-cells d. Blocks antigen recognition e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
a. Disrupts purine incorporation into DNA
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Mycophenolate Mofentil
a. Is a horse antibody directed against T-cell antigens b. May cause cataracts and glucose intolerance c. Shows elevated GI toxicity compared to Azathioprine d. Interferes with wound healing e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
c. Shows elevated GI toxicity compared to Azathioprine
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Basiliximab is an antibody against IL-2 CD25 receptor b. Antithymocyte globulin (ATGAM) is a mouse antibody that rapidly depletes circulating T-cells c. Antithymocyte globulin (Thymoglobulin) is a rabbit antibody to T-cell antigens used in early rejection d. Muromonab (OKT3) is a murine antibody that targets CD4 and CD8 on T-cells e. All of the above are correct f. A and C are correct |
f. A and C are correct
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Which of the following combinations is/are correct?
a. Daclizumab - humanized antibody against calcineurin b. Cyclosporine – binds Cyclophilin c. Tacrolimus – inhibits mTOR activity d. Sirolimus – binds FK binding protein and inhibits dephosphorylation of NF-AT e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
b. Cyclosporine – binds Cyclophilin
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Which of the following would be an appropriate immunosuppression regimen to prevent rejection?
a. Tacrolimus, Prednisone, Muromonab b. Mycophenolate, ATGAM, Azathioprine c. Cyclosporine, Prednisone, Azathioprine d. Tacrolimus, Sirolimus, cyclosporine e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
c. Cyclosporine, Prednisone, Azathioprine
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Matching:
Decreases folic acid and inhibits lymphocyte proliferation a. Adalimumab b. Allopurinol c. Aurothioglucose d. Etanercept e. Hydroxychloroquine f. Infliximab g. Leflunomide h. Methotrexate i. Rasburicase j. Leucovorin |
h. Methotrexate
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Matching:
Inhibitor of mononuclear and T-cell proliferation that may produce bone marrow suppression a. Adalimumab b. Allopurinol c. Aurothioglucose d. Etanercept e. Hydroxychloroquine f. Infliximab g. Leflunomide h. Methotrexate i. Rasburicase j. Leucovorin |
g. Leflunomide
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Matching:
Block human TNF receptor a. Adalimumab b. Allopurinol c. Aurothioglucose d. Etanercept e. Hydroxychloroquine f. Infliximab g. Leflunomide h. Methotrexate i. Rasburicase j. Leucovorin |
d. Etanercept
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Matching:
Recombinant human TNF alpha antibody a. Adalimumab b. Allopurinol c. Aurothioglucose d. Etanercept e. Hydroxychloroquine f. Infliximab g. Leflunomide h. Methotrexate i. Rasburicase j. Leucovorin |
a. Adalimumab
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Matching:
Human-murine TNF alpha antibody a. Adalimumab b. Allopurinol c. Aurothioglucose d. Etanercept e. Hydroxychloroquine f. Infliximab g. Leflunomide h. Methotrexate i. Rasburicase j. Leucovorin |
f. Infliximab
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Matching:
Urate oxidase used in pediatric patients with increased uric acid levels due to tumor lysis a. Adalimumab b. Allopurinol c. Aurothioglucose d. Etanercept e. Hydroxychloroquine f. Infliximab g. Leflunomide h. Methotrexate i. Rasburicase j. Leucovorin |
i. Rasburicase
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Matching:
Inhibits Xanthine oxidase a. Adalimumab b. Allopurinol c. Aurothioglucose d. Etanercept e. Hydroxychloroquine f. Infliximab g. Leflunomide h. Methotrexate i. Rasburicase j. Leucovorin |
b. Allopurinol
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Which of the following is/are true?
a) Autocoids are released and act locally b) Autacoids are not stored in vesicles but are formed on demand c) Bradykinin antagonizes the effects of kallikrine d) Bradykinin increases vascular permeability by stimulating prostaglandin synthesis e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
a) Autocoids are released and act locally
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Which of the following is/are true?
