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50 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1. An infection acquired in the hospital is referred to as a :
a. nosocomial infection
2. Probenecid (Benemid) is used with penicillin to:
a. increase serum drug levels
3. Adverse effects of high-dose antibiotic therapy are:
a. nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
4. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is a urinary tract analgesic used to relieve which of the following symptoms:
a. pain and urgency
5. The following statement by Mr. P leads you to believe that he understands the health teaching you have done about nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin):
a. “I will take the medicine with food or milk”
6. A person receiving phenazopyridine (Pyridium) should be informed that it will change the color of urine to:
a. reddish-orange
7. Erythromycin may be used with neomycin preoperatively to:
a. suppress intestinal bacteria
8. Macrolides must be used with caution in clients who have:
a. liver disease
9. Common side effects that occur after the administration of erythromycin include:
a. nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
10. The following medications, if administered concurrently with erythromycin, will decrease its effects:
a. antacids
11. Your client, who is taking INH (Laniazid), rifampin (Rifadin), and pyrazinamide, calls you because her urine is orange-red. You tell her:
a. “This is a normal response to rifampin”
12. Early symptoms of a hypersensitivity reaction to antitubercular drugs include:
a. fever and tachycardia
13. You should begin to see the therapeutic effects of antitubercular drug therapy in:
a. 2---3 weeks
14. You will know that your client with tuberculosis is improving as the result of drug therapy when his:
a. sputum decreases
15. The recommended length of initial treatment for someone who has been exposed but has a negative tuberculin test is:
a. 6 months
16. Adverse effects of ganciclovir (Cytovene) that the nurse needs to assess for include:
a. thrombocytopenia
17. Mr. J, a 21-year-old male, is being started on zidovudine (AZT) for treatment of AIDS. Which of the following statements by Mr. J leads you to believe that he understands the teaching that you have done? :
a. “Zidovudine (AZT) slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it”
18. The use of amantadine (Symmetrel) for treatment of influenza A is recommended for use in:
a. all adults/persons with chronic lung disease
19. The drug most commonly used to treat infections caused by Candida albicans is:
a. nystatin (Mycostatin)
20. Nystatin (Mycostatin) is ordered as a “swish.” The client should be instructed to:
a. rinse her mouth with the medication, then swallow it
21. The following statement by your client lead you to believe that she has understood the teaching that you have done regarding metronidazole (Flagyl):
a. “Iwill not drink alcohol while I am taking this medication”
22. Passive nonspecific immunity:
a. occurs when antibodies are formed by the immune system of another person and transferred to the host
23. A generalized response to cellular injury is:
a. inflammation
24. Interferons:
a. interfere with the ability of viruses in infected cells to replicate
25. Which of the following is considered a toxic side effect of interleukin-2 (aldesleukin) and would necessitate discontinuation of the drug?:
a. repetitive seizures
26. Mr. G has just had a bone marrow transplant. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would take priority?:
a. potential for infection related to immunosuppression
27. An expected outcome after the administration of epoetin alfa (Epogen) is:
a. increased RBC count
28. One of the adverse effects of the anti-AIDS drug zidovudine (Retrovir) that the nurse needs to assess for is:
a. decreased RBC count
29. Persons receiving azathioprine (Imuran) should be observed for:
a. abnormal bleeding
30. Which of the following instructions should be given to Mr. H, who is receiving methotrexate (Rheumatrex), to help him avoid the adverse effects of the medication?:
a. wear protective clothing and use sunscreen to decrease your exposure to the sun
31. After his liver transplant, Mr. J receives immunosuppressants to prevent the following complication:
a. organ rejection
32. Persons receiving immunosuppressants after kidney transplant should be observed for deterioration in kidney function. Which of the following lab studies would give you the earliest indication of a change in renal status?:
a. creatinine clearance
33. Vaginal Candida albicans infection, commonly treated with miconazole (Monistat), is an example of a:
a. fungal infection
34. Which of the following antimicrobials is contraindicated in children under the age of 8?
tetracyclines
35. After receiving penicillin for 5 days, Mrs. A complains of soreness in her mouth, diarrhea, and vaginal itching, which may be signs of:
a. superimposed infection
36. When probenecid is administered with penicillin, which of the following results?:
a. drug action is increased
37. Aminoglycosides are used orally to treat:
a. gram-negative infections
38. Which of the following drugs should be avoided when a person is receiving aminoglycosides?
a. furosemide (Lasix)
39. Aminoglycosides can be nephrotoxic. The most effective way of preventing compromised renal function in Mr. T is to:
a. keep him well hydrated
40. Trough serum drug levels for gentamicin should be drawn:
a. 15 minutes before the next dose or 1 hour before the next dose
41. Mr. J has a peak gentamicin level of 14 ug/ml. This level is:
a. associated with nephrotoxicity, slightly above the therapeutic range
42. Mrs. J who is 6 months pregnant, comes to the doctor asking for a prescription for tetracycline to treat her acne. Your response should be:
a. “Tetracycline, if taken during pregnancy, will be deposited in the bones and teeth of the fetus.”
43. Which drug, if administered with a sulfonamide, will decrease its actions?
a. Maalox
44. What findings would lead you to believe that your client may be experiencing hepatic toxicity from isoniazid (INH)?
a. dark urine or numbness and tingling
45. Which of the following statements by Mrs. G leads you to believe that she has understood the teaching you have done regarding rifampin (Rifadin)?
a. “This medication may cause my bodily secretions to turn red”
46. Live attenuated viral vaccines should not be administered to persons who are receiving:
a. antineoplastic agents
47. For which of the following disorders in Mr. G’s history would you contact the doctor before administering amantadine (Symmetrol)?:
a. epilepsy
48. Which of the following medications, if administered concurrently with amphotericin B, may increase nehprotoxicity?
a. aminoglycosides
49. Your client is receiving intravenous amphotericing B (Fungizone). He should be observed for:
a. an elevated serum creatinine level
50. The function of colony-stimulating factors (CSF) is to:
a. stimulate growth of blood cells