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632 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What drug is used to close a PDA?
indomethacin
What drug is used to keep PDA open? Why is that useful?
Patency is maintained by PGE synthesis
May be necessary to sustain life in conditions such as transposition of the great vessels
Antihypertensive therapy
1. Essential HTN
2. CHF
3. Diabetes mellitus
1. diuretics, ACE-I, ARBs, CCBs
2. diuretics, ACE-I, ARBs, B-blockers (compensated CHF), K+ sparing diuretics
3. ACE-I, ARBs, CCBs, diuretics, B-blockers, a-blockers
What HTN drugs are protective against diabetic nephropathy?
ACE inhibitors
What drug is first-line therapy for HTN in pregnancy (in addition to methyldopa)?
hydralazine
What three drugs block voltage-dependent L-type Ca channels of cardiac and SM --> reducing muscle contractility
Nifedipine, verapamil, diltiazem
What drug vasodilates by releasing NO in SM, causing an increase in cGMP and SM relaxation?
Nitroglycerin
1. Which drug vasodilates aterioles > veins?
2. Which drug vasodilates veings >> arteries?
1. hydralazine
2. nitroglycerin
Which CCB has the largest effect on cardiac muscle?
verapamil
(Verapamil = Ventricle)
Which drug is frequently co-administered with a B-blocker to prevent reflex tachycardia?
hydralazine
Name the toxicities for each of these drugs:
1. Hydralazine
2. CCBs
3. Nitroglycerin/isosorbide dinitrate
1. Compensatory tachycardia, fluid retention, nausea, headache, angina; Lupus-like syndrome
2. Cardiac depression, AV block, peripheral edema, flushing, dizziness, constipation
3. Reflex tachy, hypotension, flushing, headache
1. Compensatory tachycardia, fluid retention, nausea, headache, angina; Lupus-like syndrome
2. Cardiac depression, AV block, peripheral edema, flushing, dizziness, constipation
3. Reflex tachy, hypotension, flushing, headache
Name the toxicities for each of these drugs:
1. Hydralazine
2. CCBs
3. Nitroglycerin/isosorbide dinitrate
What is "Monday disease?"
From industrial exposure to nitroglycerin (e.g. munitions workers)
--developed tolerance for vasodilating action during the work week, but lost tolerance over the weekend
--resulted in tachycardia, dizziness, headache on re-exposure on Monday
What drug is used for angina and pulmonary edema, but can also be used as an aphrodisiac and erection enhancer?
Nitroglycerin
What three drugs can be used to treat malignant HTN?
What is the mechanism for each one?
1. Nitroprusside = short-acting, increases cGMP via direct release of NO
2. Fenoldopam = D1 receptor agonist (relaxes renal vascular SM)
3. Diazoxide = K+ channel opener, hyperpolarizes and relaxes vascular SM
Name the drug that can cause these side effects:
1. Cyanide toxicity from CN release
2. Compensatory tachycardia, fluid retention
3. Hyperglycemia from reduction in insulin release
4. AV block
1. Nitroprusside
2. Hydralazine
3. Diazoxide
4. CCBs
What is the goal/method of antianginal therapy? What 5 things are targeted?
Reduce myocardial O2 consumption by decreasing...
1. End diastolic volume
2. Blood pressure
3. HR
4. Contractility
5. Ejection time
What two partial B-agonists are contraindicated in angina?
Pindolol, acebutolol
What agent is best at lowering LDL? How does that agent work? How does it affect HDL, TGs?
Statins work by inhibiting mevalonate, a cholesterol precursor
HDL = slight increase
TG = slight decrease
What agent is best for increasing HDL? How does it work? What are its effects on LDL, TGs?
Niacin works by inhibiting lipolysis in adipose tissue, reducing hepatic VLDL secretion into circulation
LDL = moderate decrease
TGs = slight decrease
What lipid-lowering agent tastes bad and causes GI discomfort? Why is it used? How does it work?
Bile acid resins prevent intestinal absorption of bile acids, so the liver must use cholesterol to make more
LDL = moderate decrease
HDL = slight increase
TGs = slight increase
How does ezetimibe work? What is it used for?
Prevents cholesterol reabsorption at SI brush border
LDL = moderate decrease
HDL, TGs = no effect
What agent has the most potent effect on lowering TGs? How does it work? How does it affect LDL, HDL?
"Fibrates" upregulate LPL --> increasing TG clearance
LDL = slight decrease
HDL = slight increase
Side effects for each of these are...
1. Statins
2. Niacin
3. Bile acid resins
4. Ezetimibe
5. Fibrates
Side effects of lipid-lowering drugs...
1. hepatotoxicity (increased LFTs), rhabdomyolysis
2. red, flushed face (which is decreased by aspirin or long-term use); hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia
3. Tastes bad, GI discomfort, less absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, cholesterol gallstones
4. Rare increase in LFTs
5. Myositis, hepatotoxicity, cholesterol gallstones
Side effects of lipid-lowering drugs...
1. hepatotoxicity (increased LFTs), rhabdomyolysis
2. red, flushed face (which is decreased by aspirin or long-term use); hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia
3. Tastes bad, GI discomfort, less absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, cholesterol gallstones
4. Rare increase in LFTs
5. Myositis, hepatotoxicity, cholesterol gallstones
Side effects for each of these are...
1. Statins
2. Niacin
3. Bile acid resins
4. Ezetimibe
5. Fibrates
Which lipid-lowering agent exacerbates gout?
Niacin
Which two lipid-lowering agents can cause cholesterol gallstones?
Niacin, Fibrates
How does digoxin work?
Directly inhibits Na/K ATPase
Leads to indirect inhibition of Na/Ca exchanger
Increases intracellular Ca --> positive inotropy (increased contractility)
What is the clinical use of digoxin?
CHF (increases contractility), a-fib (decreases conduction at AV node and depression at SA node)
What is digoxin toxicity?
Cholinergic = nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, blurry yellow vision (think Van Gogh)
ECG = increased PR, decreased QT, scooping, T-wave inversion, arrhythmia, hyperkalemia
What worsenes digoxin toxicity?
1. Renal failure (decreased excretion)
2. Hypokalemia (permissive for digoxin binding at K-binding site on Na/K ATPase
3. Quinidine (decreases clearance; displaces digoxin from tissue-binding sites)
What is the antidote for digoxin toxicity?
Slowly normalize K+
lidocaine
cardiac pacer
anti-dig Fab fragments
Mg++
List the class I anti-arrhythmics. What is there general mechanism?
Na+ channel blockers = slow or block conduction, decrease the slope of phase 0 depolarization and increase threshold for firing in abnormal pacemaker cells
Class IA = "The Queen Proclaims Diso's pyramid" = Quinidine, Procainamide, Disopyramide
Class IB = "I'd Buy Lidy's Mexican Tacos" = Lidocaine, Mexiletine, Tocainide
Class IC = "Chipotle's Food has Excellent Produce" = Flecainide, Encainide, Propafenone
What effect to each of the sub-classes of class I antiarrhythmics have on AP duration?
Class IA = increased AP duration
Class IB = decreased AP duration
Class IC = no effect on AP duration
Which class is useful for both atrial and ventricular arrhythmias, especially reentrant and ectopic supraventricular and ventricular tachycardia?
Class IA
Which class is useful for acute ventricular arrhythmias (esp. post-MI) and in digitalis-induced arrhythmias?
Class IB
What class is useful in V-tachs that progress to VF and in intractable SVT?
Class IC
Which class is best post-MI and which is contraindicated post-MI?
IB is Best post-MI
IC is Contraindicated post-MI
Which ion abnormality causes increased toxicity for all class I drugs?
hyperkalemia
What are the toxicities of IA, IB, and IC antiarrhythmics?
IA = quinidine (cinchonism--headache, tinnitus); thrombocytopenia; TdP due to increased QT interval; procainamide (reversible SLE-like syndrome)
IB = local anesthetic; CNS stimulation/depression, CV depression
IC = proarrhythmic, esp post-MI (contraindicated). Significantly prolongs refractory period in AV node

