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217 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
what are the two parts of the CNS?
|
afferent- sensory
efferent - motor |
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what is the efferent system divided up into?
|
somatic- skeletal muscle innervation (voluntary)
autonomic- smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and exocrine glands (reflex, homeostasis) |
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what are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system?
|
sympathetic- fight or flight
parasympathetic- non stress time. |
|
what neurotransmitter is primariy stored in vescicles?
|
Acetylcholine
|
|
what do you call neurons that release acetylcholine?
|
cholinergic
|
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what do you call drugs that mimic acetylcholine?
|
cholinomimetics
|
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what do you call drugs that oppose the action of acetylcholine?
|
cholinoceptor antagonists
|
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what are the two types of cholinrgeic receptors?
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muscarinic- nerves, heart, smooth muscle, glands, endothelium
nicotinic- skeletal muscle, neuromusclular junctions |
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what neurotransmitter is released at most sympathetic postganglionic neuroeffector junctions?
|
norepinephrine
|
|
how is norepinephrine formed?
|
tyrosine -> dopamine -> norepinephrine (last step is in vesicles)
|
|
How is Norepinephrine removed after released?
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1. reuptake
2. diffuse into circulation. 3. transported into effector cells (MAO and COMT) |
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where is norepinephrine carried a step further and converted to epinephrine?
|
adrenal medualla
|
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what do you call drugs that mimic norepinephrine?
|
adrenergic, or sympathomimetics
|
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what do you call drugs that oppose NE?
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adrenergic antagonists, or blockers
|
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what are 2 types of cholinomimetic agents?
|
direct acting - bind directly
indirect - inhibits the AChE, increasing ACh. |
|
whate are two types of direct cholinomimetic agents?
|
choline esters- longer duration than ACh. resist destruction from AChE.
alkaloids- well absorbed, kidney excreted, faster with acidification. |
|
what are the 4 cholinomimetic esters?
|
acetylcholine- used for miosis during cataract surgery
metacholine- longer DOA, no nicotinic activity Carbachol- more nicotinic activity, used to treat glaucoma bethanechol- muscarinic activity, used for urine retention, has many adverse effects |
|
what are the cholinomimetc alkaloids?
|
muscarine- no nicotinic agent, (mushroom poisoning)
pilocarpine- miosis, increases gatric secretion, can be to much if diarrhea and vomiting happen. |
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what are the two types of AChE inhobitors?
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mono and bis quaternary amine alcohols
carbamates |
|
what are the three AChE amine inhibitors?
|
Ambenonium- oral, used for myastenia gravis. long DOA, more ADR's
Demecarium- topical, used for glaucoma Edrophonium- NMB reversal, a diagnostic for myastenia gravis |
|
what are the 3 AChE carbamate inhibitors that are reversable?
|
Neostigmine- treats myastenia gravis, NMB reversal, post-op non obstructive urinary retention
physostigmine- antidote to muscarinic blockers, easily absorbed Pyridostigmine- myasthenia gravis, NMB reversal, longer DOA than neo. |
|
what are the AChE carbamate inhibitors that are irreversable?
|
organophosphates- cause miosis, salivation, sweating, bronchisl constriction, NVD. Treat by maintaining ventilation and atropine. (Echothiophte)
|
|
what is glaucoma? How is it treated?
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increased intraocular pressurethat can dmage the optic nerve.
miotics can imporve the aqueous flow(pilocarpine, methacholine, carbacho), cholinesterase inhibitors enhace the ACh to the iris sphincters(physostigmine, demecarium, echothiophate, isoflurophate) |
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what is strabismus?
|
turning of one or both eyes from the normal position, treated with echothiophate, demecarium, isoflurophate.
|
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what is myasthenia gravis?
|
impaired neuromuscular transmission at skeletal muscles.
|
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what do cholinomimetics do to the GI and urinary tracts?
|
increase lower esophogus tone, urinary retention, don't use if there is a GI blockage
|
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how are cholinomimetics used for poisonings?
