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58 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which of the following is/are true?
a) Penicillin’s meet the definition as antibiotics b) Sulfonamides meet the definition as antimicrobials c) Clarithromycin and Azithromycin are Bacteriostatic d) Gentamicin is bactericidal e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
e) All of the above are correct
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Which of the following combinations is/are correct?
a) Vancomycin – inhibits transpeptidases to prevent cell wall synthesis b) Ciprofloxacin – inhibits RNA dependent DNA polymerase c) Linezolid – Binds the 50 s subunit to prevent formation of ribosomal unit d) Polymyxin B – Blocks lipid carrier to prevent cell wall synthesis e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
f) None of the above are correct
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Which of the following are the most important factors to consider when for selecting the following antibiotics?
a) Rifampin – renal function b) Ampicillin – Status of immune system c) Nitrofurantoin – liver function d) Moxifloxacin – use of antiarrhythmics e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
d) Moxifloxacin – use of antiarrhythmics
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Which of the following is/are true?
a) The MIC value is the concentration at which a drug kills all bacteria b) Resistance will not develop if the antimicrobial drug reaches a blood level of 4 times the MBC c) The narrowest spectrum antimicrobial, to which the bacteria are sensitive, should be used. d) The MBC is used to determine which antibiotic the bacteria is sensitive to e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
c) The narrowest spectrum antimicrobial, to which the bacteria are sensitive, should be used.
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Which of the following drug/mechanisms of resistance development combinations is/are correct?
a) Tetracyclines – increased efflux pathways b) Penicillin’s – transfer of beta-lactamases by plasmids c) Sulfisoxazole – increased PABA production d) Isoniazid – mutation in activation enzyme e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
e) All of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
a) PBP’s are enzymes which inactivate penicillin b) Gram + bacteria have thicker cell membranes than Gram – bacteria c) Cephalosporin’s require an intact beta-lactam ring for activity d) Porins play an important role in antibacterial’s entering Gram + bacteria e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
c) Cephalosporin’s require an intact beta-lactam ring for activity
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Which of the following is/are true about penicillin’s?
a) Penicillin V is inactivated easily by stomach acid b) Methicillin is the penicillin of choice for penicillinase producing staphylococcal infections c) Ampicillin and Amoxicillin are mainly used because they are less sensitive to penicillinase d) Piperacillin is a broad spectrum penicillin e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
d) Piperacillin is a broad spectrum penicillin
or f) None of the above are correct |
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Cephalosporin’s
a) Show only Gram + activity b) Are all equally sensitive to beta-lactamase c) Are all available orally d) All can interact with vitamin K to produce bleeding e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
f) None of the above are correct
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Which of he following is/are true?
a) Imipenem is compounded with cilastin to prevent kidney tubule damage b) Aztreonam shows mainly Gram + antibacterial activity c) Carbapenem’s are the broadest spectrum beta-lactam agents d) Vancomycin is the drug of choice for clostridium difficile e) A and C f) B and D |
e) A and C
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Which of the following combinations of drug and site of action are correct?
a) Amikacin – blocks initiation t-RNA from binding to 50S ribosomal subunit b) Doxycycline – Binds the 30S-50S subunit interface to distort the codon c) Erythromycin – binds the 30S ribosomal subunit to cause early termination of peptide synthesis d) Dalfopristin – binds the 50S subunit to prevent formation of 70S ribosome e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
a) Amikacin – blocks initiation t-RNA from binding to 50S ribosomal subunit
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Gentamicin
a) Should not be combined with penicillin because it enhances nephrotoxicity b) May accumulate in renal tubules inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis c) Ototoxicity is easily reversible d) Is contraindicated in myasthenia gravis e) B and D f) All of the above are correct |
e) B and D
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Which of the following is/are true?
a) Chloramphenicol may cause fatal bone marrow suppression b) Clarithromycin and azithromycin may be used in mycobacterium avium complex c) Telithromycin may interfere with accommodation d) Clindamycin may lead to clostridium difficile super-infections e) B and D f) All of the above are correct |
f) All of the above are correct
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Sulfonamide’s
a) Are Bactericidal b) Accumulate in the urine making them useful in UTI’s c) Inhibit dihyrofolate reductase d) Are a leading cause of Stevens - Johnson syndrome e) B and D f) All of the above are correct |
e) B and D
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Which of the following is/are true about fluroquinolones?