How do class II antiarrhythmics work?
B-blockers: decrease cAMP and Ca++ currents. Suppress abnormal pacemaker cells by decreasing the slope of phase 4
What is particularly sensitive to class IIs?
AV node
Which B-blocker is very short acting?
Esmolol
When are class IIs used?
V-tach, SVT, slowing V rate during a-fib/a-flutter
What are the toxicities of class IIs?
Impotence, exacerbation of asthma
CV (bradycardia, AV block, CHF)
CNS (sedation, sleep alterations)
May mask the signs of hypoglycemia
Which class II drug can cause dyslipidemia? How do you treat an overdose?
Metoprolol

Treat overdoes with glucagon
How do class III antiarrhythmics work?
K+ channel blockers = increase AP duration, increase ERP
What are side effects for the major class IIIs?
Sotalol = TdP, excessive B-block
Ibutilide = TdP
Bretylium = new arrhythmias, hypotension
Amiodarone = pulmonary fibrosis, hepatotoxicity, hypo/hyper-thyroidism (also corneal/skin deposits leading to polydermatitis, neurologic effects, constipation, bradycardia, heart block, CHF)
What should you remember to check when using amiodarone?
PFTs (pulmonary)
LFTs (liver)
TFTs (thyroid)
How do class IVs work? Name 2.
Verapamil, diltiazem decrease conduction velocity and increase both ERP and PR interval
When are class IVs used?
Prevention of nodal arrhythmias (e.g. SVT)
What are the major toxicities of class IVs?
Constipation, flushing, edema
CV (CHF, AV block, sinus node depression)
Other antiarrhythmics are...
1. adenosine
2. K+
3. Mg++
...what do they do?
1. increase K+ flow out of cells --> hyperpolarization; decreases Ica (drug of choice for diagnosing/abolishing SVT). Very short acting (15sec). Toxicity includes flushing, hypotension, chest pain.
2. Depresses ectopic pacemakers in hypokalemia (e.g. digoxin toxicity)
3. Effect in TdP and digoxin toxicity
What blocks the effects of adenosine?
theophylline
Three forms of rapid acting insulin
Lispro (Humulog)
Aspart
Regular
Intermediate acting insulin
NPH
2 forms of long-acting insulin
Glargine (Lantus)
Determir
Insulin uses beyond DM
Life-threatening hyperkalemia
Stress-induced hyperglycemia
Gestational diabetes
2 insulin toxicities
Hypoglycemia

Hypersensitivity reaction (very rare)
Why shouldn't you use non-selective beta blockers in DM, and what should you use instead?
Mask symptoms of hypoglycemia

Selective beta-1 blockers
Mechanism of sulfonylureas
Close K_ channel in beta cell membrane --> depolarization --> triggers insulin release
Why can't sulfonylureas be used in T1DM?
Stimulates endogenous release: requires some islet function
3 2nd generation sulfonylureas?
Glyburide
Glimepiride
Glipizide

(1st generation: tolbutamide, chlorpropamide)
Toxicity of 2nd generation sulfonylureas?
Hypoglycemia

(1st generation caused disulfiram-like effects)
Name the biguanide
Metformin
Effects of metformin
Decreased gluconeogenesis
Increased glycolysis
Increased peripheral glucose uptake (insulin sensitivity)
Which oral hypoglycemic can be used in patients without islet function?
Metformin
Patients on metformin must be monitored annually with what test?
Creatinine
Metformin toxicity?
Lactic acidosis
Metformin is contraindicated in these pts
Renal failure, Cr >1.4
Name the 6 classes of oral hypoglycemics
Sulonylureas
Biguanides
Glitazones/ thiazolidinediones
alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
Mimetics
GLP-1 analogs
Mechanism of glitazones/ thiazolidinediones
Increase insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissue; binds PPAR-gamma nuclear transcription regular
Two types of glitazones
Pioglitazone
Rosiglitazone
Three toxicities of glitazones
Weight gain/ edema (can exacerbate CHF)
Hepatotoxicity
CV toxicity
Glitazones are also used to treat these 3 diseases
Metabolic syndrome
NASH
PCOD
Two alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
Acarbose
Miglitol
Mechanism of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
Inhibit intestinal brush-border alpha glucosidases --> delayed sugar hydrolysis and glucose absorption --> decreased postprandial hyperglycemia
Toxicity of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
GI disturbances
Mimetic
Pramlintide (amylin analogue)
Mechanism of pramlintide
Inhibits secretion of glucagon
Side effects of pramlintide
Hypoglycemia
Nausea, diarrhea
GLP-1 analog
Exenatide
Mechanism of exenatide
Increases insulin, decreases glucagon release
Side effects of exenatide
N/V
Pancreatitis
Two drugs used for hyperthyroidism
Propylthiouracil
Methimazole
2 mechanisms of drugs for hyperthyroidism
Inhibit organification of iodide
Inhibit coupling of MIT and DIT in thyroid hormone synthesis
Which drug also inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3, propylthiouracil or methimazole?
Propylthiouracil (beta blockers do as well)
Enzyme responsible for oxidation and organification of iodide + coupling of MIT and DIT
Peroxidase
3 toxicities of propylthiouracil and methimazole
Skin rash
Agranulocytosis
Aplastic anemia
(PTU can also cause hepatotoxicity)
Which drug is a possible teratogen, propylthiouracil or methimazole?
Methimazole
2 drugs for hypothyroidism (thyroxine replacement)
Levothyroxine, triiodothyronine
Use of synthetic thyroxine, besides hypothyroidism
Myxedema
4 toxicities of levothyroxine and triiodothyronine
Tachycardia
Heat intolerance
Tremors
Arrhythmias
Drug for Turner Syndrome
GH
Another name for somatostatin
Octreotide
Rx for acromegaly?
Somatostatin
Rx for carcinoid, gastrinoma, glucagonoma, or VIPoma
Somatostatin
4 effects of oxytocin
Stimulates labor
Uterine contractions
Milk let-down
Controls uterine hemorrhage
Synthetic ADH
Desmopressin (DDAVP)
Clinical use of desmopressin
Pituitary (central, not nephrogenic) DI
Two other uses of DDAVP
Von Willebrand's disease
Enuresis
Demeclocycline is a ____ antagonist
ADH
Clinical use of demeclocycline
SIADH
3 toxicities of demeclocycline
Nephrogenic DI
Photosensitivity
Abnormalities of bone and teeth
(is a tetracycline)
5 glucocorticoids
Hydrocortisone, prednisone, triamcinolone, dexamethasone, beclomethasone
Glucocorticoids decrease the production of ____ and ____ by inhibiting ____ and expression of _____
Leukotrienes and prostaglandins
Phospholipase A2
COX-2
Rx for Addison's disease
Glucocorticoids
Endrocrine toxicity of glucocorticoids
Iatrogenic Cushing's syndrome
Stopping glucocorticoids after chronic use can cause
Adrenal insufficiency
Why should acetaminophen be used in place of aspirin or ibuprofen in patients with thyroid problems?
Aspirin/ ibuprofen can displace thyroid hormone from binding proteins
4 H2 blockers
Cimetidine, ranitidine, famotidine, nizatidine
Mechanism of H2 blockers
Reversible blocks of histamine H2 receptors --> decreased acid secretion by parietal cells
Cimetidine toxicities
Antiandrogenic
Can cross BBB (confusion, dizziness, headaches)
Can cross placenta
Decreases renal excretion of Cr (as does ranitidine)
When should H2 blockers be taken?
Before meals
Two PPIs
Omeprazole, lansoprazole
Mechanism of PPIs
Irreversibly inhibit H/K ATPase in stomach parietal cells
Clinical use of PPIs (4)
PUD
Gastritis
GERD
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
Toxicity of PPIs
Increased risk of (hip) fractures
2 clinical uses of bismuth-sucralfate
Increase ulcer healing
Traveler's diarrhea
Mechanism of bismuth-sucralfate
Bind to ulcer base, providing physical protection, and allow HCO3 secretion to re-establish pH gradient in mucous layer
3 clinical uses of misoprostol
Prevention of NSAID-induced ulcers
Maintenance of PDA
Induce labor
Misoprostol is a ____ analog
PGE1
Mechanism of misoprostol
Increase production and secretion of gastric mucous barrier
Decrease acid production
2 toxicities of misoprostol
Diarrhea
Abortifacient
Rx for acute variceal bleeds
Somatostatin
Toxicity of octreotide
Nausea, cramps, steatorrhea
Effect of antacids on potassium
All can cause hypokalemia
How do antacids affect other drugs?
Alter gastric and urinary pH, or delay gastric emptying
Three antacids
Aluminum hydroxide
Magnesium hydroxide
Calcium carbonate
Toxicity of aluminum hydroxide
Constipation & hypophosphatemia
Proximal muscle weakness
Osteodrystrophy
Seizures
Toxicity of magnesium hydroxide
Diarrhea
Hyporeflexia
Hypotension
Cardiac arrest
Toxicity of calcium carbonate
Hypercalcemia
Rebound acid increase
Which antacid may be given for constipation?
MgOH2
3 clinical uses of infliximab
Crohn's
Ulcerative colitis
RA
Infliximab is a monoclonal Ab targeting?
TNF-alpha
3 toxicities of infliximab
Respiratory infection
Fever
Hypotension
2 uses for sulfasalazine
Crohn's and ulcerative colitis
Sulfasalazine is a combo of these two drugs
Sulfapyridine (antibacterial)
5-aminosalicylic acid (anti-inflammatory)
Toxicities of sulfasalazine
Malaise, nausea
Sulfonamide toxicity
Reversible oligospermia
Ondansetron is a ____ antagonist
5-HT3
Ondansetron is used as a
Centrally-acting antiemetic