|
good for atropine and tricyclic antidepressant poisoning. If poisoned with them can cause serious behavior disturbances.
|
|
what are cholinergic blocking agents?
|
compounds that selectively antagonize the muscarinic responses to ACh. reversible. Bella Donna alkaloids, atropine, and scopoline
|
|
what is Menieres disease?
|
recurrent vertigo, ringing in the ears, deafness, nausea and vomiting. Use Scopolamine.
|
|
What drug is used for seasickness?
|
scopolamine
|
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what are cholinergic blocking agent effects on the eye?
|
mydriasis (pupil enlargment), cycloplegia (can't contract ciliary muscles), tear reduction.
|
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what are the cholinergic blocking agents that are normally used in the eyes?
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atropine, scopolamine, cyclopentolate, tropicainamide. Can cause acute glaucoma. Apply presure to lacrimal sac after administration
|
|
what are the effects of cholinergic bocking agents on the cardiovascular system?
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little effect on blood pressure, slight tachycardia. prevents effects of direct acting muscarinic stimulants. low dose = initial bradycardia. larger dose = tachycardia. Only use atropine when hypotension or ventricular arrthymia
|
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what are the effects of cholinergic blocking agents on the respiratory system?
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bronchodilation, reduction of secretion. Scopolamine also causes amnesia. Glycopyrrolate is useful to reduce secretion in intubated patients.
|
|
What is the best cholinergic blocking agent to use for asthma?
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ipratopium- decreased systemic effects when compared with atropine.
|
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what effects do cholingeric blocking agents have on the GI tract?
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slows motility, decreases salivation. used for diarrhea, irratable bowel, spasms
|
|
which cholinergic blocking agent is typically used for stomach spasm and pain?
|
propantheline, oxybutnin.
|
|
what cholinergic blocking agent is typically used for smooth muscle relaxation?
|
oxybutnin
|
|
what effect do cholinergic blocking agents have on the genitourinacry tract?
|
slows it down. good to treat urinary frequency, urgency, incontinence
|
|
which cholinergic blocking agents are best to treat overactive bladder
|
oxybutnin, and tolterodine (the latter has less adverse affects, and a longer DOA), and solifnacin, and Darifenacin (the last two have the greatest affinity for muscarinic receptors.
|
|
What effect does cholinergic blocking agents have on the sweat glands?
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suppression.
|
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what is used for cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning?
|
cholinergic blocking agents (atropine, need multiple doses becuase DOA is shorter than the poison's) 2-PAM and DAM regenerate active enzyme from the organophosphate cholinesterase complex.
|
|
What are the adverse effects of too much cholinergic blocking agent?
|
tachycardia, fever, delirium.
|
|
Under what conditions should you not use Cholinergic blocking agents?
|
glaucoma, ulcers, prostatic hyperplasia, urinary retention.
|
|
what is the difference between direct and indirecr acting adrenergic drugs?
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indirect depend on the release of endogenous catecholamines.
|
|
which drugs displace the stored catacholamines from the adrenergic nerve endings?
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amphetamines
|
|
which adrenergic drugs inhibit catacholamine reuptake?
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cocaine and tricyclic antidepressents
|
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which adrenergic drug is most selective for Alpha receptors? For Beta receptors?
Which does both? |
Alpha- Epinephrine
Beta- Ioproterenol Both- Norepinephrine |
|
which drugs are adrenergic alpha blockers?
|
phentolamine and phenoxybenzamine
|
|
what are the 2 types of adrenergic beta receptors?
|
beta 1- in heart. (equal affinity)
beta 2- in lungs. (higer affinity for EPI) |
|
What is receptor sequestration?
|
receptors made temporarily unavailable for activation by agonists
|
|
what is down-regulation?
|
disappearance of the receptors from the cell.
|
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what is the major mechanism of desensitization?
|
phosphorylationof the receptor
|
|
what is homologous desensitization?
|
loss of receptors sensitivity exposed to a drug
|
|
what is heteroologous desensiitization?
