Pharm Test 3

Front 1

1. An infection acquired in the hospital is referred to as a :

Back 1

a. nosocomial infection

Front 2

2. Probenecid (Benemid) is used with penicillin to:

Back 2

a. increase serum drug levels

Front 3

3. Adverse effects of high-dose antibiotic therapy are:

Back 3

a. nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

Front 4

4. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is a urinary tract analgesic used to relieve which of the following symptoms:

Back 4

a. pain and urgency

Front 5

5. The following statement by Mr. P leads you to believe that he understands the health teaching you have done about nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin):

Back 5

a. “I will take the medicine with food or milk”

Front 6

6. A person receiving phenazopyridine (Pyridium) should be informed that it will change the color of urine to:

Back 6

a. reddish-orange

Front 7

7. Erythromycin may be used with neomycin preoperatively to:

Back 7

a. suppress intestinal bacteria

Front 8

8. Macrolides must be used with caution in clients who have:

Back 8

a. liver disease

Front 9

9. Common side effects that occur after the administration of erythromycin include:

Back 9

a. nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

Front 10

10. The following medications, if administered concurrently with erythromycin, will decrease its effects:

Back 10

a. antacids

Front 11

11. Your client, who is taking INH (Laniazid), rifampin (Rifadin), and pyrazinamide, calls you because her urine is orange-red. You tell her:

Back 11

a. “This is a normal response to rifampin”

Front 12

12. Early symptoms of a hypersensitivity reaction to antitubercular drugs include:

Back 12

a. fever and tachycardia

Front 13

13. You should begin to see the therapeutic effects of antitubercular drug therapy in:

Back 13

a. 2---3 weeks

Front 14

14. You will know that your client with tuberculosis is improving as the result of drug therapy when his:

Back 14

a. sputum decreases

Front 15

15. The recommended length of initial treatment for someone who has been exposed but has a negative tuberculin test is:

Back 15

a. 6 months

Front 16

16. Adverse effects of ganciclovir (Cytovene) that the nurse needs to assess for include:

Back 16

a. thrombocytopenia

Front 17

17. Mr. J, a 21-year-old male, is being started on zidovudine (AZT) for treatment of AIDS. Which of the following statements by Mr. J leads you to believe that he understands the teaching that you have done? :

Back 17

a. “Zidovudine (AZT) slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it”

Front 18

18. The use of amantadine (Symmetrel) for treatment of influenza A is recommended for use in:

Back 18

a. all adults/persons with chronic lung disease

Front 19

19. The drug most commonly used to treat infections caused by Candida albicans is:

Back 19

a. nystatin (Mycostatin)

Front 20

20. Nystatin (Mycostatin) is ordered as a “swish.” The client should be instructed to:

Back 20

a. rinse her mouth with the medication, then swallow it

Front 21

21. The following statement by your client lead you to believe that she has understood the teaching that you have done regarding metronidazole (Flagyl):

Back 21

a. “Iwill not drink alcohol while I am taking this medication”

Front 22

22. Passive nonspecific immunity:

Back 22

a. occurs when antibodies are formed by the immune system of another person and transferred to the host

Front 23

23. A generalized response to cellular injury is:

Back 23

a. inflammation

Front 24

24. Interferons:

Back 24

a. interfere with the ability of viruses in infected cells to replicate

Front 25

25. Which of the following is considered a toxic side effect of interleukin-2 (aldesleukin) and would necessitate discontinuation of the drug?:

Back 25

a. repetitive seizures

Front 26

26. Mr. G has just had a bone marrow transplant. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would take priority?:

Back 26

a. potential for infection related to immunosuppression

Front 27

27. An expected outcome after the administration of epoetin alfa (Epogen) is:

Back 27

a. increased RBC count

Front 28

28. One of the adverse effects of the anti-AIDS drug zidovudine (Retrovir) that the nurse needs to assess for is:

Back 28

a. decreased RBC count

Front 29

29. Persons receiving azathioprine (Imuran) should be observed for:

Back 29

a. abnormal bleeding

Front 30

30. Which of the following instructions should be given to Mr. H, who is receiving methotrexate (Rheumatrex), to help him avoid the adverse effects of the medication?:

Back 30

a. wear protective clothing and use sunscreen to decrease your exposure to the sun

Front 31

31. After his liver transplant, Mr. J receives immunosuppressants to prevent the following complication:

Back 31

a. organ rejection

Front 32

32. Persons receiving immunosuppressants after kidney transplant should be observed for deterioration in kidney function. Which of the following lab studies would give you the earliest indication of a change in renal status?:

Back 32

a. creatinine clearance

Front 33

33. Vaginal Candida albicans infection, commonly treated with miconazole (Monistat), is an example of a:

Back 33

a. fungal infection

Front 34

34. Which of the following antimicrobials is contraindicated in children under the age of 8?

Back 34

tetracyclines

Front 35

35. After receiving penicillin for 5 days, Mrs. A complains of soreness in her mouth, diarrhea, and vaginal itching, which may be signs of:

Back 35

a. superimposed infection

Front 36

36. When probenecid is administered with penicillin, which of the following results?:

Back 36

a. drug action is increased

Front 37

37. Aminoglycosides are used orally to treat:

Back 37

a. gram-negative infections

Front 38

38. Which of the following drugs should be avoided when a person is receiving aminoglycosides?

Back 38

a. furosemide (Lasix)

Front 39

39. Aminoglycosides can be nephrotoxic. The most effective way of preventing compromised renal function in Mr. T is to:

Back 39

a. keep him well hydrated

Front 40

40. Trough serum drug levels for gentamicin should be drawn:

Back 40

a. 15 minutes before the next dose or 1 hour before the next dose

Front 41

41. Mr. J has a peak gentamicin level of 14 ug/ml. This level is:

Back 41

a. associated with nephrotoxicity, slightly above the therapeutic range

Front 42

42. Mrs. J who is 6 months pregnant, comes to the doctor asking for a prescription for tetracycline to treat her acne. Your response should be:

Back 42

a. “Tetracycline, if taken during pregnancy, will be deposited in the bones and teeth of the fetus.”

Front 43

43. Which drug, if administered with a sulfonamide, will decrease its actions?

Back 43

a. Maalox

Front 44

44. What findings would lead you to believe that your client may be experiencing hepatic toxicity from isoniazid (INH)?

Back 44

a. dark urine or numbness and tingling

Front 45

45. Which of the following statements by Mrs. G leads you to believe that she has understood the teaching you have done regarding rifampin (Rifadin)?

Back 45

a. “This medication may cause my bodily secretions to turn red”

Front 46

46. Live attenuated viral vaccines should not be administered to persons who are receiving:

Back 46

a. antineoplastic agents

Front 47

47. For which of the following disorders in Mr. G’s history would you contact the doctor before administering amantadine (Symmetrol)?:

Back 47

a. epilepsy

Front 48

48. Which of the following medications, if administered concurrently with amphotericin B, may increase nehprotoxicity?

Back 48

a. aminoglycosides

Front 49

49. Your client is receiving intravenous amphotericing B (Fungizone). He should be observed for:

Back 49

a. an elevated serum creatinine level

Front 50

50. The function of colony-stimulating factors (CSF) is to:

Back 50

a. stimulate growth of blood cells