Used for postop vomiting and in chemo pts
Toxicities of ondansetron
Headache
Constipation
Metoclopramide is a ____ receptor antagonist
D2
Metoclopramide is used for _____ in diabetics and post-surgery
Gastroparesis
This drug increases resting tone, contractility, LES tone, and motility in the GI tract
Metoclopramide
What is the effect of metoclopramide on colon transport time?
No change
Toxicity of metoclopramide
Parkinsonian effects

Also restlessness, drowsiness, fatigue, depression, nausea, diarrhea
Metoclopramide interacts with 2 drug classes?
Digoxin

Diabetic agents
Metoclopramide is contraindicated in?
Small bowel obstruction
Heparin's effect on:
Antithrombin
Thrombin
Xa
Activates
Decreases
Decreases
Why is heparin used in pregnancy instead of warfarin?
Cannot cross placenta
Test to monitor for pts on heparin?
PTT
Test to monitor for pts on warfarin?
INR
Rapid reversal of heparin with?
Protamine sulfate (positively charged)
4 advantages of LMWH?
Better bioavailability
Longer half-life
Sub-Q administration
No need for lab monitoring
Disadvantage of LMWH?
Not easily reversible
LMWHs have a greater effect on
Xa
Main toxicity of heparin?
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
HIT ensues when heparin binds to ?
Platelet factor IV
Pathophys of HIT
Heparin binds paltelet factor IV--> Ab production --> Abs bind and activate platelets --> platelets are cleared --> thrombocytopenic, hypercoagulable state
Two direct thrombin inhibitors
Lepirudin
Bivalirudin
Clinical utility of direct thrombin inhibitors
Pts with HIT
Four toxicities of warfarin
Bleeding
Teratogenic
Skin/ tissue necrosis
Drug-drug interactions
Rapid reversal of warfarin overdose
FFP
Non-urgent reversal of warfarin overdose
Vitamin K
Advantage of warfarin administration over heparin?
Available orally
4 thrombolytics
Streptokinase
Urokinase
tPA (alteplase)
APSAC (anistreplase)
Main toxicity of thrombolytics
Bleeding
Thrombolytic toxicity treated with
Aminocaproic acid (inhibitor of fibrinolysis)
6 toxicities of aspirin
Gastric ulceration
Bleeding
Hyperventilation
Reye's Syndrome
Tinnitus (CN VIII)
Interstitial nephritis/ acute renal failure
Mechanism of ASA
Acetylates and irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase to prevent conversion of arachidonic acid to TxA2
Blood test affected by ASA
Bleeding time
2 mechanisms of clopidogrel and ticlopidine
Irreversibly block ADP receptors --> inhibit platelet aggregation

Prevent glycoprotein IIb/IIIa expression --> inhibit fibrinogen binding
Toxicity of ticlopidine
Neutropenia
Abciximab is a monoclonal Ab that binds to ______ to prevent platelet aggregation
Glycoprotein receptor IIb/IIIa
Antimetabolites work in this phase of the cell cycle
S phase
Vinca alkaloids and taxols work in this phase of the cell cycle
M phase
Etoposide works in these 2 phases of the cell cycle
S and G2
Bleomycin works in this phase of the cell cycle
G2
MTX inhibits
dihydrofolate reductase --> dTMP
Drug for leukemias, lymphomas, choriocarcinoma, and sarcomas
MTX
Non-neoplastic uses of MTX
Abortion
Ectopic pregnancy
RA
Psoriasis
Leucovorin rescue is used after toxicity from what drug?
MTX
Leucovorin rescue is used to decrease what toxicity of MTX?
Myelosupression
Another term for folinic acid
Leucovorin
Mechanism of leucovorin rescue
Cofactor for thymidylate synthase (in lieu of THF)
5 antimetabolites
MTX, 5-FU, 6-MP, 6-TG, cytarabine (ara-C)
4 toxicities of MTX
Myelosuppression
Macrovesicular fatty change in liver
Mucositis
Teratogenic
How is leucovorin used with 5-FU?
To increase cell kill, rather than to decrease toxicity
5-FU overdose can be rescued with?
Thymidine
2 toxicities of 5-FU
Myelosuppression
Photosensitivity
Mechanism of 5-FU
Pyrimidine analog, bioactivated to 5F-dUMP, which complexes folic acid and inhibits thymidylate synthase
MTX and 5-FU are
Synergistic
5-FU is used for
Colon cancer and other solid tumors
Basal cell carcinoma (topical)
6-MP decreases
De novo purine synthesis (is a purine analog)
6-MP is used for leukemias and lymphomas except
CLL
Hodgkin's
3 systems with toxicity from 6-MP
BM
GI
Liver
6-MP is metabolized by ?
Xanthine oxidase (so toxicity is increased with allopurinol, which inhibits this enzyme)
6-TG is used for
ALL
What distinguishes the drug interactions of 6-MP and 6-TG?
6-TG can be given with allopurinol (and commonly is, to prevent uric acid stones from tumor lysis syndrome)
Antimetabolite drug that is a pyrmidine analog
Cytarabine (ara-C)
Cytarabine inhibits ?
DNA polymerase
Another name for cytarabine?
Ara-c
Ara-C is used for
AML
ALL
High-grade non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
Toxicities of ara-C (3)
Leukopenia
Thrombocytopenia
Megaloblastic anemia
Drug used for childhood tumors
Dactinomycin
3 tumors treated with dactinomycin
Ewing's sarcoma, Wilms' tumor, rhabdomyosarcoma
Mechanism of dactinomycin
Intercalates in DNA
Toxicity of dactinomycin
Myelosuppression
Doxorubicin (adriamycin) and daunorubicin are in what class of antibiotics
Anthracyclines
Mechanism of anthracycline antibiotics
Generate free radicals
Noncovalently intercalate in DNA
Clinical use of doxorubicin and daunorubicin
Hodgkin's lymphoomas
Myelomas, sarcomas, and solid tumors
3 toxicities of doxorubicin and daunorubicin
Cardiotoxicity
Myelosuppression
Alopecia
Drug given to prevent cardiotoxicity from doxorubicin
Dexrazoxane (iron-chelating agent)
Mechanism of bleomycin
Induces free radical formation --> breaks in DNA strands
2 clinical uses of bleomycin
Testicular cancer
Hodgkin's lymphoma
Two toxicities of bleomycin
Pulmonary fibrosis
Skin changes
Mechanism of etoposide (and teniposide)
Inhibits topoisomerase II --> DNA degradation
Clinical use of etoposide
Small cell carcinoma of lung and prostate