|
loss of some cell surface receptor sensitivity that have not been activated by the drug.
|
|
What does epinephrine do?
|
acts on both alpha and beta receptors. Relaxes bronchospasms, reduces congestion and edema.
|
|
which drug is the best to use with anaphylaxis?
|
epinephrine
|
|
what are the side effects of using epinephrine?
|
tachycardia, hypertension, increased myocardial 02 demand, anxiety, decreased renal and splanchnic flow
|
|
what does norepinephrine do?
|
stimulant for alpha and beta in the heart, but not in the bronchi or peripheral system. Used in shock.
|
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what are the adverse effects of norepinephrine?
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arrythmias, palpitation, bradycardia, hypertension, chest pain, head ache
|
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What doe isoproterenol do?
|
synthetic, acts on beta receptors. used to treat bronchospasm, shock, cardiac arrest
|
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what are the adverse effects for isoproterenol?
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premature ventricular contractions, hypotension, chest pain,
|
|
what does dopamine do?
|
precursor to NE. both beta and alpha receptors. indirect effect of releasing norepinephirine from storage sites.
|
|
how does the dose of dopamine effect the outcome?
|
low dose- D1 receptor, increases urine output.
med dose- B receptors cardiac stimulation high dose- alpha receptors vasoconstriction |
|
what are the adverse effects of dopamine?
|
tachycardia, vasoconstriction, hypertension, ventricular arrythmias, nausea and vomiting
|
|
What does Dobutamine do?
|
B1 receptor. caridac stimulation increases introphy and cardiac output. Has less arrythmia issues than all the others
|
|
what does phenylephrine do?
|
pure alpha agonist. decongestant for the eyes.
|
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What does Ephedrine do?
|
releases the stores of catecholamines. nonselective. Nasal decongestant. Ma Huang and herbal teas have it.
|
|
what does pseudoephedrine do?
|
ephedrine enantiomer. OTC decongestant
|
|
What are the topical decongestants?
|
Xylometazoline and Oxymetazoline, may cause hypotension
|
|
What are the three characteristics of ADD and ADHD?
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impulsiveness, heightened distractability, short attention span
|
|
what are the goals of ADHD medications?
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improve core symtoms, associated symptoms, functional outcomes, allow the child to exert control instead of have the drug control the child
|
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what do stimulant medications do in regards to ADHD?
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dopamine and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. (MOA)
|
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what is Methylphenidate
|
patch worn up to 9 hours a day. Has many adverse effects
|
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What is Amphetamines?
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Adderall- mix of dextroammphetamie and lisdexamphetamine. Lasts up to 12 hours. CNS stimulation can lead to abuse. Was a study aid.
|
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Which stimulant medication is used to treat narcolepsy?
|
modafinil
|
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what are SSRI's?
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selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
|
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what are the two functions of writing prescriptions?
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1- tells pharmasist specific drug, dosage, concentration, and amount issued
2- directions to patient |
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why prescribe generics?
|
flexibility for the pharmasist and savings for the patient
|
|
are generics and brand names always of equal satisfaction?
|
no
|
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how many grams in an ounce? how many ml in an ounce?
|
30 gms, 30 mls
|
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how many ml in a pint?
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500 ml
|
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how many ml in a teaspoon and a table sppon
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5/15ml
|
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what are legend drugs?
|
require a prescription
|
|
1906?
|
interstate regulation
|
|
1914?
|
Narcotic drug federal regulation
|
|
1938?
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interstate regulation of drugs that haven't been proven safe
|
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1952
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prescriptions introduced
Federal warning introduced |
|
1962
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drug must demonstrate effectiveness and ingredients
|
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1965
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accounting of abuseful drugs. Refill limitations
|
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1970
|
controlled substances divided into 5 classes
|
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1983
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orphan drugs
|
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what is the law for a controlled drug?
|
DEA # required.