a) The isoecoisonoids pathway of arachidonic acid metabolism produces endocannabonoids which are endogenous ligands for cannabinoid receptors b) Epoxides are P450 system products of arachadonic acid c) 15-Lipoxygenasae products include LTC4, LTC4 and LTCE4 d) 12-Lipoxygenase products regulate renal and cardiovascular function e) A and B are correct f) None of the above are correct |
e) A and B are correct
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Which of the following receptor, prostaglandin and second messenger combinations is/are correct?
a) DP – PGE2 – Gq b) EP4 – PGD2 – Gs c) IP – PGI2 – Gs d) TP – TXA2 – Gs e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
c) IP – PGI2 – Gs
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Match the drug to its correct use:
a) Carboprost – glaucoma b) Travoprost – cervical preparation c) Aloprostadil – postpartum bleeding d) Unoprostone - Erectile dysfunction e) Latanoprost – GI cytoprotection f) None of the above are correct |
f) None of the above are correct
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Aspirin
a) Irreversibly inhibits COX1, COX2 and COX3 b) May cause tinnitus in the dosage range used for anti-inflammatory effects c) Should be avoided during pregnancy d) Has been associated with the development of Reyes syndrome in children e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
e) All of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
a) Osalazine is converted into 5-aminosalicylic acid b) Celeocoxib irreversibly inhibits COX2 c) Oxaprozin has a plasma T1/2 of 40-60 hours d) Naproxen shows 50 fold selectivity for COX1 over COX2 e) A and C are correct f) B and D are correct |
e) A and C are correct
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Acetaminophen
a) Has fewer GI side effects because it mainly effects COX3 b) Toxicity is easily reversed by giving N-acetyl-cysteine c) Has poor anticoagulant activity because it reversibly inhibits COX1 d) Is exclusively metabolized by hepatic glucuronidation e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
a) Has fewer GI side effects because it mainly effects COX3
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Which of the following is/are true?
a) Ketorolac has similar potency against pain as opiates but use is limited to 5 days b) Indomethacin is widely used for its potent anti-inflammatory effects and because it has few side effects c) Piroxicam shows significantly more GI side effects than Aspirin d) Diclofenac inhibits mainly COX1 and has little anti-inflammatory activity e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
a) Ketorolac has similar potency against pain as opiates but use is limited to 5 days
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Disease modifying anti-rheumatoid drugs (DMARDS)
a) Are potent irreversible inhibitors of COX2 b) Inhibit neutrophil proliferation and chemotaxis c) Rapidly suppresses inflammatory responses d) May slow or halt inflammatory damage in joints e) B and D are correct f) All of the above are correct |
e) B and D are correct
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Gold salts
1) Suppress maturation of T cells and phagocytic actions of macrophages 2) Require 3-6 months to achieve maximum therapeutic effects 3) Damage mucous membranes 4) Must be directly injected into the affected joint A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F = None of the above are correct |
A = 1,2,3
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Which of the following is/are true?
a) Methotrexate decreases prostaglandin synthesis b) Leflunamide may cause hair loss and increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections c) Etanercept is a human-murine monoclonal antibody that binds TNF receptors d) Adalimumab is a murine TNF alpha antibody e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
b) Leflunamide may cause hair loss and increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections
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Which of the following is/are true about gout?
a) Aspirin can be used to control pain and inflammation from acute gout attacks b) Colchine decrease uric acid production c) Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase an enzyme which converts xanthine to uric acid d) Probenecid and Sulfinpyrazone both facilitate uric acid transport into the renal tubule e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
c) Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase an enzyme which converts xanthine to uric acid
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Which of the following is/are true?
a) B-lymphocytes mature in lymphoid tissue and are responsible for cellular immunity b) T-Lymphocytes mature in the thymus gland and are involved in humoral immunity c) Antigen presenting cells must process antigens before presenting to B-lymphocytes for antibody production d) B-Lymphocytes must be activated by T-helper cells releasing IL-2 e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
f) None of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
a) All T-cells express the CD3+ antigen b) T-helper type 1 cells release IL-2, IFN gamma and TNF alpha to activate macrophages, natural killer cells and cytotoxic T-cells c) Cytotoxic (Killer) T-cells all express the CD8+ antigen d) T-helper type 2 cells release IL-4 and IL-5 to activate B-cells and IL-10 to suppress activity of macrophages and killer cells e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
e) All of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/are true about rejection?