Testicular carcinoma
3 toxicities of etoposide
Myelosuppression
GI irritation
Alopecia
Mechanism of cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide
Covalently X-link (interstrand) DNA at guanine-7
Cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide must be bioactivated by
Liver
Use of cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide
Hon-Hodgkin's lymphoma
Breast and ovarian carcinomas
2 toxicities of cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide
Myelosuppression
Hemorrhagic cystitis
Prevention of hemorrhagic cystitis in cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide treatment with?
Mesna (thiol group binds toxic metabolite)
Which alkylating agent can be used for brain tumors?
Nitrosoureas (cross BBB)
Toxicity of nitrosoureas
CNS (dizziness, ataxia)
Busulfan is used for
CML
Busulfan toxicity
Pulmonary fibrosis, hyperpigmentation
4 antitumor antibiotics
Dactinomycin
Doxorubicin/ daunorubici
Bleomycin
Etoposide/ teniposide
3 alkylating agents
Cyclophosphamide/ ifosfamide
Nitrosoureas
Busulfan
Mechanism of vincristine and vinblastine
Bind tubulin and block polymerization of MTs so spindle cannot form
Mechanism of paclitaxel and other taxols
Hyperstabilize polymerized MTs in M-phase so mitotic spindle can't break down
3 uses of vincristine/ vinblastine
Hodgkin's lymphoma
Wilms' tumor
Choriocarcinoma
2 uses of taxols
Ovarian and breast carcinomas
Toxicity of vincristine (2)
Neurotoxicity (areflexia, peripheral neuritis)
Paralytic ileus
Toxicity of vinblastine
BM suppression
Toxicity of taxols (2)
Myelosuppression
Hypersensitivity
Mechanism of cisplatin and carboplatin
Cross-link DNA
4 uses of cisplatin/ carboplatin
Testicular, bladder, ovary, and lung carcinomas
2 toxicities of cisplastin/ carboplatin
Nephrotoxicity and acoustic nerve damage
Prevent nephrotoxicity from cisplatin with
Amifustine (thiol-based free radical scavenger) and hydration
Hydroxyurea inhibits
Ribonucleotide reductase
Hydroxyurea is specific for
(S-phase specific)
3 uses for hydroxyurea
Melanoma
CML
SCD (increases HbF)
Toxicity of prednisone
Cushing-like symptoms
Immunosuppression
Cataracts, acne, osteoporosis, HTN, PUD, hyperglycemia, psychosis
2 SERMs
Tamoxifen
Raloxifene
SERMs are receptor antagonists in ____ and agonists in ____
Breast, bone
Why is raloxifene preferred over tamoxifene?
No increase in endometrial carcinoma b/c is an antagonist (whereas tamoxifen is a partial agonist)
Trastuzumab is a monoclonal Ab against ?
HER-2 (erb-B2)
Toxicity of trastuzumab
Cardiotoxicity
Imatinib is a
bcr-abl tyrosine kinase inhibitor
2 clinical uses of imatinib
CML
GI stromal tumors
Toxicity of imatinib
Fluid retention
Rituximab is a monoclonal Ab against ?
CD20
2 uses of rituximab
Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
RA (with MTX)
Lipoxygenase pathway yields
Leukotrienes
This leukotriene is a neutrophil chemotactic agent
LTB4
These three leukotrienes promote bronchoconstriction
LTC4, LTD4, LTE4
Corticosteroids inhibit both
Phospholipase A2 and synthesis of COX-2
Another name for PGI2
Prostacyclin
____ inhibits platelet aggregation and promotes vasodilation
PGI2
Ketorolac is this type of medicine?
NSAID
Used to close a PDA
Indomethacin
5 toxicities of NSAIDs
Renal damage
Fluid retention
Aplastic anemia
GI distress
Ulcers
2 toxicities from COX-2 inhibitors
Increased risk of thrombosis
Sulfa allergy
Overdose of acetaminophen produces
Hepatic necrosis
Antidote for acetaminophen overdose (and mechanism)
N-acetylcysteine (regenerates glutathione)
Etidronate, pamidronate, alendronate, risedronate, and zoledronate are
Bisphosphonates
Mechanism of bisphosphonates
Inhibit osteoclastic activity
Reduce both formation and resorption of hydroxyapatite
3 uses of bisphosphonates
Malignancy-associated hypercalcemia
Paget's disease of bone
Postmenopausal osteoporosis
4 toxicities of bisphosphonates
Corrosive esophagitis (except zoledronate)
Nausea
Diarrhea
Osteonecrosis of the jaw
3 drugs for gout
Colchicine (acute gout; alternative is indomethacin)
Allopurinol (chronic gout)
Probenecid (chronic gout)
Mechanism of colchicine
Binds and stabilizes tubulin to inhibit polymerization, impairing leukocyte chemotaxis and degranulation
Mechanism of allopurinol
Inhibits xanthine oxidase, decreasing conversion of xanthine to uric acid
Mechanism of probenecid
Inhibits reabsorption of uric acid in PCT (and secretion of penicillin)

Is a uricosuric
Side effect of colchicine
GI side effects
Additional usage of allopurinol
In lymphoma and leukemia to prevent tumor lysis associated urate nephropathy
Allopurinol increases the concentrations of these 2 drugs
Azathioprine and 6-MP (both normally metabolized by xanthine oxidase)
Drug not to give in gout
Salicylates (all but highest doses depress uric acid clearance w/ minor uricosuric activity)
3 TNF-alpha inhibitors
Etanercept
Infliximab
Adalimumab
Etanercept is a
Recombinant form of human TNF receptor that binds TNF (soluble form w/ Fc Ig)
Chimeric anti-TNF Ab
Infliximab
Human anti-TNF Ab
Adalimumab
All TNF-alpha inhibitors should be given with
MTX
3 TNF-alpha inhibitors
Etanercept
Infliximab
Adalimumab
Etanercept is a
Recombinant form of human TNF receptor that binds TNF (soluble form w/ Fc Ig)
Chimeric anti-TNF Ab
Infliximab
Human anti-TNF Ab
Adalimumab
All TNF-alpha inhibitors should be given with
MTX
TNF alpha inhibitor that predisposes to infections (e.g. reactivation of latent TB)
Infliximab
5 categories of drugs used for glaucoma
Alpha-agonists
Beta-blockers
Diuretics
Cholinomimetics
Prostaglandin
Glaucoma drug to avoid in closed-angle glaucoma
Alpha-agonists
Two alpha agonists used in glaucoma
Epi
Brimonidine
Mechanism of alpha-agonists for glaucoma
Decrease AH synthesis
3 beta blockers used in glaucoma
Timolol, betaxolol, carteolol
Mechanism of beta blockers for glaucoma
Decrease AH secretion
Diuretic used in glaucoma
Acetazolamide
Mechanism of acetazolamide in glaucoma
Decrease AH secretion due to decreased HCO3- (via inhibition of carbonic anhydrase)
Examples of direct and indirect cholinomimetics used for glaucoma
Direct: pilocarpine, carbachol
Indirect: physostigmine, echothiophate
Mechanism of cholinomimetics for glaucoma
Increase outflow of AH (contract ciliary muscle and open trabecular meshwork into canal of Schlemm)
When is pilocarpine used in glaucoma?
Emergenices
Side effects of cholinomimetics for glaucoma
Miosis
Cyclospasm
Prostaglandin used in glaucoma
Latanoprost (PGF-2alpha)
Mechanism of latanoprost for glaucoma
Increase outflow of AH
Side effect of latanoprost
Darkens color of iris (browning)
7 opioid analgesics
Morphine, fentanyl, codeine, heroin, methadone, meperidine, dextromethorphan
3 intrinsic opioid receptors
Mu = morphine
Delta = enkephalin
Kappa = dynorphin
Opioids are agonists at opioid receptors, causing
K+ channels to open (efflux)
Ca channels to close
Both --> decreased synaptic transmission
Opioids decrease release of these 5 neurotransmitters
ACh, NE, 5HT, glutamate, substance P
Other than pain and methadone addiction programs, 3 clinical uses for opioids
Cough suppression (dextromethorphan)
Diarrhea (loperamide and diphenoxylate)
Acute pulmonary edema
7 side effects of opioids
Addiction
Respiratory depression
Constipation
Miosis
Addictive CNS depression with other drugs
Biliary colic from smooth muscle cell contraction in the sphincter of Oddi
Histamine-released --> vasodilation
Tolerance does not develop to these 2 opioid side effects
Miosis
Constipation
Tolerance is mediated by ____ (neurotransmitter) activating ____ (its receptor), leading to ______ of the opioid receptors
Glutamate ---> NMDA activation --> phosphorylation of opioid receptors
Tolerance can be decreased with _____ antagonists
NMDA (e.g. ketamine, dextromethorphan)
Partial agonist at opioid mu receptors, agonist at kappa receptors
Butorphanol
Advantage of butorphanol over other opioids
Less respiratory depression than full agonists
Toxicity of butorphanol
Causes withdrawal if on full agonist
Tramadol is a ____ opioid agonist that also inhibits ____ and ____ reuptake
Weak