I -not prescribed. II -IV -require prescription III-IV can be telephoned and can have up to 5 refills II must be written and signed in ink. |
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What are Schedule I drugs?
|
drugs w/ high potential for abuse with no accepted medical use.
|
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Schedule II?
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high potential for abuse with accepted medical use
|
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Schedule III?
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lower abuse potential
|
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Schedule IV?
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lower abuse rate than III
|
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Schedule V?
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exempt narcotics, very low
|
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BID?
GM? QD? QID? Q4h? STAT? TID? |
twice a day
gram as required 4 times a day every 4 hours immediately 3 times a day |
|
What does the IRB do?
|
requires federal funds, reviews studies, protects the rights of those involved in trials
|
|
What is informed consent?
|
study subjects have the right to know what will happen to them if they participate
|
|
what are the phases of clinical investigation?
|
I - establish safety
II - establish efficacy and dose III - verify efficacy and detect adverse effects IV- obtain additional data following approval |
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Phase I?
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dose level where toxicity first appears.
|
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Phase II?
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find optimal dose range, patients in test should have no medical problems other than the condition for which the new drug is being administered
|
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phase III?
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detect adverse effects, over 2 million serious adverse effect reactions a year. 100,000 deaths a year many adverse effects are not discovered until after phase 3
|
|
What does parenteral mean?
|
injection - given to uncooperative , good for poorly absorbed
painful |
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what is the difference between solutions, suspensions, emulsions, and dry powders?
|
suspensions - decreased water solubility
emulsions- water insoluble dry powders- drugs unstable for long periods |
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Bioavailability?
|
fraction of unchanged drug reaching the systemic circulation following administration by any route
|
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pharmicodynamics?
|
what the drug does to the body.
|
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what do drugs do?
|
enhance, discontinue or regulate something the body already does
|
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what is the pH of most drugs?
|
weak acids and bases.
|
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What is the difference between hormones and xenobiotics?
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xenobiotics are synthesized outside of the body
|
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what is the difference between a toxin and a poison?
|
toxins are organics or biological only. Poisons can be synthetic. Both are of no benefit to the body.
|
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do all drugs produce their effect by an interaction with a receptor?>
|
no
|
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what determines the concentration of drug required for drug action?
|
number of receptors available and affinity for binding
|
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what is more important? specific nature of a particular drug receptor bond, or drugs with low affinity to their receptors are more selective than drugs that have a high affinity?
|
the latter
|
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what are enantiomers?
|
asymetric centers with same chemical makeup
|
|
What is structure activity relationships? (SAR)
|
activity is related to chemical structure and affinity for receptors
|
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what is an agonist?
|
drugs that have a direct stimulatory effect on a receptor.
|
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what is the difference between a full agonist and a partial agonist?
|
full- envokes the max response
partial- doesn't elicit full response, even when occupying all the receptors. |
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what is an antagonist
|
agents that interfere with the activities of an agonist
|
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what effect does an antagoinst binding to a receptor site have?
|
none, remains inactive
|
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What is the difference between competitive and noncompetitive antagoinsts?
|
competitive- is reversible, can be overcome by increasing the concentration of the agonist
noncompetitive- irreversible, increase in agonist concentration will have no effect on the receptors. |
|
what are chemical antagonists?
|
drugs that antagonize by binding to and inactivating the agonist
|
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what are the 2 main functions of a receptor-substrate interaction?
|
direct cemical effect on the receptor
involvement of a second messenger |
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what is the dose-response relationship curve?
|
relationship where the maximum effect is reached at a dose, or percentage of receptors occupied, lower than what would be expected on a linear graph.
|
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what is a quantal dose/effect?
|
the effect will be either/or. It will either have the desired effect, or it won't.
|
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what is the ED50 and the LD50 mean?
|
ED50- median effective dose, 50% of subjects demonstrate quantal effect
LD50- median lethal dose, 50% die |
|
what is the therapeutic index?
|
range between the ED50 and LD50 (before the LD50)
|
|
what is a graded response?
|
small response to a low dose of drug, and the response increases as the dose increases. It is directly related to the number of receptors with which the drugs effectively interact
|
|
how can the efficacy of the drug be determined?