a) Norfloxacin works selectively on Topoisomerase IV b) Are effective in sexually transmitted diseases c) Are the agents of choice for children with sort-tissue, and joint infections d) Show concentration dependent killing e) B and D f) None of the above are correct |
e) B and D
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Which of the following is/are true about tuberculosis?
a) Positive PPD skin tests predict conversion from latent to active disease within five years b) Granulomas contain only dead bacteria c) Infections are limited to lung tissue d) All immunocompromised patients with positive PPD skin tests (>5 mm) should receive prophylactic therapy e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
d) All immunocompromised patients with positive PPD skin tests (>5 mm) should receive prophylactic therapy
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Which of the following is/are correct?
a) Isoniazid inhibits mycolic acid production b) Rifampin should never be used alone in tuberculosis because of resistance development c) Ethambutol use is limited because of visual toxicity d) Pyrazinamide inhibits uric acid secretion e) A and C f) All of the above are correct |
f) All of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
a) Clofazimine – discolors site of active infection b) Dapsone – inhibits conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol c) Rifabutin- is useful for mycobacterium avium complex d) Mycobacterial cell membranes contain ergosterol e) A and C f) All of the above are correct |
e) A and C
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Which of the following patients are at high risk for developing fungal infections?
a) A severely burned patient b) A recent heart-lung transplant patient taking immunosuppressant’s c) A female patient taking antibiotics for a sever UTI d) A patient with uncontrolled diabetes e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
e) All of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/are correct?
a) Fungal cell membranes contain lanosterol b) Amphotericin B inhibits lanosterol demethylase c) Flurocytosine inhibits thymidylate synthase d) Amphotericin B is commonly used for superficial fugal infections e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
c) Flurocytosine inhibits thymidylate synthase
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Which of the following is/are true?
a) Itraconazole inhibits 14-alpha-demethylase b) Fluconazole is effective against crytococcal meningitis c) Voraconazole is becoming the drug of choice for systemic aspergillis d) Caspofungin can be used in Voraconazole resistant aspergillis e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
e) All of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/are true about protozoan infections?
a) Metronidazole is the drug of choice for clostridium difficile and Trichomoniasis b) Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine is selective for the hepatic phase of malaria c) Atovaquone should not be used against pneumocystis pneumonia because of resistance development d) Mefloquine toxicity mainly involves hematopoietic cells e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
a) Metronidazole is the drug of choice for clostridium difficile and Trichomoniasis
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Which of the following is/are true about viral therapy
a) Acyclovir can prevent chicken-pox if given within 24 hours of exposure b) Famciclovir is a prodrug for acyclovir c) Ganciclovir’s main indications include herpes simplex and Varicella-zoster infections d) Foscarnet may cause hypocalcaemia and hypokalemia e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
d) Foscarnet may cause hypocalcaemia and hypokalemia
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Which of the following is/are correct?
1) Amantadine- may cause hallucinations 2) Oseltamivir – selectively inhibits neuraminidase 3) Ribavirin - requires contraceptive use for 6 months following therapy 4) Interferon alpha – inhibits uncoating of viral particles A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2, 4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F = None of the above are correct |
A = 1,2,3
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Blocks phospholipids carrier of peptide used in cell wall synthesis of gram + organisms
a) Adefovir b) Bacitracin c) Griseofulvin d) Linezolid e) Methenamine f) Mupriricin g) Norfloxacin h) Rifampin i) Telithromycin j) Tolnafate |
b) Bacitracin
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Forms formaldehyde in urine
a) Adefovir b) Bacitracin c) Griseofulvin d) Linezolid e) Methenamine f) Mupriricin g) Norfloxacin h) Rifampin i) Telithromycin j) Tolnafate |
e) Methenamine
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Inhibits mitotic spindle formation
a) Adefovir b) Bacitracin c) Griseofulvin d) Linezolid e) Methenamine f) Mupriricin g) Norfloxacin h) Rifampin i) Telithromycin j) Tolnafate |
c) Griseofulvin
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Effective in Tenia pedis
a) Adefovir b) Bacitracin c) Griseofulvin d) Linezolid e) Methenamine f) Mupriricin g) Norfloxacin h) Rifampin i) Telithromycin j) Tolnafate |
j) Tolnafate
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Long term therapy for hepatitis B