Serotonin and NE
Additional side effect of tramadol
Decreased seizure threshold
12 epilepsy drugs
Phenytoin
Carbamazepine
Lamotrigine
Gabapentin
Topiramate
Phenobarbital
Valproic acid
Ethosuximide
Benzos
Tiagabine
Vigabatrin
Levetiracetam
All epilepsy drugs can be used for partial seizures except
Ethosuximide
Benzos
First line for tonic-clonic seizures (3)
Phenytoin
Carbamazepine
Valproic acid
First line Rx for absence seizures
Ethosuximide (valproic acid also possibly)
1st line of acute treatment of status epilepticus
Benzos
1st line for prophylaxis of status epilepticus
Phenytoin
Unique mechanism of ethosuximide
Blocks thalamic T-type Ca2+ channels
Epilepsy drugs that block/ inactivate Na channels (5)
Phenytoin
Carbamazepine
Lamotrigine
Topiramate
Valproic acid
Epilepsy drugs that increase GABA (7)
Topiramate
Phenobarbital
Valproic acid
Benzos
Tiagabine
Vigabatrin
Levetiracetam
Epilepsy drugs that work on both Na channels and GABA
Topiramate
Valproic acid
Epilepsy drug that was designed as a GABA analog, but primarily inhibits HVA Ca channels
Gabapentin
Epilepsy drug to use in pregnant women or children
Pehnobarbital
Best drug for myoclonic seizures
Valproic acid
2 drugs to use in seizures of eclampsia
Benzos
MgSO4 (1st line)
1st line drug for trigeminal neuralgia
Carbamazepine
Other uses of gabapentin besides epilepsy (3)
Peripheral neuropathy
Bipolar disorder
Fibromyalgia
Prodrome of malaise and fever followed by apid onset of erythematous/ purpuric macules (oral, ocular, genital); skin lesions may progress to epidermal necrosis and sloughing
Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (and TEN)
Anti-epileptic drugs (AED) that cause SJS (3)
Carbamazepine
Ethosuximide
Lamotrigine
Side effects of carbamazepine
Diplopia
Ataxia
Blood dyscrasias (agranulocytosis, aplastic anemia)
Liver toxicity
Teratogenesis
Induction of P-450
SIADH
SJS
AED that can cause urticaria
Ethosuximide
AED that can cause NTDs in fetus
Valproic acid
AED that can cause fatal hepatotoxicity (follow with LFTs)
Valproic acid
AED that can cause agranulocytosis
Carbamazepine
AED that can cause aplastic anemia
Carbamazepine
AED that can cause fetal hydantoin syndrome
Phenytoin
AED known for weight gain
Valproic acid
Side effects of phenytoin (10)
Nystagmus
Diplopia
Ataxia
Sedation
Gingival hyperplasia
Hirsutism
Megaloblastic anemia
Teratogenesis (fetal hydantoin syndrome)
SLE-like syndrome
Induction of P450
AED known for weight loss
Topiramate
AED known for mental dulling
Topiramate
AED associated w/ kidney stones
Topiramate
AED associated with megaloblastic anemia
Phenytoin
2 AEDs associated with diplopia and ataxia
Carbamazepine and phenytoin
Phenytoin is a class ___ antiarrhythmic
1B
AED associated with SLE-like syndrome
Phenytoin
Why does phenytoin cause a megaloblastic anemia?
Decreased folate absorption
Compare the mechanism of barbiturates to benzodiazepines
Both facilitate GABA A action by acting on the Cl- channel

Barbiturates increase the duration of opening

Benzos increase the frequency of opening
Rx for barbiturate overdose?
Symptom management (assist respiration, increase BP)
Effect of benzos on REM sleep
Decrease it
Benzos are used in treatment of withdrawal from?
Alcohol (DTs)
3 sleep problem indications for benzos
Insomnia
Night terrors
Sleepwalking
Short-acting benzos
Triazolam
Oxazepam
Midazolam
Alprazolam
Which benzos should be used for acute anxiety?
Short-acting
Highest addictive potential with these benzos
Short-acting
Rx for benzo overdose
Flumazenil (competitive antagonist at GABA benzo receptor)
Best drugs for insomnia
ZaZolEs

Zaleplon
Zolpidem
Eszopiclone
Action of ZaZolEs is reversed by
Flumazenil
3 toxicities of zazoles
Ataxia, headaches, confusion
Anesthetic principle: increased blood solubility causes ____ onset of action
lower
Inhaled anesthetics caused _____ cerebral blood flow
Increased (and deceased cerebral metabolic demand)
Toxicity of halothane
Hepatotoxicity
Toxicity of methoxyflurane
Nephrotoxicity
Inhaled anesthetic that is a proconvulsant
Enflurane
5 categories of IV anesthetics
Barbiturates
Benzos
Arylcyclohexylamines (ketamine)
Opiates
Propofol
Best for induction of anesthesia/ short procedures
Barbiturates (also propofol, which has less postop nauseua than thiopental)
Barbiturates ____ cerebral blood flow
Decrease
Ketamine ____ cerebral blood flow
Increases
2 groups of local anesthetics
Esters
Amides (have 2 Is in name)
3 esters
Procaine
Cocaine
Tetracaine
3 amides
Lidocaine
Mepivacaine
Bupivacaine
Mechanism of local anesthetics
Bind Na channels (receptors on inner portion)

Preferentially bind activated channels, so most effective in rapidly firing neurons
Local anesthetics penetrate membrane in _____ form, then bind to ion channels in ____ form
Uncharged

