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81 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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______________ inhibits lipid carrier bringing strand out of cell and Inhibits cell wall synthesis by blocking lipid carrier through membrane
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Bacitracin
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Broad spectrum Beta- lactam antibiotics ______________
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Carbapenems
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Used specifically in Vancomycin resistant bacteria and Works by depolarization and loss of membrane potential to bacteria ___________
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Daptomycin (Cyclic lipopeptide)
Bactericidal |
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Binds 30s-50s interface and distorts codon _____________
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Gentamicin (Aminoglycoside)
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Antipseudomonal penicillin ______________
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Piperacillin
Ticarcillin |
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Penicillin G
Penicillin V |
Natural Penicillins
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Nafcillin
Oxacillin Methacillin Dicloxacillin |
Penicillinase Resistant Penicillins
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Ampicillin
Amoxicillin Becampicillin |
Broad Spectrum Penicillins
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Inhibits cell wall synthesis by binding to end of polypeptide chain _____________
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Vancomycin
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Binds 50s subunit and interferes with initiation complex ________________
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Macrolides
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Macrolide with OCH3 in structure
Treats H. Pylori and mycobacterium avium Inhibits CYP3A4 (interacts with theophylline, warfarin and digoxin) |
Clarithromycin
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Macrolide with NCH3 in structure
Treats H. Influenzae and mycobacterium avium |
Azithromycin
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Causes QT prolongation with antihistamines and ketoconazole
Inhibits CYP3A4 (interacts with theophylline, warfarin and digoxin) |
Erythromycin
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Describe the process of obtaining an MIC
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Put samples of bacteria in wells, and then put antibiotic in wells at increasing concentrations. The lowest concentration of an antimicrobial that will inhibit any visible growth of the microorganism is the MIC. Doses given are usually 2-3 times the MIC.
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Define time-dependent concentration
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The antibiotic concentration must be maintained above the MIC throughout the dosing interval
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Define concentration-dependent concentration
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The higher the antibiotic concentration, the more bacteria is killed.
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Describe the process of obtaining an MBC.
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Put samples of bacteria in wells, and then put antibiotic that inhibit the organism's growth in wells at increasing concentrations. The lowest concentration of an antibiotic required to kill the organism under microscope is the MBC.
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Bacteriostatic agents usually inhibit cell wall synthesis. b. Bacterial cell growth is always logarithmic c. Only synthetic antibiotics show concentration dependent killing d. A and C are correct e. B and D are correct f. None of the above choices are correct |
f. None of the above choices are correct
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Which of the following factors is/are important in selecting an antibiotic?
1. Site of infection 2. Microbial spectrum 3. Status of host immune system 4. Natural or synthetic compound A =1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,3 D = 4 only E = All of the above choices are correct F = None of the above choices are correct |
A =1,2,3
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Bacteriostatic agents always inhibit cell wall synthesis. b. Aminoglycosides are bactericidal c. Broad spectrum antibiotics should be used in uncomplicated UTI’s to prevent resistance development d. Prophylactic use of antibiotics is always contraindicated. e. All of the above choices are correct f. None of the above choices are correct |
b. Aminoglycosides are bactericidal
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Which of the following mechanism of resistance is/are correct?
a. Penicillin’s – changes in ribosome binding sites b. Tetracycline’s – Increased efflux pathways c. Cephalosporin’s – Plasmid acquired changes in permeability d. Vancomycin – change in 30s ribosome binding site. e. All of the above choices are correct f. None of the above choices are correct |
b. Tetracycline’s – Increased efflux pathways
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. The lower the MIC value the more likely resistance will develop b. You always choose the antibiotic with the lowest MIC value for therapy c. MBC values are lowest for antibiotics which inhibit protein synthesis d. Antibiotic concentrations must always be above the MIC for antibacterial action e. All of the above choices are correct f. None of the above choices are correct |
f. None of the above choices are correct
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Which of the following is/are examples of acceptable use of antibiotics?