1) With appropriate cross matching of T and B lymphocytes, hyperacute rejection is rare 2) Acute rejection is mediated by both humoral and cellular immunity 3) Chronic rejection is mediated by both immune and non-immune mechanisms 4) Chronic rejection limits the average heart or kidney graft survival to 10 years A = 1,2,3, B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F = None of the above are correct |
E = All of the above are correct
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Azathioprine
a) Prevents cytokine release and T-cell activation b) Causes significantly less GI toxicity than mycophenolate mofentil c) Inhibits Thymidine synthase d) May cause significant hair loss e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
b) Causes significantly less GI toxicity than mycophenolate mofentil
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Mycophenolate mofentil (2 answers)
a) Disrupts guanine synthesis b) May cause jaundice and hepatitis c) Causes more bone marrow suppression than Azathioprine d) Must be hydrolyzed to mychophenolic acid to be active e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
a) Disrupts guanine synthesis
or d) Must be hydrolyzed to mychophenolic acid to be active |
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Which of the following is/are true?
a) Anthithymocyte globulin (ATGAM) is an antibody that specifically targets the CD3+ antigen on T-cells b) Antithymocyte globulin (Thymoglobulin) is contraindicated with HAMA titers of > 1:1000 c) Muromonab (OKT3) specifically binds the IL-2 receptor d) Dacclizumab is a humanized antibody that specifically binds to free IL-2 e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
f) None of the above are correct
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Calcineurin Inhibitors
a) Directly bind Nuclear factor of activated T-cells (NF-AT) and prevent it from entering the nucleus b) Cyclosporine has more nephrotoxicity than Tacrolimus c) Tacrolimus (FK506) may cause hair loss while Cyclosporine does not d) Do not cross the blood brain barrier e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
c) Tacrolimus (FK506) may cause hair loss while Cyclosporine does not
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Sirolimus
a) Binds to the same binding protein as Tacrolimus b) Prevents the synthesis and release of IL-2 c) Must be given immediately after the transplant d) Can be used to replace cyclosporine when used in combination with a glucocorticoid and mycophenolate mofentil e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
d) Can be used to replace cyclosporine when used in combination with a glucocorticoid and mycophenolate mofentil
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Which of the following is/are correct about the triple response to histamine?
a. The wheal is due to vasodilatation b. The flair is due to increased vascular permeability c. The redness is due to histamine induced Bradykinin release d. A and C are correct e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
f. None of the above are correct
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Bradykinin
a. Is metabolized rapidly in the kidney by Angiotensin converting enzyme b. Is a potent vasoconstrictor c. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle d. Helps to regulate urine volume and composition e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
d. Helps to regulate urine volume and composition
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. TXA2 increases renal blood flow b. LTD4 can stimulate fever development c. PGI2 relaxes bronchial smooth muscle d. PGE2 contracts vascular and bronchial smooth muscle e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
c. PGI2 relaxes bronchial smooth muscle
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Which of the following combinations are correct?
a. Alprostadil – used in open angle glaucoma b. Misoprostol – abortifacient c. Epoprostenol – erectile dysfunction d. Latanoprost - glaucoma e. B and D are correct f. All of the above are correct |
e. B and D are correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. 5-Lipoxygenase converts LTD4 into LTC4 b. Montelukast inhibits CYP2C9 and CYP3A4 c. Zileutin is a leukotriene receptor antagonist d. Leukotriene C4 mediates inflammation, mucous secretion and bronchoconstriction e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
d. Leukotriene C4 mediates inflammation, mucous secretion and bronchoconstriction
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Which of the following is/are general side effects of NSAIDs?