|
it is seen where the drug plateaus on the dose/response curve.
|
|
how can you determine the potency of a drug?
|
the concentration at which the drug produces 50% of the maximal effect.
|
|
Can a drug be more potent and less efficient than another?
|
yes, it can reach 1/2 maximum effect at a lower dose, but not reach the same efficacy level as the other drug
|
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does greater potency or greater efficacy determine superiority?
|
no, each patient and circumstance is different.
|
|
what are spare receptors?
|
receptors still unfilled once the maximal effect has been reached by the drug.
|
|
what do spare recpetors do?
|
increase the sensitivityto drugs since lower concentrations of antagonist can be blocking receptors and drug responses can still occur.
|
|
what is pharmicokinetics?
|
absorption, distribuition, metabolism, and excretion of the drug. Compares these to the therapeutic effects of the drug.
|
|
how does drug concentration effect absorption?
|
rate of diffusion is directly proportional to the concentration.
|
|
how does the physical state of the drug effect absorption?
|
the hardness and the interactions among various ingredients plays a role.
|
|
how does the surface area effect absorption?
|
smaller surface area = slower absorption
|
|
how does vascularity and blood flow effect absorption?
|
more rapid from tissues that are more vascular and inflamed.
|
|
where are most drugs absorbed?
|
small intestine
|
|
what is drug distribution?
|
the partitioning of a drug among the numerous locations where a drug may be found in the body.
|
|
what kind of drug would be found in the total body water?
|
small hydrophilic compounds
|
|
what kind of drug would be found only in the extracellular water?
|
large hydrophilic compounds
|
|
what kind of drug would be found in blood plasma?
|
strongly plasma bound and charged compounds
|
|
why is the blood brain barrier important to consider before administering a drug?
|
it allow diffusion certain chemical to pass along into the CNS. Lipid soluble
|
|
what is the only route of administration that does not require the drug to transport from the sight of administration to the the area desired?
|
intravenously
|
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how can drug binding to protein effect the drug distribution?
|
only the free drug that is not bound th protein is available to exert it's biological effect. If a competitor dislodges the drug from the protein, icreased effect or even toxicity results.
|
|
how are drugs effected by metabolism?
|
most drugs are acted on by metabolisms and turned into metabolites, which can be excreted ot turn into toxic products.
|
|
what are active metabolites?
|
metabolites that still have therapeutic effects
|
|
what are prodrugs?
|
drugs that have no therapeutic benefit until it has indergone metabolism first.
|
|
what is first pass metabolism?
|
after absorption, portal vein delivers drug to liver before body. Significant metabolism can take place there first.
|
|
when discussing drug metabolism, what are phase 1 reactions?
|
drug is made into a more polar metabolite by either masking or unmasking a functional group.
|
|
when discussing drug metabolism, what is enzyme induction?
|
acceleration of the metabolism leads to a decrease in drug therapeutic action.
|
|
in discussing drug metabolism, what is enzyme inhibition?
|
inhibition of the drug metabolism leads to an increase in drug therapeutic effect, increasing the half life.
|
|
when discussing drug metabolism, what are phase 2 reactions?
|
conjugating the drug or metabolite with an endogenous compound more water soluble to be eliminated by the kidney.
|
|
what are the three processes that lead to kidney excretion of drugs?
|
glomerular filtration rate, tubular secretion, and reabsorption.
|
|
What is Therapeutic Drug Monitoring? (TDM)
|
safe and effective therapeutic management of drugs in an individual patient
It is used to improve efficacy and decrease toxicity. |
|
what can be extrapolated about drug concetrations in blood plasma?
|
whatever trends are seen in the blood plasma, should be similar in the target tissues as well.
|
|
what is the therapeutic range?
|
aid to individualize medications, it is derived from population kinetics, and it provides a guideline for safe and effective medeication use.
|
|
are the boundry concentrations of therapeutic ranges the sane for everyone?
|
no
|
|
what factors can cause variability in serum concentration?
|
difference in absorption, metabolize, and eliminate ability
disease age drug interactions |
|
what is compartmental monitoring?
|
estimates an actual physiologic circumstance.