a) Adefovir b) Bacitracin c) Griseofulvin d) Linezolid e) Methenamine f) Mupriricin g) Norfloxacin h) Rifampin i) Telithromycin j) Tolnafate |
a) Adefovir
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Inhibits normal super coiling of DNA during replication
a) Adefovir b) Bacitracin c) Griseofulvin d) Linezolid e) Methenamine f) Mupriricin g) Norfloxacin h) Rifampin i) Telithromycin j) Tolnafate |
g) Norfloxacin
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Recent black box warning on visual, neuromuscular and liver toxicity
a) Adefovir b) Bacitracin c) Griseofulvin d) Linezolid e) Methenamine f) Mupriricin g) Norfloxacin h) Rifampin i) Telithromycin j) Tolnafate |
i) Telithromycin
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Reserved for vancomycin resistant E. facium and other drug-resistant bacteria
a) Adefovir b) Bacitracin c) Griseofulvin d) Linezolid e) Methenamine f) Mupriricin g) Norfloxacin h) Rifampin i) Telithromycin j) Tolnafate |
d) Linezolid
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Inhibits RNA dependent DNA polymerase
a) Adefovir b) Bacitracin c) Griseofulvin d) Linezolid e) Methenamine f) Mupriricin g) Norfloxacin h) Rifampin i) Telithromycin j) Tolnafate |
h) Rifampin
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Inhibits isolucyl-t-RNA transferase
a) Adefovir b) Bacitracin c) Griseofulvin d) Linezolid e) Methenamine f) Mupriricin g) Norfloxacin h) Rifampin i) Telithromycin j) Tolnafate |
f) Mupriricin
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Bacteriostatic agents usually bind reversibly within the target site b. Bactericidal agents irreversible bind to the ribosome c. Antibiotic refers to a substance released by one microbe to inhibit the growth of another d. Antimicrobial refers to a naturally occurring substance e. A and C are correct f. B and D are correct |
e. A and C are correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) is equivalent to the therapeutic blood level b. The Disk Diffusion assay is used to determine the dose of antibiotic to be used. c. Minimal Bactericidal concentration is the concentration of drug which completely prevents bacterial cell growth. d. Minimal Inhibitory Concentration (MIC) can only be determined for bactericidal agents e. All of the above are true f. None of the above are true |
c. Minimal Bactericidal concentration is the concentration of drug which completely prevents bacterial cell growth.
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Antibiotic resistance that is plasmid mediated can be transferred only between bacteria of the same strain. b. Antibacterial use may lead to alterations in the composition of an individual’s normal flora c. Broad-spectrum antibiotics should be used to prevent resistance development in severe infections. d. Only very high doses of antibiotics may lead to super infections with opportunistic microorganisms. e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
b. Antibacterial use may lead to alterations in the composition of an individual’s normal flora
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Time above the MIC is the most important factor in time dependent killing. b. Resistance will not develop if the antibiotic reaches therapeutic levels of 4X the MBC c. Aminoglycosides are an example of concentration dependent killing antibiotics d. Tripling the dose of penicillin will kill three times as many bacteria e. A and C are correct f. All of the above are correct |
e. A and C are correct
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In which of the following clinical situations is prophylactic use of antibiotics warranted?
1. In a patient with heart valve replacement who is having a tooth removed. 2. Prevention of meningitis among individuals exposed to an infected patient. 3. Surgery for a ruptured appendix. 4. A patient with a low grade chronic fever A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F = None of the above are correct |
A = 1,2,3
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Which of he following parings is/are the correct drug-mechanism for resistance development?
a. Penicillin – change in specific PBP b. Aminoglycosides – altered transport proteins which decreases antibiotic concentration in the bacteria c. Tetracyclines – plasmid mediated changes in active transporters in the bacteria d. Macrolides – decreased binding to the ribosome e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct. |
e. All of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/are true about penicillin’s?
a. All penicillin’s are beta-lactamase sensitive. b. Amoxicillin plus Clavulanic acid (Augmentin) is very effective against pseudomonal infections c. Penicillin’s are actively secreted into the renal tubules d. Penicillin can potentate the activity of Isoniazid in tuberculosis. e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
c. Penicillin’s are actively secreted into the renal tubules
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Cephalosporins
a. Are resistant to beta lactamase b. Increase gram + activity with increasing generations c. All interfere with vitamin K metabolism d. Are agents of choice for individuals with penicillin allergies. e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
f. None of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/ are true?