1) Decreased platelet aggregation 2) Decreased renal function 3) Delay labor and delivery 4) Increased GI mucous production n A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F = None of the above are correct |
A = 1,2,3
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Which of the following combinations is/are correct/
1) Leukotrienes increase leukocyte migration into inflamed tissue 2) Prostaglandins decrease the firing threshold of pain fibers 3) PGE2 synthesis is increased by Il-1. IL-2 and TNF in the hypothalamus 4) Leukotrienes increase capillary vasodilatation A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F = None of the above are correct |
A = 1,2,3
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Aspirin:
a. Irrevsiblely inhibits only the COX1 enzyme b. May initially cause respiratory alkalosis followed by metabolic acidosis during an overdose c. May increase urine production d. May cause Reye’s syndrome due to central inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
b. May initially cause respiratory alkalosis followed by metabolic acidosis during an overdose
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Acetaminophen:
a. Has poor anti-inflammatory actions because of low lipid solubility, can’t get to site of infection b. Has fewer GI and respiratory side effects because it only inhibits COX2 and COX3 c. May deplete glutathione levels d. Decreases platelet aggregation e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
c. May deplete glutathione levels
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Disease modifying anti-rheumatoid drugs (DMARDS)
a. Are potent inhibitors of cyclooxygenase b. May slow damage and scarring due to rheumatoid disease c. Are first line agents for rheumatoid disease d. Rapidly suppress the immune system e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
b. May slow damage and scarring due to rheumatoid disease
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Which of the following is/are true about gold salts?
a. They may produce a blue-grey skin discoloration b. They have very few side effects and are well tolerated c. They inhibit phagocytic actions of macrophages d. Rapidly reverse inflammation and swelling of joints e. A and C are correct f. All of the above are correct |
e. A and C are correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Low dose methotrexate inhibits lymphocyte proliferation b. Leflunomide inhibits T- cell proliferation c. Etanercept is an antibody against the TNF receptor d. Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody against TNF e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
e. All of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
1). B-lymphocytes mature into plasma cells 2) B-lymphocytes are involved in cellular immunity 3) T-lymphocytes require antigen presenting cells to recognize specific antigen 4) All mature T-lymphocytes have both CD4 and CD8 antigens on their cell surface A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F = None of the above are correct |
B = 1,3
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Which of the following is/are true about rejection?
1) Acute rejection is mainly mediated by T-lymphocytes 2) Is more easily treated if mediated by B-lymphocytes 3) Hyperacute rejection occurs when the patient has antibodies against MHC antigens of the donor 4) Chronic rejection is mainly due to release of TNF, IL-1 and IL-2 from T-cells A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F = None of the above are correct |
B = 1,3
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Azathioprine
a. Inhibits Il-2 release from T-cells b. Is mainly used to treat acute rejection c. Causes less bone marrow suppression than mycophenolate d. Is metabolized into 6-mercaptopurine e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
d. Is metabolized into 6-mercaptopurine
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Mycophenolate mofentil
a. Inhibits thymidine synthesis b. May cause lymphomas c. Works mainly on T-lymphocytes d. Causes more liver toxicity than Azathioprine e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
b. May cause lymphomas
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Antithymocyte globulin (ATGAM) is a horse derived antibody against T-cell antigens b. Antithymocyte globulin (Thymoglobulin) rapidly depletes (>90%) circulating T-cells c. Muromonab (OKT3) is used mainly in acute rejection d. Muromonab (OKT3) is contraindicated with a HAMA titer of > 1:1000 e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
e. All of the above are correct
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Which of the following combinations are correct?
a. Tacrolimus – inhibits calcineurin activity b. Cyclosporine – binds FK506 binding protein c. Basiliximab – m TOR inhibitor d. Sirolimus – binds the IL-2 receptor e. Daclizuamb – inhibits dephosphorylation of NF-AT f. All of the above are correct |
a. Tacrolimus – inhibits calcineurin activity
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Which of the following would be an appropriate immunosuppressive regimen to prevent graft rejection?
