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40 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1. You should avoid rapid IV infusion of cimetidine (Tagamet) because it can cause:
a. confusion
2. Side effects related to cimetidine therapy include:
a. abdominal pain and diarrhea
3. Mr. S, who receives aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) via nasogastric tube every 4 hours, should be observed for:
a. constipation
4. The following is a contraindication for the use of metoclopramide (Reglan):
a. Parkinson’s Disease
5. Your client, with peptic ulcer disease, is started on scralfate (Carafate). A potential nursing diagnosis related to this medication is:
a. alteration I bowel elimination: constipation
6. For the best effectiveness, you should administer scralfate (Carafate) at the following time:
a. 1 hour before meals
7. Your client will receive ranitidine (Zantac) 150 mg PO at bedtime. Prior to administration, you should inform the client that common side effects related to this medication are:
a. headache
8. Ranitidine (Zantac) should be cautiously administered to individuals with evidence of:
a. renal disease
10. A client who is taking a senna preparation (Senokot) calls you because she has noticed that her urine is a deep red and she thinks she is bleeding. Your best response would be:
a. “The medication you are taking can color the urine different shades of red”
12. An adverse effect of administration of stimulant cathartic is:
a. diarrhea
13. Long-term administration of mineral oil can decrease the absorption of:
a. vitamin D and fat soluble vitamins
14. Administering castor oil the following way would make it more palatable:
a. chill it
15. The safest and most effective way to treat constipation in children is with:
a. glycerin suppositories
16. An alcoholic with chronic liver failure could use the following laxative to lower his serum ammonia levels:
a. lactulose (Chronulac)
17. After surgery for a peptic ulcer, your client is receiving morphine sulfate 2 mg q4h, tetracycline 250 mg q6h, cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h, and acetaminophen (Tylenol) 600 mg q4h. Which of the medications above is most likely to cause constipation?
a. morphine sulfate
18. Psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid (Metamucil) should be avoided if Mrs. V has:
a. diabetes mellitus
19. An expected outcome of the administration of psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid (Metamucil) is a regular bowel movement:
a. within 1 to 3 days
20. Evidence of the following indicates that a client taking pancrelipase (Cotazym) needs to have his medication altered:
a. steatorrhea
21. A client receiving diphenoxylate (Lomotil) should be altered to the following side effect related to this medication:
a. drowsiness
22. The following medication is used to treat the diarrhead associated with bacillary dysentery caused by Shigella organisms:
a. ampicillin (Omnipen)
23. An over the counter medication used to treat nausea is:
a. Emetrol
24. The following symptom may be related to the use of dronabinol (Marinol):
a. anxiety
25. Persons taking phenothiazines need to be assessed for extrapyramidal symptoms, which include:
a. dyskinesia, dystonia, and akathisia
26. Your client is to receive Reglan for nausea. The following statement by your client lead you to believe that she has understood the teaching that you have done:
a. “I may by drowsy as a result of taking this medication”
27. Before administering an antiemetic to a patient experiencing nausea and vomiting, the nurse should assess:
a. bowel sounds or blood pressure
28. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) is contraindicated in:
a. pregnant women
29. Which of the following anitememtics is the drug of choice for use with children?
a. promethazine (Phenergan)
30. Mr. P is going on an ocean cruse and asks his physician for an antiemetic. Which of the following medications would be most effective for motion sickness?
a. Anitvert
31. A scopolamine (Transderm Scop) patch is ordered for a terminal care patient experiencing nausea and vomiting. The following statement made by your patient leads you to believe that he or she understands how to use the patch:
a. “I will place the patch behind my ear and replace it every 3 days”
32. When administering hydroxyzine (Vistaril), you need to assess the client for anticholinergic effects, which include:
a. dry mouth and urinary retention
33. The ideal time to take antacid is:
a. 1 hour before or after other drugs
34. Mrs. H a 79 year old woman with peptic ulcer disease, is taking cimetidine (Tagamet). When you enter her room, you find that she is confused. You should:
a. hold the medication and contact her physician
35. Mr. J is to receive polyethylene glycol-electrolyte solution (GoLYTLEY) for bowel cleansing before an endoscopic procedure. Which instructions should you give M.J?
a. “Take 8 ounces every 10 minutes until the 4 liters are gone”
36. An adverse effect of administration of bulk forming laxatives is:
a. impaction
37. Administration of mineral oil can decrease the absorption of fat soluble vitamins if continued for longer than:
a. 2 weeks
38. Before taking laxatives for constipation, Mrs. C should:
a. drink 2000 to 3000 ml of fluid for several days
39. Your neighbor calls you because she has been having diarrhea for 2 days. What advice should you give her?
a. “Drink plenty of fluids that contain calories and electrolytes”
40. Antiemetics are usually contraindicated in clients with:
a. pregnancy
41. Which of the following statements by your client leads you to believe that she needs additional instruction regarding antiemetics?
a. “If I become drowsy, I will stop taking the medication.”
42. Mrs. P becomes nauseated the night before her chemotherapy treatment. Her physician believes that she is experiencing anticipatory nausea. Which of the following medications would be most effective for Mrs. P’s nausea?
a. Ativan