1. Broad-spectrum antibiotic during intestinal surgery 2. Piperacillin + Amikacin in a patient with partial hearing loss with pseudomonas aeruginosa 3. Use of Itraconazole in neutropenic patients with fever of unknown origin 4. Amoxicillin for a simple community acquired upper respiratory infections A =1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,3 D = 4 only E = All of the above choices are correct F = None of the above choices are correct |
A =1,2,3
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Penicillin’s
a. Require an intact beta-lactam ring for activity b. Dicloxacillin has increased gram negative activity compared to amoxicillin c. Penicillin G is effective orally for pneumonia d. Clavulanic acid increases the gram negative coverage of Ampicillin e. All of the above choices are correct f. None of the above choices are correct |
a. Require an intact beta-lactam ring for activity
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Cephalosporin’s show increasing gram negative activity with each generation b. 4th generation cephalosporin’s show increased lactamase resistance c. Imipenem is useful in mixed aerobic and anaerobic intra-abdominal infections d. Aztreonam is useful in multidrug resistant stains of gram negative bacteria e. Imipenem is co-formulated with Cilastatin to limit renal tubule damage f. All of the above choices are correct |
f. All of the above choices are correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Redman syndrome is associated with rapid injections of Daptomycin b. Vancomycin is rapidly inactivated by surfactant in the lungs c. Bacitracin blocks the membrane lipid carrier for components of the cell wall. d. Fosfomycin is limited to use in penicillin and cephalosporin resistant bacteria e. All of the above choices are correct f. None of the above choices are correct |
c. Bacitracin blocks the membrane lipid carrier for components of the cell wall.
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Which of the following sites of action is/are correct?
a. Tetracycline’s – bind to a specific ribosomal DNA to prevent formation of the 70s subunit b. Amikacin – binds the 30s and 50s subunit interface to distort the codon c. Azithromycin – binds the 30s subunit to prevent t-RNA binding to the A site d. Telithromycin – inhibits t-RNA synthesis e. Chloramphenicol – interferes with transfer of peptide-t-RNA complex from A site to P site f. Clindamycin – prevents peptide bond formation |
b. Amikacin – binds the 30s and 50s subunit interface to distort the codon
(Aminoglycoside) |
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Amikacin
a. Is ionized in body fluids b. Can accumulate in renal tubules and inhibit prostaglandin synthesis c. Ototoxicity is due to damage to cilia on hair cells in the cochlea d. May cause muscle weakness e. All of the above choices are correct f . None of the above choices are correct |
e. All of the above choices are correct
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Tetracyclines
a. Cause photosensitivity b. Doxycycline is the tetracycline of choice for patients with renal insufficiency c. May cause super infections with clostridium difficile d. Accumulate in teeth enamel and bones e. All of the above choices are correct f. None of the above choices are correct |
e. All of the above choices are correct
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Sulfonamides
a.Inhibit dihydrofolate reductase b.May cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome c.Are bactericidal d.Excreted in urine and are useful in UTI’s e.A and C are correct f. B and D are correct |
f. B and D are correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
a.Sulfamethoxazole may precipitate in the urine b.Trimethoprim – Sulfamethoxazole is contraindicated in children c.Trimethoprim may cause bone marrow suppression d. Sulfaslazine is frequently used in UTI’s e.All of the above choices are correct f .None of the above choices are correct |
a.Sulfamethoxazole may precipitate in the urine
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Which of the following is/are true about Fluoroquinolones?