a. Tacrolimus, Cyclosporine, Muromonab b. Tacrolimus, Basiliximab, Sirolimus c. Cyclosporine, Azathioprine, Mycophenolate d. Tacrolimus, Mycophenolate, Prednisone e. Basiliximab. Sirolimus, Cyclosporine f. None of the above are appropriate |
d. Tacrolimus, Mycophenolate, Prednisone
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Cyclosporine produces less hyperglycemia than Tacrolimus b. Tacrolimus may cause hair loss c. Sirolimus may induce dyslipidemias that require therapy d. Sirolimus may suppress wound healing e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
e. All of the above are correct
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Matching
PGF2 analog used in glaucoma a. Adalimumab b. Auranofin c. Bimatoprost d. Ketorolac e. Olsalazine f. Oxaprozin g. Piroxicam |
c. Bimatoprost
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Matching
Converted to 5 aminosalicyclic acid in inflammatory bowel syndrome a. Adalimumab b. Auranofin c. Bimatoprost d. Ketorolac e. Olsalazine f. Oxaprozin g. Piroxicam |
e. Olsalazine
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Matching
Very long acting NSAID a. Adalimumab b. Auranofin c. Bimatoprost d. Ketorolac e. Olsalazine f. Oxaprozin g. Piroxicam |
f. Oxaprozin
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Matching
NSAID used in post operative pain a. Adalimumab b. Auranofin c. Bimatoprost d. Ketorolac e. Olsalazine f. Oxaprozin g. Piroxicam |
d. Ketorolac
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Matching
NSAID with few GI side effects than aspirin a. Adalimumab b. Auranofin c. Bimatoprost d. Ketorolac e. Olsalazine f. Oxaprozin g. Piroxicam |
g. Piroxicam
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Matching
Gold salt orally available a. Adalimumab b. Auranofin c. Bimatoprost d. Ketorolac e. Olsalazine f. Oxaprozin g. Piroxicam |
b. Auranofin
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Matching
Monoclonal antibody to TNF alpha a. Adalimumab b. Auranofin c. Bimatoprost d. Ketorolac e. Olsalazine f. Oxaprozin g. Piroxicam |
a. Adalimumab
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Bradykinin:
a. Is metabolized by the same enzyme as Angiotensin II b. Has anti-inflammatory actions c. Is a potent vasodilator d. Stimulates gastric acid secretion A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F = None of the above are correct |
B = 1,3
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. TXA2 has no effect on gastric acid secretion b. LTC4 and LTD4 relax uterine smooth muscle c. PGF2α relaxes the pregnant uterus d. PGE2 contracts blood vessels by increasing IP3 and DAG e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
a. TXA2 has no effect on gastric acid secretion
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Which of the following is/are correct for the following drugs?
a. Carboprost – used for cervical preparation before delivery b. Misoprostol – used for GI cytoprotection c. Latanoprost – used in pulmonary hypertension d. Treprostil – used in open angle glaucoma e. A and C f. B and D |
b. Misoprostol – used for GI cytoprotection
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Which of the following is/are not (a) general side effect(s) of NSAIDS?
a. Bleeding b. Prolong gestation c. Increased platelet aggregation d, Hypersensitivity reactions e. All of the above are not f. None of the above are not. |
c. Increased platelet aggregation
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Which of the following is/are true of NSAIDS?
a. They decrease pain by decreasing sensitivity of pain fibers to PGE2 b. Antipyretic actions are due to prevention of release of IL-6 and TNFα c. They directly decrease capillary permeability d. They inhibit leukocyte migration into inflamed tissue e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
a. They decrease pain by decreasing sensitivity of pain fibers to PGE2
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Which of the following is/are true about aspirin?
a. Aspirin induced asthma is due to inhibition of LTC4 synthase b. Aspirin causes Reye’s syndrome by inhibiting primarily COX-2 enzyme products c. Platelet cyclo-oxygenase is potently and reversibly inhibited by Aspirin d. Aspirin may inhibit renal function e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
d. Aspirin may inhibit renal function
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Ibuprofen is selective for COX 1 b. Naproxen has the longest half-life of all proprionic acid derivatives c. Celecoxib appears to inhibit PGI2 synthesis more than TXA2 synthesis d. Cox -2 inhibitors have no effects on bleeding times e. All of the above are true f. None of the above are true. |
c. Celecoxib appears to inhibit PGI2 synthesis more than TXA2 synthesis
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Acetaminophen:
a. Is inactivated by peripheral tissue peroxidases b. A 20 gm dose may completely deplete glutathione levels c. Shows poor anti-inflammatory and anti-coagulant properties d. Inhibits COX -3 and shows fewer side effects than aspirin e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
e. All of the above are correct
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Disease modifying anti-rheumatoid drugs (DMARDS):
a. Are potent inhibitors of COX – 1 and COX -2 b. Inhibit neutrophil proliferation and chemotaxis c. Stimulate cytokine and interleukin production d. Rapidly reduce joint inflammation e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
b. Inhibit neutrophil proliferation and chemotaxis
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Which of the following is/are false?