=dose/Vd (amount/volume it is found) |
|
what is the difference between one and two compartment modeling?
|
one- organs and tissues are grouped into one. Instant distribution is assumed, and elimination does not affect concentration.
second- closer to reality becuase it accounts for quick distribution to the plasma, and slow distribution to the tissues. |
|
what is volume of dsitribution?
|
the extent into which the drug is distributed. THE Vd DOES NOT CHANGE WITH DOSE.
|
|
what is clearance?
|
removal of drug from plasma, and removal from the body. Doesn't say how much, just how fast.
|
|
what is the difference between first order and Zero order elimination?
|
1st- fraction remains constant. Amount changes.most drugs exhibit 1st order.
0- amount does not change. Fraction does. |
|
What is the elimination rate constant?
|
calculated form the first order elimination. amount of drug removed from the body over a given period of time.
|
|
what is half-life?
|
time it takes for drug concentrationin the measured compartment to be reduced by half.
|
|
What is steady state?
|
when the amount eliminated is equal to the amount taken in. concentration of peak times are consistent. Concentrations of trough times are consistent.
= 5 half lives |
|
What is a loading dose?
|
amount of drug required for a patient to achieve therapeutic concentration of the drug. It does not reach the steady state faster, but reaches the range fater.
|
|
what is pharmacotherapeutics?
|
use of drugs in the diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of a disease.
|
|
what are empircal results?
|
results that may occur because the prescribed drug covers a vat range of symptoms beyond the just the one that you are trying to alleve.
|
|
How is the optimal dose determined?
|
diagnosis, severity, stage of disease, concurrent disease and drug therapy.
|
|
what are the steps of rational prescribing?
|
1- make diagnosis
2- consider pathophysiology of diagnosis 3- select therapeutic objective 4- select drug 5- determin dose 6- plan for observation 7-plan for patient instruction |
|
what is pharmacogenetics?
|
different drug responses due to heredity
|
|
what is genetic polymorphism?
|
variation in structure of a gene or an allele
|
|
what are the important genetic factors to consider?
|
1- metabolism rates among different ethnic groups
2- cellular resistence 3- alteration of protein synthesis (in microorganisms and cell lines) 4- transfer of genes that encode a resistence to the drug (in microorganisms and cell lines) 5- excess gene amplification that leads to excess enzyme production that inactivates drugs |
|
how is the weight of the patient used to calculate dose?
|
get actual weight for obese to use for their loading dose, then use the ideal body weight for their maintenence dose.
Use actual for normal and underweight patients. |
|
what type of drugs do most pregnant women on medication take?
|
nonprescription
|
|
what is teratogenesis?
|
malfunction of fetal organs either structurally or functionally
|
|
do most drugs cross the placenta into the baby?
|
yes
|
|
when is the greatest teratogenic susceptability for the fetus?
|
1st trimester
|
|
what kind of drugs pass into the fetus most easily and how do they do it?
|
lipid soluble drugs- passive diffusion, facilitated transport, and active transport.
|
|
what are the FDA pregnancy safety categories?
|
A- sufficent studies with no adverse effects
B- adverse in animals, but not in humans, or no animal risks and not many human studies C- adverse effects, not many human studies, benefits outweigh the risk D- eveidence of fetal risk, but effect still outweighs the risk X- Risk outweighs the benefit |
|
where do most drugs taken during pregnancy fall into?
|
B and C
|
|
How are drugs passed on to the infant in breatfeeding from the mother?
|
bidirectional diffusion. Milk proteins can bind to drug, but bind less well than the proteins in plasma. Emulsified fat in milk can cause drug concentrating
|
|
what is the milk/plasma ratio?
|
drug in milk/drug in plasma. are directly porportional. The lower (0.1) the better.