a.Moxifloxacin inhibits DNS synthase b.Ciprofloxacin is rapidly metabolized in the liver c.They are effective against Chlamydia and anthrax d.They show time dependent killing e.A and C are correct f.B and D are correct |
c.They are effective against Chlamydia and anthrax
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Mycobacteria
a.Have a waxy cell wall made up of mycolic acid and peptidoglycan b.Can form spores that can exist for long periods of time c.Are usually very slow growing bacteria d.Are commonly seen in burn patients e.A and C are correct f.All of the above are correct |
e.A and C are correct
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Isoniazid
a.Is Bacteriostatic for dividing bacteria b.Is never used alone in active disease because of resistance development c.Inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerase in Mycobacteria d.May cause decreased visual acuity and decreased green-red color discrimination e.All of the above choices are correct f.None of the above choices are correct |
b.Is never used alone in active disease because of resistance development
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Rifampin
a.Only effective against Mycobacteria in tuberculosis b.Colors secretions and urine orange c.Effective as monotherapy d.May cause seizures, psychosis and memory loss e.All of the above choices are correct f .None of the above choices are correct |
b.Colors secretions and urine orange
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Which of the following is/are true about drugs used in leprosy?
a.Dapsone is selective for mycobacterium leprae b.Dapsone rapidly accumulates in skin and infected organs c.Clofazimine has a very long half-life and accumulates in fat d.Clofazimine may cause hemolysis in glucose-6-phosphate deficient patients e.All of the above choices are correct f .None of the above choices are correct |
c.Clofazimine has a very long half-life and accumulates in fat
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Which of the following groups may be predisposed to develop fungal infections:
1. A heart-lung transplant patient 2.A patient with uncontrolled diabetes 3.A female patient taking antibiotics for a complicated UTI 4.Nurses associated with burn units A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the choices are correct F = None of the choices are correct |
A = 1,2,3
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Which of the following is/are correct?
a.Fungal cell membranes contain ergosterol b.Amphotericin B lipid formulations lessen the side effects c. Fluconazole blocks 14 alpha demethylase d.Vorconazole is replacing Amphotericin B for systemic asperigillis infections e.All of the above choices are correct f .None of the above choices are correct |
e.All of the above choices are correct
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Which of the following is/are true about anti-malarial drugs?
a.Pyrimethamine is primarily effective against the liver phase of the disease b.Chloroquine can clear blood borne protozoa in 72 hours c.Primaquine inhibits dihydrofolate reductase in blood borne protozoa d.Atovaquone may be used in pneumocystis jirovicii e. B and D are correct f.All of the above choices are correct |
e. B and D are correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
a.Penciclovir is used mainly in herpes simplex and varicella –zoster infections b.Ganciclovir is used mainly for Influenza A infections c.Foscarnet cause significant liver toxicity d.Ramatidine prevents release of virus from infected cells e.All of the above choices are correct f.None of the above choices are correct |
a.Penciclovir is used mainly in herpes simplex and varicella –zoster infections
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Which of the following is/are true about viruses?
a.They all contain RNA b.Retroviruses contain reverse transcriptase within the viral particle c.Acyclovir inhibits viral DNA polymerase enzyme d.The preferred NRTI based therapy for HIV includes: Abacavir, Lamivudine, and Zidovudine e.B and D are correct f.None of the above are correct |
e.B and D are correct
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Match the drug to the correct statement:
Colors urine orange-brown a. Methenamine b. Metronidazole c. Nitrofurantoin d. Ethambutol |
c. Nitrofurantoin
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Match the drug to the correct statement:
Cationic detergent that perforates membrane. a. Polymixen B b. Griseofulvin c. Adefovir d. Oseltamivir |
a. Polymixen B
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Match the drug to the correct statement:
Weakens cell wall, increases access for Isoniazid and Rifampin. a. Daptomycin b. Ethambutol c. Methenamine d. Polymixen B |
b. Ethambutol