Charged
In infected (acidic) tissue, is more or less anesthetic needed?
More (alkaline anesthetics are charged and cannot penetrate)
Order of pain blockade based on size and myelination
Small myelinated
Small unmyelinated
Large myelinated
Large unmyelinated
Order of loss of neurons based on sensation transmitted
Pain first > temp > touch > pressure (last)
Local anesthetics should be given with what other drug class
Vasoconstrictors (epinephrine)
Why are local anesthetics given with EPI?
To enhance local action and decrease bleeding
Which local anesthetic is not given with EPI?
Cocaine
If a patient is allergic to esters, should give?
Amides
Toxicity of cocaine
Arrhythmias
Toxicity of bupivacaine
Severe CV toxicity
3 toxicities of local anesthetics
CNS excitation
HTN
Hypotension
Depolarizing NM blockade provided by
Succinyl choline
Nondepolarizing NM blockade provide by
Tubocurarine and the curiums (e.g. atracurium, rocuronium)
NM blockade drugs are selective for the ____ receptor
Motor nicotinic (vs. autonomic nicotinic)
3 complications of succinyl choline
Hypercalcemia
Hyperkalemia
Malignant HTN
2 phases of succinylcholine blockade (prolonged depolarization and repolarized but blocked): antidote for each?
No antidote for Phase I (potentiated by cholinesterase inhibitors)
Phase II: cholinesterase inhibitors
Reversal of nondepolarizing NM blockade
Cholinesterase inhibitors (neostigmine, edrophonium, etc.)
Treatment of malignant HTN
Dantrolene
Another use of dantrolene
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (toxicity of antipsychotics)
Mechanism of dantrolene
Prevents release of Ca from sarcoplasmic reticulum
4 strategies in PD treatment
Agonize dopamine receptors
Increase dopamine
Prevent dopamine breakdown
Curb excess cholinergic activity
3 drugs that agonize dopamine receptors
Bromocriptine
Pramipexole
Ropinirole
Two drugs that increase dopamine
Amantadine
L-dopa
Mechanism and toxicity of amantadine
May increase dopamine release (also an antiviral)
Causes ataxia
Why is L-Dopa given instead of dopamine?
Dopamine cannot cross BBB
What drug is always given with L-Dopa?
Carbidopa
Mechanism of carbidopa
Peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor (icnreases bioavailability of L-dopa in brain and limits peripheral side effects)
Two drugs that prevent dopamine breakdown
MAOB inhibitor (selegiline)
COMT inhibitors (entacapone, tolcapone)
Best antimuscarinic for PD?
Benztropine
Benzotropine improves ____ and _____ but has little effect on ____
Tremor and rigidity
Bradykinesia
Best drugs for essential or familial tremors
Beta-blockers
L-dopa is converted to dopamine in the CNS by ______
Dopa decarboxylase
3 toxicities of L-dopa
Arrhythmias (from peripheral conversion to dopamine)
Dyskinesia (from long-term use)
Akinesia (btwn doses)
MAO-B selectivity metabolizes ____ over ____ and ____
Dopamine
NE and 5HT
2 classes of drugs in Alzheimer's treatment
NMDA receptor antagonists
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
NMDA receptor antagonist
Memantine
Memantine helps prevent _____, mediated by _____
Excitotoxicity
Ca
3 toxicities of memantine
Dizzines
Confusion
Hallucinations
3 acetylcholinesterase inhibitors used in Alzheimer's
Donepezil
Galantamine
Rivastigmine
3 toxicities of cholinesterase inhibitors
Nausea
Dizziness
Insomnia
In Huntington's disease, ____ is increased while ___ and ___ are decreased
Dopamine
GABA and ACh
Dopamine antagonist used in Huntington's
Haloperidol
Two amine depleting drugs used in Huntington's
Reserpine
Tetrabenazine
Sumatriptan is a ______ agonist
5HT-1B/1D agonist
Sumatriptan has these 2 clinical uses
Acute migraine
Cluster headaches
3 effects of sumatriptan
Vasoconstriction
Inhibition of trigeminal activation
Vasoactive peptide release
2 toxicities of sumatriptan
Coronary vasospasm
Mild tingling
Sumatriptan is contraindicated in pts with ___ or _____
CAD
Prinzmetal's angina
Rx for anorexia/ bulimia
SSRIs
Rx for anxiety (4)
Benzos
Buspirone
SSRIs
Venlafazine (SNRI)
Rx for ADHD (2)
Amphetamines
Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
Rx for atypical depression (2)
MAOIs
SSRIs
Rx for depression with insomnia
Mirtazapine
Rx for OCD (2)
SSRIs
Comipramine
Rx for panic disorder (3)
SSRIs
TCAs
Benzos
Rx for Tourette's syndrome
Antipsychotics (haloperidol)
Rx for social phobias
SSRIs
5 antipsychotics (typical)
Haloperidol + azines (trifluoperazine, fluphenazine, thioridazine, chlorpromazine)
Mechanism of typical antipsychotics
Block dopamine D2 receptors, increasing cAMP
4 clinical uses of antipsychotics (neuroleptics)
Schizophrenia (primarily positive symptoms, as they may exacerbate negative symptoms)
Psychosis
Acute mania
Tourette's syndrome
Which antipsychotics are high potency, and which are low potency?
High: haloperidol, trifluoperazine, fluphenazine

Low: thioridazine, chlorpromazine
High potency antipsychotics have ___ side effects, while low potency antipsychotics have _____
Neurologic side effects (extrapyramidal symptoms)

Non-neurologic (anticholinergic, antihistamien, and alpha blockade)
Evolution of extrapyramidal side effects
Dystonia (spasm, stiffness)--> akinesia (parkinsonism)--> akathisia (restlessness)-->
tardive dyskinesia
(4 hrs, days, weeks, months)
Treat EPS with?
Bentropine or trihexyphenidyl
(other drugs for Parkinsonism can exacerbate psychosis)
What is tardive dyskinesia?
Sterotypic oral-facial movements
Often irreversible
Endocrine side effects of antipsychotics
Dopamine receptor antagonist --> hyperprolactinemia --> galactorrhea (worst with risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic)
Side effects of antipsychotics from block muscarinic, alpha, and histamine receptors
Dry mouth/ constipation
Hypotension
Sedation
Clinical sequelae of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
FEVER

Fever
Encephalopathy
Vitals unstable (autonomic instability)
Elevated enzymes
Rigidity of muscles (and myoglobinuria)
Treatment of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Dantrolene
Agonists (e.g. bromocriptine)
6 atypical antipsychotics
Olanzapine
Clozapine
Quetiapine
Risperidone
Aripiprazole
Ziprasidone
Atypical antipsychotics block these 4 receptor types
5-HT2
Dopamine
Alpha
H1
Drug of choice for both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
Atypical antipsychotics (better side effect profile)
Olanzapine used for (besides schizophrenia) (5)
OCD
Anxiety
Depression
Mania
Tourette's
Two atypical antipsychotics that may cause significant weight gain
Olanzapine
Clozapine
Clozapine has these 2 serious side effects
Agranulocytosis (monitor WBC weekly)
Seizures
Best treatment for bipolar disorder
Mood stabilizers (lithium, and antiepileptics, e.g. valproic acid, carbamazepine, and lamotrigine)
Other than bipolar, lithium is also used to treat
SIADH
Side effects of Lithium
LMNOP

Movement (tremor)
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (polyuria and polydipsia, b/c is an ADH antagonist)
hypOthyroidism
Pregnancy problems (causes Ebstein anomaly and malformation of great vessels)