a. Imipenim is compounded with cilastin (cilistatin) to prevent Nephrotoxicity b. Carbapenems are only effective in aerobic bacteria c. Aztreonam given orally is effective in gram – bacteria d. Vancomycin is the treatment of choice for pseudomembraneous colitis e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
a. Imipenim is compounded with cilastin (cilistatin) to prevent Nephrotoxicity
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Vancomycin induced redman syndrome is due to histamine release b. Fosfomycin is effective as single dose therapy for uncomplicated urinary tract infections due to E. Coli. c. Bacitaracin use is limited to topical because of systemic Nephrotoxicity d. Vancomycin is effective against Methacillin resistant staph aureus (MRSA) e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
e. All of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/are true about protein synthesis inhibitors?
a. Aminoglycosides specifically bind the 50s subunit of the ribosome and prevent elongation of peptide. b. Tetracyclines can compete with Chloramphenicol for the binding site on the 50s ribosome. c. Linezolid binds at the 30s-50s ribosomal subunit interface d. Erythromycin binds to the 30s subunit to prevent t-RNA from binding e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
f. None of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/a re true about aminoglycisides
1. They are bactericidal 2. The concomitant use of loop diuretics is encouraged to decrease Nephrotoxicity 3. Ototoxicity is associated with permanent loss of outer hair cells in the cochlea 4. All Aminoglycosides are available for oral use A = 1,2 3, B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F = None of the above are correct |
B = 1,3
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Tetracyclines
a. Are Bacteriostatic b. Are accumulated into bacteria by a transport system c. Accumulate in bone and teeth d. Doxycycline may be used in renal insufficiency e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
e. All of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
1. Erythromycin may inhibit CYP3A4 2. Chloramphenicol is metabolized by hepatic glucuronidation 3. Streptogramins are used in Vancomycin and Methacillin resistant bacteria 4. Clindamycin is the agent of choice for treatment of pseudomembranous colitis A = 1,2 3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F = None of the above are correct |
A = 1,2 3
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Sulfonamides
a. Interfere with PABA conversion to folic acid b. Are not useful for useful for urinary tract infections c. May cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome d. Inhibit dihydrofolate reductase e. All of the above are correct f. A and C |
f. A and C
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Fluroquinolones
a. Inhibit topoisomerase b. May damage cartilage in children c. May cause Hepatotoxicity d. Can be used for joint infections or UTI’s e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
e. All of the above are correct
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Mycobacteria
1. Waxy cell coat contains mycolic acid 2. Can exist for long periods of time as latent infections 3. Cause leprosy 4. Normally show very rapid growth A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F = None of the above are correct |
A = 1,2,3
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Isoniazid
a. Should never be used alone in tuberculosis treatment because of resistance development. b. Undergoes mainly renal elimination c. May cause hepatitis d. Bactericidal in latent infections e. A and C f. B and D |
c. May cause hepatitis
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Which of the following is/are true about tuberculosis therapy?
a. Rifampin may cause hepatitis and jaundice b. Ethambutol therapy is limited to two months to prevent Hepatotoxicity c. Pyrazinamide may decrease color vision and visual acuity d. Rifampin is frequently used alone in therapy e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
a. Rifampin may cause hepatitis and jaundice
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Which of the following is/are true ?
a. Dapsone inhibits mycobacterial folic acid synthesis b. Clofazimine inhibits ergosterol synthesis c. Rifabutin is the drug of choice for mycobacterium avium d. A, B, C are correct e. A and C are correct f. None of the above are correct |
e. A and C are correct
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which of the following is/are true about fungal infections?
a. Amphotericin B ihibits ergosterol synthesis b. Itraconazole prevents conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol c. Terbinafine is effective topically for nail infections d. Griseofulvin is deposited in keratin precursor cells. e. A and C f. B and D |
f. B and D
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Which of the following is/are matched correctly with their antimalerial mechanism?
a. Primaquine is most effective against the red blood cell stage b. Mefloquine is effective in the late hepatic stage c. Pyrimethamine is most effective in the red blood cell stage d. Quinidine is effective in the early hepatic stage e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
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Acyclovir
a. Adenosine analog lacking the sugar moiety b. Eliminated by renal excretion c. Effective against Respiratory Syncytial virus d. May cause seizures and delirium or bone marrow suppression e. A and C f. B and D |
f. B and D
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Ganciclovir is effective against cytomegalovirus in transplant patients b. Foscarnet use requires 6 months of contraceptive therapy after use c. Interferon alpha is effective for hepatitis B and C d. Ribavirin may cause hypocalcaemia and Hyperkalemia e. A and C f. B and D |
e. A and C
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Lamivudine
a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c. Protease inhibitor d. Fusion inhibitor |
a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
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