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Match the drug to the correct statement:
Oral antiviral used for Influenza. a. Oseltamivir b. Methenamine c. Ethambutol d. Adefovir |
a. Oseltamivir
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Match the drug to the correct statement:
Inhibits DNA polymerase in Hepatitis B. a. Adefovir b. Oseltamivir c. Nitrofurantoin d. Methenamine |
a. Adefovir
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Match the drug to the correct statement:
Drug of choice for protozoal infections. a. Daptomycin b. Clindamycin c. Nitrofurantoin d. Metronidazole |
d. Metronidazole
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Match the drug to the correct mechanism:
Lamivudine a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c. Protease inhibitor d. Fusion inhibitor |
a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
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Match the drug to the correct mechanism:
Interferon Alfa a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c. Antiproliferative and immune modulating actions d. Fusion inhibitor |
c. Antiproliferative and immune modulating actions
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Match the drug to the correct mechanism:
Adefovir a.Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b.Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c.Inhibits viral DNA polymerase and reverse transcriptase d.Antiproliferative and immune modulating actions |
c.Inhibits viral DNA polymerase and reverse transcriptase
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Match the drug to the correct mechanism:
Oseltamivir a.Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b.Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c.Inhibits viral DNA polymerase and reverse transcriptase d. Selective inhibitor of viral neuraminadase |
d. Selective inhibitor of viral neuraminadase
(also Zanamivir does this!) |
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Match the drug to the correct mechanism:
Idoxuradine a.Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b.Thymidine analog that adds into viral DNA by polymerase c.Inhibits viral DNA polymerase and reverse transcriptase d. Selective inhibitor of viral neuraminadase |
b.Thymidine analog that adds into viral DNA by polymerase
(also Trifluridine does this!) |
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Match the drug to the correct mechanism:
Amantadine a.Blocks uncoating of Influenza A virus b.Thymidine analog that adds into viral DNA by polymerase c.Inhibits viral DNA polymerase and reverse transcriptase d. Selective inhibitor of viral neuraminadase |
a.Blocks uncoating of Influenza A virus
(also Rimantidine does this!) |
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Match the drug to the correct mechanism:
Ribavirin a.Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b. Possible inhibition of viral messenger RNA synthesis c.Inhibits viral DNA polymerase and reverse transcriptase d. Selective inhibitor of viral neuraminadase |
b. Possible inhibition of viral messenger RNA synthesis
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Match the drug to the correct mechanism:
Valacyclovir a.Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b. Possible inhibition of viral messenger RNA synthesis c.Inhibits viral DNA polymerase and reverse transcriptase d. Guanine analog that prevents elongation of DNA |
d. Guanine analog that prevents elongation of DNA
(also Acyclovir, Ganciclovir, and Valganciclovir do this!) |
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Match the drug to the correct mechanism:
Foscarnet a.Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b. Possible inhibition of viral messenger RNA synthesis c. Pyrophosphate derivative that inhibits viral DNA polymerase d. Selective inhibitor of viral neuraminadase |
c. Pyrophosphate derivative that inhibits viral DNA polymerase
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Which of the following is/are true?
a.Aminoglycosides are bactericidal b. Penicillin’s meet the definition of antimicrobials c.Sulfonamides are mostly bactericidal d.Bacteriostatic agents usually inhibit cell wall synthesis e.All of the above are correct f.None of the above are correct |
a.Aminoglycosides are bactericidal
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Which of the following is/are correct?
a.Moxifloxacin – binds the 50s ribosome to prevent initiation of protein synthesis b.Bacitracin – blocks the lipid carrier to prevent cell wall synthesis. c.Sulfamethoxazole – inhibits DNA gyrase and Topoisomerase IV d.Telithromycin – Inhibits RNA dependent DNA polymerase e.All of the above are correct f.None of the above are correct |
b.Bacitracin – blocks the lipid carrier to prevent cell wall synthesis.