Also sedation, edema, and heart block
Buspirone is used for
Generalized anxiety disorder
Buspirone stimulates ____ receptors
5-HT-1A
Advantage of buspirone over barbiturates/ benzos
Doesn't interact w/ alcohol
No sedation/ addiction/ tolerance
Buspirone is also used for
Smoking cessation
7 tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
Imipramine, amitriptyline, desipramine, nortriptyline, clomipramine, doxepin, amoxapine
Mechanism of TCAs
Block reuptake of NE and serotonin
3 uses of all TCAs
Major depression
Fibromyalgia
Diabetic neuropathy
Additional clinical use of imipramine
Bedwetting
Additional clinical use of clomipramine
OCD
3 main side effects
Sedation (from histamine blockade)
Orthostatic hypotension (from alpha blockade)
Anticholinergic (tachycardia, urinary retention)
More anticholinergic effects with ____ TCAs than ____
3rd generation (amitriptyline) than 2nd generation (nortriptyline)
Least sedating and lowest seizure threshold of the TCAs?
Desipramine
5 main toxicities of TCAs
Convulsions
Coma
Cardiotoxicity (arrhythmias)
Respiratory depression
Hyperpyrexia
Toxicity of TCAs in elderly
Confusion and hallucinations from anticholinergic side effects (so use 2nd generation, like nortriptyline, which has fewer anticholinergic side effects)
Treatment of CV toxicity for TCAs?
NaHCO3
4 SSRIs
Fluoxetine
Paroxetine
Sertraline
Citalopram
4 uses of SSRIs
Depression
OCD
Bulimia
Social phobias
3 toxicities of SSRIs
GI distress
Sexual dysfunction (anorgasmia)
Serotonin syndrome
Symptoms of serotonin syndrome
Hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, CV collapse, flushing, diarrhea, seizures
Rx for serotonin syndrome
Cyproheptadine (5-HT2 receptor antagonist)
2 SNRIs
Venlafaxine
Duloxetine
Other than depression, venlafaxine is indicated for ? and duloxetine is indicated for?
Generalized anxiety disorder

Diabetic peripheral neuropathy
Most common toxicity of SNRIs
HTN (monitor)
Other toxicities of SNRIs
Stimulant effects, sedation, nausea
4 MAOIs
Phenelzine
Tranylcypromine
Isocarboxazid
Selegiline (selective for MAO-B)
Mechanism of MAO inhibitors
Increase levels of amine neurotransmitters (NE, serotonin, dopamin)
3 uses of MAOIs
Atypical depression
Anxiety
Hypochondriasis
MAOIs can cause a _____ crisis
Hypertensive (with ingestion of tyramine, e.g. from wine and cheese, or with beta agonists)
MAOIs are contraindicated with
SSRIs or meperidine (to prevent serotonin syndrome)
4 atypical depressants
Bupropion, mirtazapine, maprotiline, and trazodone
Bupropion is a ?
NDRI (increases NE and dopamine)
Bupropion is also used for
Smoking cessation
Side effects of bupropion (3)
Stimulant effects (tachycardia, insomnia)
Headache
Seizure (in bulimic pts)
Advantage of the side effect profiles of bupropion and mirtazapine?
No sexual side effects
2 mechanisms of mirtazapine
Alpha-2 antagonist (increasing release of NE and serotonin)
5HT2 and 3 receptor antagonist
Toxicity of mirtazapine
Sedation, increased appetite, weight gain
Mechanism of maprotiline
Blocks NE reuptake
Toxicity of maprotiline (2)
Sedation
Orthostatic hypotension
Trazodone: mechanism and use
Primarily inhibits serotonin reuptake

Used for insomnia (high doses needed for antidepressant effects)
4 toxicities of trazodone
Priapism (painful prolonged erection)
Postural hypotension
Sedation
Nausea
Osmotic diuretic
Mannitol (increases tubular fluid osmolarity, producing increased urine flow)
4 uses of mannitol
Shock
Drug overdose
Increased ICP or IOP
2 toxicities of mannitol
Pulmonary edema
Dehydration
2 contraindications of mannitol
CHF
Anuria
Mannitol works in the?
Proximal convoluted tubule
Acetazolamide works in the?
Proximal convoluted tubule
Mechanism of acetazolamide
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

Causes self-limited NaHCO3 diureses and reduction in total body HCO3 stores (Na and HCO3 lost in urine)
Why is acetazolamide a weak diuretic?
Kidney still has time to make up for Na lost
4 uses of acetazolamide
Glaucoma
Urinary alkalinization
Metabolic alkalosis
Altitude sickness
4 toxicities of acetazolamide
Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
Neuropathy
NH3 toxicity
Sulfa allergy
____ causes metabolic acidosis while ____ causes metabolic alkalosis (diuretics)
Acetazolamide

HCTZ
Mechanism of loop diuretics
Inhibit cotransport system (Na, K, 2 Cl), abolishing hypertonicity of medulla and preventing concentration of urine
Where do loop diuretics work?
Thick ascending limp of the loop of Henle
Loops lose _____
Calcium
Clinical use of loop diuretics (3)
Edematous state (CHF, cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome, pulmonary edema)
HTN
Hypercalcemia
Toxicity of furosemide
OH DANG, i lost my loop earrings

Ototoxicity
Hypokalemia
Dehydration
Allergy (sulfa)
Nephritis (interstitial)
Gout
What drug is used for diuresis in pts allergic to sulfa drugs?
Ethacrynic acid (phenoxyacetic acid derivative; NOT a sulfonamide; same action as furosemide)
What diuretic can be used in hyperuricemia/ acute gout (although not to treat gout)
Ethacrynic acid
Mechanism of thiazide diuretics?
Inhibit NaCl reabsorption in early distal tubule, reducing diluting capacity of the nephron
Where do thiazide diuretics work
Early distal tubule
4 uses of thiazide diuretics
HTN
CHF
Idiopathic hypercalciuria
Nephrogenic diabetes inspidus
Why do thiazide diuretics decrease the risk of kidney stones?
Decrease calcium excretion (hypocalciurics, can cause hypercalcemia though)
Toxicity of HCTZ
Hyper GLUC
Hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, hyperuricemia, hypercalcemia

Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis, hyponatremic, and sulfa allergy
4 K+ sparing diuretics
Spironolactone, eplerenone
Triamterene, Amiloride
Where do the K+ sparing diuretics work?
Cortical collecting tubule
Mechanism of spironolactone and eplerenone?
Competitive aldosterone receptor antagonists
Eplerenone has fewer _____ side effects than spironolactone
Androgenic (is selective for aldosterone receptor)
All diuretics increase?
Urine NaCl
Which diuretic classes cause acidemia?
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors and K+ sparing (aldosterone blockade prevents both K+ secretion and H+ secretion)
Which diuretic classes cause alkalemia?
Loop diuretics and thiazides

3 mechanisms: volume contraction, K+ exciting cells in exchange for H+ entering cells, and H+ being exchanged for Na+ in cortical collecting duct due to low K+ state
Hypocalcemia with _____, hypercalcemia with _____
Loop diuretics

Thiazides
3 ACE inhibitors
Captopril, enalapril, lisinopril
Mechanism of ACE inhibitors
Inhibit angiotensin-converting enzyme, with 2 effects:

Decreases levels of angiotensin II

Prevents inactivation of bradykinin (--> more bradykinin), a potent vasodilator
Is renin release increased or decreased with ACE inhibitors?
Increased (loss of feedback inhibition, though the renin cannot produce its downstream effects)
3 uses of ACEIs
HTN
CHF
Diabetic renal disease
Mechanism of cough in ACEIs
Increased bradykinin
Treat cough from ACEIs with
Replacement of ACEI with an ARB (e.g. losartan)
Toxicity of ACEIs
CAPTOPRIL + hyperkalemia

Cough
Angioedema
Proteinuria
Taste changes
hypOtension
Pregnancy problems (fetal renal damage)
Rash
Increased renin
Lower angiotensin II
ACEIs should be avoided in pts with?
Bilateral renal artery stenosis, b/c ACEIs significantly decrease GFR by preventing constriction of efferent arterioles
GnRH analog
Leuprolide
Leuprolide is a ____ when used in a pulsatile manner and ____ when used continuously
Agaonist
Antagonist
3 uses of leuprolide
Infertility (pulsatile)
Prostate cancer (continuous + flutamide)
Uterine fibroids
Toxicity of leuprolide
Antiandrogen
N/V
3 uses of testosterone
Hypogonadism/ promote dev't of secondary sex characteristics