a. Aurothioglucose may accumulate in skin and mucous membranes b. Methotrexate inhibits lymphocyte proliferation at low doses c. Leflunomide is teratogenic and may cause bone marrow suppression d. Etanercept inhibits human TNF e. All of the above are false f. None of the above are false |
f. None of the above are false
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Matching
PGE2 analog used in cervical preparation before delivery a. Adalimumab b. Diclofenac c. Diflusinal d. Dinoprostone e. Epoprostenol f. Indomethacin g. Infliximab h. Ketorolac i. Montelukast j. Travaprost |
d. Dinoprostone
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Matching
PGI2 analog used in pulmonary hypertension a. Adalimumab b. Diclofenac c. Diflusinal d. Dinoprostone e. Epoprostenol f. Indomethacin g. Infliximab h. Ketorolac i. Montelukast j. Travaprost |
e. Epoprostenol
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Matching
PGF2α analog used in Glaucoma a. Adalimumab b. Diclofenac c. Diflusinal d. Dinoprostone e. Epoprostenol f. Indomethacin g. Infliximab h. Ketorolac i. Montelukast j. Travaprost |
j. Travaprost
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Matching
LTD4 antagonist a. Adalimumab b. Diclofenac c. Diflusinal d. Dinoprostone e. Epoprostenol f. Indomethacin g. Infliximab h. Ketorolac i. Montelukast j. Travaprost |
i. Montelukast
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Matching
Salicylate used in Rheumatoid arthritis a. Adalimumab b. Diclofenac c. Diflusinal d. Dinoprostone e. Epoprostenol f. Indomethacin g. Infliximab h. Ketorolac i. Montelukast j. Travaprost |
c. Diflusinal
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Matching
Drug of choice to close ductus arteriosis a. Adalimumab b. Diclofenac c. Diflusinal d. Dinoprostone e. Epoprostenol f. Indomethacin g. Infliximab h. Ketorolac i. Montelukast j. Travaprost |
f. Indomethacin
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Matching
NSAID used mainly for pain relief a. Adalimumab b. Diclofenac c. Diflusinal d. Dinoprostone e. Epoprostenol f. Indomethacin g. Infliximab h. Ketorolac i. Montelukast j. Travaprost |
h. Ketorolac
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Matching
NSAID used mainly for anti-inflammatory actions a. Adalimumab b. Diclofenac c. Diflusinal d. Dinoprostone e. Epoprostenol f. Indomethacin g. Infliximab h. Ketorolac i. Montelukast j. Travaprost |
b. Diclofenac
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Matching
Human-murine monoclonal antibody used in Crohn’s disease a. Adalimumab b. Diclofenac c. Diflusinal d. Dinoprostone e. Epoprostenol f. Indomethacin g. Infliximab h. Ketorolac i. Montelukast j. Travaprost |
g. Infliximab
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Matching
Recombinant human anti TNF antibody a. Adalimumab b. Diclofenac c. Diflusinal d. Dinoprostone e. Epoprostenol f. Indomethacin g. Infliximab h. Ketorolac i. Montelukast j. Travaprost |
a. Adalimumab
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List three physiological functions mediated by autacoids.