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Which of the following is/are important factors in selecting appropriate antibiotic agents?
a.Host immune function when selecting a tetracycline b.Gram staining of bacteria when selecting Penicillin G c.Concomitant use of a type 1A antiarrhythmic when selecting fluroquinolones d.Reproductive status of female patients when selecting Ribavirin e.All of the above are correct f.None of the above are correct |
e.All of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
a.Resistance will not develop if the antibiotic concentration reaches the MBC b.MIC values are used to determine if a bacteria is sensitive to a certain antibiotic c.Time above the MIC value is an important factor in concentration dependent killing d.A and C are correct e.All of the above are correct f.None of the above are correct |
f. None of the above are correct
(Also accepted choice B: MIC values are used to determine if a bacteria is sensitive to a certain antibiotic) |
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Which of the following is/are important in selecting an appropriate antibiotic agent?
a.Site of infection b.Past responses to antibiotic exposures c.Renal function d.Reproductive status of female patient e.All of the above are correct f.None of the above are correct |
e.All of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/are correct correlations between drug and mechanism of resistance?
a.Penicillin’s – increased efflux pathways b.Tetracyclines - transfer of beta-lactamases by plasmids c.Fluroquinolones – plasmid acquired enzyme for metabolism d.Streptogramins – altered ribosomal binding site e.All of the above are correct f.None of the above are correct |
d.Streptogramins – altered ribosomal binding site
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Which of the following is/are examples of misuse of antibiotics?
a.Combination therapy during surgery for a ruptured appendix b.Antibiotic use for all mild upper respiratory infections c.Broad spectrum antibiotic use in initial treatment of a life threatening infection d.Use of Itraconazole in neurtopenic patients with fever of unknown origin e.All of the above are correct f.None of the above are correct |
b.Antibiotic use for all mild upper respiratory infections
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Which of the following is/are true?
a.Penicillin binding proteins provide binding sites to inactivate penicillin’s b.Cephalosporin’s bind reversibly with transpeptidases c.Carbapenems require an intact beta-lactam ring for antibiotic activity d.Porins play an important role in antibacterial agents entering gram positive bacteria e.All of the above are correct f.None of the above are correct |
c.Carbapenems require an intact beta-lactam ring for antibiotic activity
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Which of the following is/a re true?
a.Imipenem is indicated for multidrug resistant UTI’s b.Aztreonam is contraindicated in patients with penicillin allergies c.Ertapenem is formulated with Cilastatin to prevent tubular necrosis d.Ceftobiprole shows activity in MRSA and pseudomonal infections e.All of the above are correct f.None of the above are correct |
d.Ceftobiprole shows activity in MRSA and pseudomonal infections
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Which of the following is/are true?
a.Vancomycin may cause pseudomembranous colitis due to C. difficile overgrowth b.Vancomycin toxicity includes Redman syndrome and ototoxicity c.Daptomycin inhibits cell wall synthesis by binding to the end of peptidoglycan strands d.Fosfomycin is used mainly for gram positive Vancomycin resistant bacteria e.All of the above are correct f.None of the above are correct |
b.Vancomycin toxicity includes Redman syndrome and ototoxicity
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Which of the following is/are true?
a.Tigecyclin is useful in tetracycline resistant organisms b.Azithromycin will compete for the binding on the 50s ribosome with Chloramphenicol and Clindamycin c.Telithromycin may cause hepatotoxicity and arrhythmias d.Clindamycin is the drug of choice for lung abscess and pleural space infections e.All of the above are correct f.None of the above are correct |
e.All of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
a.Chloramphenicol is metabolized by hepatic glucuronidation b.Streptogramins are indicated for Vancomycin resistant E. faecium c.Linezolid is useful in multidrug resistant S. aureus d.Mupirocin is useful for nasal S. aureus infections e.All of the above are correct f.None of the above are correct |
e.All of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/are true about agents that inhibit PABA metabolism?