Stimulate anabolism to promote recovery after burn/ injury

Treat ER-positive breast cancer
Exemestane is a ____ inhibitor
Aromatase
Exemestane is used to treat
ER-positive breast cancer
4 toxicities of testosterone
Females: masculinization
Males: gonadal atrophy (by feedback inhibition of LH)
Premature closure of epiphyseal plate
Increases LDL/ decreases HDL
4 antiandrogens
Finasteride, flutamide, ketoconazole, spironolactone
Mechanism of finasteride
5alpha reductase inhibitor
Two uses of finasteride
BPH
Male-pattern hair loss
Mechanism of flutamide
Nonsteroidal competitive inhibitor of androgens at testosterone receptor
Use of flutamide
Prostate carcinoma (can use with continuous leuprolide)
Ketoconazole inhibits ____ to inhibit steroid ____
Demolase
synthesis
Spironolactone inhibits steroid ____
binding
Ketoconazole and spironolactone are used in
PCOS to prevent hirsutism
2 side effects of ketoconazole and spironolactone
Gynecomastia
Amenorrhea
3 uses of estrogen in women
Hypogonadism or ovarian failure
Menstrual abnormalities
HRT in postmenopausal women
1 use of estrogen in men
Androgen-dependent prostate cancer
4 toxicities of estorgen
Increased risk of endometrial cancer
Bleeding in postmenopausal women
Increased risk of thrombi
With DES: clear cell adenocarcinoma in vagina of females with DES exposure in utero
2 contraindications of estrogen
ER-positive breast cancer
History of DVTs
Estrogen partial agonists are also called
Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs)
3 SERMs
Clomiphene
Tamoxifen
Raloxifene
Mechanism of clomiphene
Partial agonist at estrogen receptors in hypothalamus, so prevents feedback inhibition, increasing release of LH and FSH
2 uses of clomiphene
Infertility and PCOS
4 toxicities of clomiphene
Hot flashes
Ovarian enlargement
Multiple simultaneous pregnancies
Visual disturbances
Raloxifene is used to treat
Osteoporosis
Tamoxifen is used to treat and prevent recurrence of
ER-positive breast cancer
Two uses of hormone replacement therapy
Relief/ prevention of menopausal symptoms

Osteoporosis
Why is progesterone used in HRT?
Unopposed estrogen increases the risk of endometrial cancer
Possible increased risk of ___ with HRT?
CVD
3 aromatase inhibitors
Anastrozole
Exemestane
Letrozole
Aromatase inhibitors are used in ____ to treat ____
Postmenopausal women
Breast cancer
Why are aromatase inhibitors used?
Because postmenopausal women have estrogen due to peripheral conversion
Progestins reduce ___ and increase ____ of endometrium
Growth

Vascularization
3 uses of progestins
OCPs
Endometrial cancer
Abnormal uterine bleeding
Mifepristone is a competitive inhibitor of ____
Progestins (at progesterone receptor)
Mifepristone is used to
Terminate pregnancy
Mifepristone is administered with
Misoprostol (PGE1)
3 toxicities of mifepristone
Heavy bleeding
GI (N/V, anorexia)
Abdominal pain
Mechanism of oral contraceptives
Prevent estrogen surge, so LH surge/ ovulation don't occur
OCP effect on:
risk of endometrial and ovarian cancer
Decrease
OCP effect on:
Lipids
Increase triglycerides
OCP effect on:
incidence of ectopic pregnancy
Decrease
OCP effect on:
incidence of pelvic infections
Deccrease
OCP effect on:
CVD risk
Puts pts in a hypercoaguable state
4 side effects of OCPs
Depression
Weight gain
Nausea
HTN
Contraindications of OCPs (3)
Smokers >35yo
History of thromboembolism/ stroke
History of estrogen-dependent tumors
Dinoprostone is a ____ analog
PGE2
Dinoprostone causes 3 things
Cervical dilation
Uterine contraction
Both helping to induce labor
2 beta-2 agonists that relax the uterus
Ritodrine/ terbutaline
Use of ritodrine/ terbutaline
Reduce premature uterine contractions
Tamsulosin: drug type and use
alpha-1 antagonist used to treat BPH by inhibiting smooth muscle contraction
Tamsulosin is specific for ____ receptors, so doesn't cause _____
alpha-1A/D receptors found on prostate

orthostatic hypotension (by afefcting vascular alpha-1B receptors)
Sildenafil and vardenafil: mechanism
Inhibit cGMP phosphodiesterase, causing increased cGMP, smooth muscle relaxation in the corpus cavernosum, increased blood flow, and penile erection
Other than erectile dysfunction, sildenafil is also used to treat
Pulmonary artery hypertension
4 toxicities of sildenafil
Headache
Flushing
Heartburn
Impaired blue-green color vision
Sildenafil is contraindicated in pts taking ____ because of the risk of life-threatening _____
Nitrates
Hypotension
Are H1 blockers reversible or irreversible inhibitors of H1 histamine receptors?
Reversible
3 first generation H1 blockers
Diphenhydramine, dimenhydrinate, chlorpheniramine
3 second generation H1 blockers
Loratadine, fexofenadine, desloratadine, cetirizine
Clinical uses of 1st generation H1 blockers
Allergy
Motion sickness
Sleep aid
Clinical uses of 2nd generation H1 blockers
Allergy
Why are 2nd generation H1 blockers less sedating?
Decreased entry into the CNS
This drug blocks both H1 and H2 receptors; used for anaphylactic reactions (and as an antidepressant)
Doxepin
Bronchoconstriction is mediated by two things
Inflammatory processes
Sympathetic tone
6 types of asthma drugs
Beta-agonist (nonspecific and beta-2s)
Methylxanthines
Muscarinic antagonists
Cromolyn sodium
Corticosteroids
Antileukotrienes
Which nonspecific beta agonist is used is asthma?
Isoproterenol
Adverse effect of isoproterenol
Tachycardia
Two beta-2 agonists used in asthma
Albuterol and salmeterol
Which beta-2 agonist is used for acute asthma exacerbations?
Albuterol
Which beta-2 agonist is used as a long-acting agent for prophylaxis
Salmeterol
Adverse effects of salmeterol (2)
Tremor
Arrhythmias
Example of a methylxanthines
Theophylline
Mechanism of theyphylline-induced bronchodilation?
Inhibits phosphodiesterase --> decreases cAMP hydrolysis
2 serious toxicitis of theophylline
Cardiotoxicity
Neurotoxicity
Theophylline blocks action of?
Adenosine (antiarrhythmic that increases K+ efflux)
Theophylline cardiotoxicity is treated with?
Beta blockers
Muscarinic antagonists used in asthma
Ipratropium
Ipratropium is also used for
COPD
Mechanism of cromolyn sodium
Prevents release of mediators from mast cells
Is cromolyn sodium used for prophylaxis or treatment of asthma?
Prophylaxis (not effective during an acute attack)
1st line therapy for chronic asthma
Corticosteroids
2 corticosteroids used in asthma
Beclomethasone
Prednisone
2 mechanisms of corticosteroids in asthma
Inhibit synthesis of cytokines
Inactivate NF-kappa beta, the TF that induces production of TNF-alpha
3 antileukotrienes used in asthma
Zileuton, zafirlukast, montelukast
Mechanism of zileuton
5-liposygenase pathway inhibitor (Blocks conversion of arachidonic acid to leukotrienes)
Mechanism of zafirlukast and montelukast
Block leukotriene receptors
Best treatment for aspirin-induced asthma
Zafirlukast, montelukast
2 expectorants
Guaifenesin
N-acetylcysteine
Mechanism of guaifenesin
Removes excess sputum (doesn't suppress cough reflex)
N-acetylcysteine has 2 clinical uses
Expectorant/ mucolytic
Antidote for acetaminophen toxicity
N-acetylcysteine is used as an expectorant in which pts
CF patients (can loosen mucous plugs)
Bosentan is used to treat
Pulmonary hypertension
Mechanism of bosentan
Competitive antagonist of endothelin-1 receptors --> decreases pulmonary vascular resistance