|
|
what is the relative infant dose and absolute infant dose
|
absolute- drug concentration in milk X volume of milk per day
relative- infant exposure due to maternal dose. absolute dose/maternal dose X 100 |
|
what are the methods to minimize drug exposure to infants because of maternal dose?
|
1- withhold or delay feeding
2- change drug route for mother 3- monitor infant adverse effects |
|
are adults or children at a greater risk for medication errors?
|
children
|
|
how is the body composition different in babies compared to adults
|
more water(Vd) and less fat(Vd) than adults
|
|
what are the primary organs for metabolism?
|
LIVER, kidneys, intestine, lugs, skin
|
|
what are the two categories of metabolic processes seen in children?
|
phase I- decreased P450 enzyme activity in neonates, reaches normal levels around 6 months
phase II- conjugation of drug with endogenous protein to be excreted. |
|
what are the types of conjugation reactions seen in infants?
|
sulfation- around week
acetylation- around a month glucaron- around 2 months AA conjugation- around 3 months |
|
how is elimination rate effects in children?
|
lower glomerular filtration rate b/c of fewer nephrons, or fewer functional nephrons.
Tubular function is decreased b/c of secretion and reabsorption low levels |
|
what are some good ways to mask medicines?
|
chill, popsicle, cold liquid, hold nose, mix with something else
|
|
how does absorption change in elderly patients?
|
decreased saliva, teeth, active transport, stomach acid production, GI blood flow, esophogus action.
increased gastric pH, ulcers, diverticulum in colon |
|
how is body composition different in elderly patients?
|
increased fat, decreased water and plasma. Decreased albumin, increasing free fraction of drugs.
|
|
how is metabolism different for elderly patients?
|
decreased liver size, decreased first pass metabolism. Phase I has most change
|
|
How is excretion different for elderly patients?
|
less glomeruli, less GFR, less renal blood flow
|
|
what is physiologic reserve in elderly pateints?
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functional reserve capacity and the ability to maintain homeostasis
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what is the functional reserve capacity in elderly?
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ability to perform activities under abnormal sistuations
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what is homeostasis in the elderly?
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ability to maintain a constant enviroment while adjusting to change.
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what patients get the majority of prescriptions in the US?
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elderly (50%)
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what is polypharmacy?
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use of several medications by one patient
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what are 8 risky drugs to use with the elderly and why?
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1- amitriptyline and doxepin- used for neuropathic pain- it dires them out
2- Diazepam and chlordiazepoxide- long half lives, cause sedation hangover anf can injure them selves 3- propoxyphene- causes CNS disfunction due to a toxic metabolite 4- Dipyridamole- used to decrease platelet aggregation, causes standing hypotension 5- Meperidine- creates a toxic metabolite 6- cyclobenzaprine and carisoprodol- has poor efficacy, is a skeletal muscle relaxant 7- COX2 inhibitors- GI ulcers 8- Fluoxetine- long half life |
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what should be done to patients with lver disease that have a prescription for a drug that is either highly or intermediately extracted?
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reduced because the liver diseae will porlong the half life otherwise.
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what is azotemia?
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elevated blood urine nitrogen (BUN) and creatine in urine (can cause vomiting)
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what is uremia?
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metabolic abnormalities and symptoms resulting from the accumulation of uremic toxins
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what is creatinine clearance?
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men= (140-age)(weight)/(72 x serum creatinine)
women= men x .85 |
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how does the loading dose change in patients with organ dysfunction?
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stays the same. The subsequent doses change to account for the degree of organ dysfunction. You can change either the dose or the interval
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what is hyporeactivity and hypereactivity?
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hypo- needs bigger dose
hyper- needs smaller dose |
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what is idiosyncracy?
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unpredicted reaction indepeendent of dose, not an allergic reaction
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What is tachyphylaxis?
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tolerance that quickly develops over only a few doses
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what are 4 types of noncompliance?
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failure to obtain or access medicine
2- failure to take as prescribed 3- failure to start and stop as directed 4- medication sharing |