a.Sulfamethoxazole inhibits folate reductase b.Sulfonamides are contraindicated in UTI’s because they can precipitate in urine. c.Sulfasalazine is rapidly absorbed form the GI tract and is useful in upper respiratory infections d.Trimethoprim + Sulfamethoxazole (Septra) does not require refrigeration and is useful in Otitis media e.All of the above are correct f.None of the above are correct |
d.Trimethoprim + Sulfamethoxazole (Septra) does not require refrigeration and is useful in Otitis media
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Fluroquinolones
a.Show concentration dependent killing b.Ciprofloxacin is effective against anthrax c.May produce cartilage damage in young children d.Are useful for prostatitis, Chlamydia and bone and joint infections e.All of the above are correct f.None of the above are correct |
e.All of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
a.Methenamine rapidly forms free radicals which damage bacterial DNA b.Nitrofurantoin rapidly is converted to formaldehyde in urine c.Polymyxin B acts as a cationic detergent in bacterial membranes d.Spores produced by clostridium bacteria are easily killed by mild antiseptics e.All of the above are correct f.None of the above are correct |
c.Polymyxin B acts as a cationic detergent in bacterial membranes
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Mycobacteria
a.Infections are limited to skin surfaces b.Contain mycolic acid in the waxy cell coat c.Are rapidly growing organisms d.Can exist in dormant states for long periods of time e.All of the above are correct f.B and D are correct |
f.B and D are correct
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Which of the following is/are true about tuberculosis?
a.Granulomas contain phagocytized bacteria that may eventually convert to active disease b.Positive PPD skin tests occur only in patients with active disease c.Complicated tuberculosis affects other body parts and may require therapy for 18-24 months d.All patients exposed to an individual with active disease develop a latent infection e.All of the above are correct f.A and C are correct |
f.A and C are correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
1) Isoniazid inhibits mycolic acid production 2)Rifampin is a potent inducer of CYP3A4 and CYP2C9 enzymes 3)Pyrazinamide use is limited to two months because of hepatic toxicity 4)Isoniazid is excreted unchanged in the urine A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F =None of the above are correct |
A = 1,2,3
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Ethambutol is the drug of choice for leprosy b.Dapsone is effective in leprosy and pneumocystis Jerovicii c.Clofazimine may decrease visual acuity and red-green color discrimination d.Thalidomide is active against both resistant tuberculosis and leprosy e.All of the above are correct f.B and D are correct |
f.B and D are correct
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Which of the following patients are at risk for developing fungal infections?
a.A cancer patient receiving chemotherapy b.A student who sits next to a class mate with an active fugal infection c.A patient requiring long term catheterization d.A family member visiting someone with severe burns in burn unit in the hospital e.All of the above are correct f.A and C are correct |
f.A and C are correct
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Which of the following drug-mechanisms of action is/are correct?
a.5-Flurcytosine – inhibit conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol b.Itraconazole - inhibits 14-alpha demethylase c.Terbinafine – inhibits chitin formation in fungal cell wall d.Griseofulvin – inhibits squalene epoxidase and decreases ergosterol synthesis e.All of the above are correct f.None of the above are correct |
b.Itraconazole - inhibits 14-alpha demethylase
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Amphotericin B
a.Is given orally for systemic aspergillis infections b.Lipid formulations lessen severity of side effects c.Requires metabolic activation d.Inhibits conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol e.All of the above are correct f.None of the above are correct |
b.Lipid formulations lessen severity of side effects
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Which of the following drugs is/are correctly matched with their stage of action?
a.Pyrimethamine - effective against sporozite infection in liver b.Chloroquine – late hepatic stages c.Primaquine - Rapidly clears blood borne protozoa d.Atovaquone – Inhibits mitochondrial function in liver stage e.All of the above are correct f.None of the above are correct |
d.Atovaquone – Inhibits mitochondrial function in liver stage
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Which of the following is/are true about viral therapy?
a.Trifluridine is given during the first 24 hours will limit the severity of chickenpox b.Valacyclovir is a prodrug for Penciclovir c.Foscarnet – inhibits neuraminidase d.Oseltamivir – inhibits viral DNA polymerase e.All of the above are correct f.None of the above are correct |
f.None of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
a.Ribavirin is a modified purine base with ribose sugar b.Interferon Alfa is effective in Hepatitis B and C and papilloma virus c.Adefovir is effective treatment for Lamivudine resistant hepatitis B d.Females require 6 months of contraceptive therapy after treatment with Ribavirin e.All of the above are correct f.None of the above are correct |
e.All of the above are correct
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