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Temperature, pain, blood flow, urine flow, fever, inflammation, allergy, GI, uterine, renal, function
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List two physiological functions mediated by Histamine H2 receptors
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Vasodilation, Gastric acid secretion
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List three therapeutic uses of NSAIDS
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Antipyretic, analgesic, anti-inflammatory, anticoagulant, colon cancer, Alzheimer’s disease, gout
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Matching choose the one best answer
PGE1 analog used to enhance mucous production a. Acetaminophen b. Allopurinol c. Auranofin d. Aurothioglucose e. Epoprostenol f. Etanercept g. Ketorolac h. Lantoprost i. Lubiprostone j. Methotrexate k. Misoprostol l. Oxaprozin m. Tocilizumab n. Zileuton |
k. Misoprostol
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Matching choose the one best answer
PGF2 analog used in glaucoma a. Acetaminophen b. Allopurinol c. Auranofin d. Aurothioglucose e. Epoprostenol f. Etanercept g. Ketorolac h. Lantoprost i. Lubiprostone j. Methotrexate k. Misoprostol l. Oxaprozin m. Tocilizumab n. Zileuton |
h. Lantoprost
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Matching choose the one best answer
NSAID used primarily of postoperative pain a. Acetaminophen b. Allopurinol c. Auranofin d. Aurothioglucose e. Epoprostenol f. Etanercept g. Ketorolac h. Lantoprost i. Lubiprostone j. Methotrexate k. Misoprostol l. Oxaprozin m. Tocilizumab n. Zileuton |
g. Ketorolac
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Matching choose the one best answer
Inhibits folic acid synthesis a. Acetaminophen b. Allopurinol c. Auranofin d. Aurothioglucose e. Epoprostenol f. Etanercept g. Ketorolac h. Lantoprost i. Lubiprostone j. Methotrexate k. Misoprostol l. Oxaprozin m. Tocilizumab n. Zileuton |
j. Methotrexate
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Matching choose the one best answer
Il-6 receptor antibody a. Acetaminophen b. Allopurinol c. Auranofin d. Aurothioglucose e. Epoprostenol f. Etanercept g. Ketorolac h. Lantoprost i. Lubiprostone j. Methotrexate k. Misoprostol l. Oxaprozin m. Tocilizumab n. Zileuton |
m. Tocilizumab
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Matching choose the one best answer
Oral gold salt formulation a. Acetaminophen b. Allopurinol c. Auranofin d. Aurothioglucose e. Epoprostenol f. Etanercept g. Ketorolac h. Lantoprost i. Lubiprostone j. Methotrexate k. Misoprostol l. Oxaprozin m. Tocilizumab n. Zileuton |
c. Auranofin
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List three autacoids.
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Histamine, Bradykinin, serotonin, eicosanoids, Prostaglandins, Leukotrienes
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List two physiological functions mediated by Bradykinin B2 receptors
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Algesic, Inflammation, increased vascular permeability, vasodilatation, Increase IL-1 and TNF
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List three common side effects of NSAIDS
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Bronchospasm, impaired hepatic function, decreased renal function, GI Ulceration, bleeding, hypersensitivity, prolong gestation, uncouple oxidative phosphorylation
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List what occurs during the triple response, explain each component
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Redness- H1 and H2 vasodilation
Wheal – H1 edema Flair H2 reflex vasodilation |
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List two physiological functions mediated by Histamine H1 receptors
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Vasodilation, Increased vascular permeability, pain/itching, bronchoconstriction
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List three symptoms of salicylate toxicity
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Bleeding, GI ulcerations, fever, nausea, hypersensitivity, tinnitus, hyperventilation, alkalosis, coma, respiratory depression, renal failure , acidosis
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Matching choose the one best answer
PGF2 analog used to stop postpartum bleeding a. Acetaminophen b. Allopurinol c. Auranofin d. Bimatoprost e. Carboprost f. Diflunisal g. Infliximab h. Ketorolac i. Lubiprostone j. Methotrexate k. Misoprostol l. Oxaprozin m. Tocilizumab n. Zileuton |
e. Carboprost
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Matching choose the one best answer
PGE1 analog used to treat chronic idiopathic constipation a. Acetaminophen b. Allopurinol c. Auranofin d. Bimatoprost e. Carboprost f. Diflunisal g. Infliximab h. Ketorolac i. Lubiprostone j. Methotrexate k. Misoprostol l. Oxaprozin m. Tocilizumab n. Zileuton |
i. Lubiprostone
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Matching choose the one best answer
PGF2a analog used to treat glaucoma and increase eye lash length a. Acetaminophen b. Allopurinol c. Auranofin d. Bimatoprost e. Carboprost f. Diflunisal g. Infliximab h. Ketorolac i. Lubiprostone j. Methotrexate k. Misoprostol l. Oxaprozin m. Tocilizumab n. Zileuton |
d. Bimatoprost
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Matching choose the one best answer
NSAID with good anti-inflammatory and analgesic activity but with limited antipyretic activity (2 answers) a. Acetaminophen b. Allopurinol c. Auranofin d. Bimatoprost e. Carboprost f. Diflunisal g. Infliximab h. Ketorolac i. Lubiprostone j. Methotrexate k. Misoprostol l. Oxaprozin m. Tocilizumab n. Zileuton |
f. Diflunisal
or h. Ketorolac |
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Matching choose the one best answer
Human-murine TNF antibody a. Acetaminophen b. Allopurinol c. Auranofin d. Bimatoprost e. Carboprost f. Diflunisal g. Infliximab h. Ketorolac i. Lubiprostone j. Methotrexate k. Misoprostol l. Oxaprozin m. Tocilizumab n. Zileuton |
g. Infliximab
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Matching choose the one best answer
Oral gold salt formulation a. Acetaminophen b. Allopurinol c. Auranofin d. Bimatoprost e. Carboprost f. Diflunisal g. Infliximab h. Ketorolac i. Lubiprostone j. Methotrexate k. Misoprostol l. Oxaprozin m. Tocilizumab n. Zileuton |
c. Auranofin
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Matching choose the one best answer
PGE1 analog used to maintain ductus arteriosis a. Adalimumab b. Alprostadil c. Auranofin d. Aurothioglucose e. Epoprostenol f. Etanercep g. Indomethacin h. Lantanoprost i. Lubiprostone j. Leflunomide k. Misoprostol l. Oxaprozin m. Tocilizumab n. Zileuton |
b. Alprostadil
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Matching choose the one best answer
PGI2 analog used in pulmonary hypertension a. Adalimumab b. Alprostadil c. Auranofin d. Aurothioglucose e. Epoprostenol f. Etanercep g. Indomethacin h. Lantanoprost i. Lubiprostone j. Leflunomide k. Misoprostol l. Oxaprozin m. Tocilizumab n. Zileuton |
e. Epoprostenol
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Matching choose the one best answer
NSAID used to close the ductus arteriosis a. Adalimumab b. Alprostadil c. Auranofin d. Aurothioglucose e. Epoprostenol f. Etanercep g. Indomethacin h. Lantanoprost i. Lubiprostone j. Leflunomide k. Misoprostol l. Oxaprozin m. Tocilizumab n. Zileuton |
g. Indomethacin
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Matching choose the one best answer
Inhibits T cell proliferation and inhibits immune cell DNA synthesis a. Adalimumab b. Alprostadil c. Auranofin d. Aurothioglucose e. Epoprostenol f. Etanercep g. Indomethacin h. Lantanoprost i. Lubiprostone j. Leflunomide k. Misoprostol l. Oxaprozin m. Tocilizumab n. Zileuton |
j. Leflunomide
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Matching choose the one best answer
Recombinant Human TNF antibody a. Adalimumab b. Alprostadil c. Auranofin d. Aurothioglucose e. Epoprostenol f. Etanercep g. Indomethacin h. Lantanoprost i. Lubiprostone j. Leflunomide k. Misoprostol l. Oxaprozin m. Tocilizumab n. Zileuton |
a. Adalimumab
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Matching choose the one best answer
Gold salt formulation for injections a. Adalimumab b. Alprostadil c. Auranofin d. Aurothioglucose e. Epoprostenol f. Etanercep g. Indomethacin h. Lantanoprost i. Lubiprostone j. Leflunomide k. Misoprostol l. Oxaprozin m. Tocilizumab n. Zileuton |
d. Aurothioglucose
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