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279 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Asphyxiants gas is a nontoxic or minimally toxic gas which dilutes or displaces ____ containing atmosphere leading to death by asphyxiation if breathed long enough
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oxygen
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What are physical gases that are asphyxiants?
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N2, CO2
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What are chemical gases that are asphyxiants?
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CN, CO
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Carbon monoxide binds ___ with 100X more affinity than O2
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Hb
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Methylene dichloride can be converted to CO in liver --> expose risk for _____
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paint strippers
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With is the treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning?
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100% oxygen, shortens half life of carboxyhemoglobin
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Cyanide binds to Fe3+ of complex ____ of the ETC, ETC can't deliver e- to O2, ATP can't be synthesized, decreased cellular respiration --> cytotoxic hypoxia
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Complex IV
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What is the antidote for CN poisoining?
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NO2 inhalation or injection with thiosulfate
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HbFe2+ + NO2 generates HbFe3+ or methemoglobin, which has greater affinity for ____ than complex IV
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CN
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____ converts the CN- on Meth-Hb to thiocyanate which can be excreted
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Thiosulfate
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This air pollutant which comes from burning coal and causes acid rain can cause immediate irritation and bronchioconstriction and later can lead to pulmonary edema
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sulfur dioxide
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This air pollutant is formed by electric discharge and is a component of our atmosphere. There is often no immediate irritation and delayed pathology
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ozone O3
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This air pollutant is found in silage. It is an occupational hazard for farmers and causes delayed lung pathology
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Nitrogen dioxide
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Benzene/Toulene/Xylene are what type of solvents?
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aromatic solvents
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CNS depression such as nausea, vertigo, locomotor disturbances, headache and coma can be caused by what class of solvents that also have additional affects on liver and bone marrow?
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aromatic hydrocarbons such as benzene/toluene/xylene
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____ is BM suppressant --> aplastic anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia
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Benzene
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Which aromatic hydrocarbon does not display systemic toxicity because the methyl group makes for less P450 affinity
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Toulene
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Metabolism of benzene/toluene/xylene is dependent on cytochrome P450 (Phase ___). ____ undergoes epoxidation and becomes mutagenic
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I, benzene
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This substance is metabolized to formaldehyde, then formic acid (using alcohol dehydrogenase). It causes renal toxicity and severe systemic acidosis
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methanol
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What is the antidote for methanol poisoning?
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ethanol - competes for metabolic enzymes such as alcohol dehydrogenase complex
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Gasoline, kerosene, white gas, mineral spirits are ____ hydrocarbons
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aliphatic
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Organic solvent cause direct damage to ____ and conduction defect in ____
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lungs, heart
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Are aliphatic hydrocarbons such as gasoline, kerosene, white gas, mineral spirits CNS depressants?
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Yes
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Ethylene glycol is better known as _____
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antifreeze
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This compound is metabolized to oxalic acid which leads to acidosis and kidney damage (oxalate crystals)
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ethylene glycol
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Methylene chloride is metabolized to ____ via P450
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CO
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Chloroform can cause what pathology?
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Pneumonitis
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Halothane can generate free radical that form and bind to proteins; form a hapten. This can lead to halothane _____
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hepatitis
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CNS depression, cardiac sensitization, nephro/hepato/genotoxicity are clinical toxicities of what class of solvents?
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halogenated hydrocarbons
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Organic solvents have a ___ effect on CNS
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depressive
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Inhalation of organic solvents can cause what symptoms?
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ataxia, disorientation, coma, death
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What do aliphatic hydrocarbons such as gasoline, kerosene, white gas, and mineral spirits do to cell membranes?
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disorganize membranes (membrane fluidization) --> harder to propagate an action potential
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Fibrillation, arrhythmias can be caused by aliphatic hydrocarbons. True or False?
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True
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Swallowing small amounts of aliphatic hydrocarbons can be fatal due to aspiration into lungs and no ___ reflex
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gag, partially desensitizes throat/esophagus
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Isopropanol or rubbing alcohol causes CNS depressant effects. It is metabolized to _____. How do you treat isopropanol poisoning?
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acetone, treat with emesis, gastric lavage, or ethanol
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Acetone is an ___ irritant due to its vapors and is also CNS depressant
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eye
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Formaldehyde is an upper respiratory tract irritant but if you breath enough it can cause _____ & _____
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bronchospasm and pulmonary edema
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How do you treat detergent toxicity?
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induce vomiting or dilute contents
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Bleach is a strong oxidizing agent. It is corrosive to the _____. How do you treat bleach ingestion?
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esophagus, cant treat with emesis, treat by dilution of contents
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NaOH is corrosive. Leads to saponification and liquidfies the membrane which increases penetrance of agent, causing extensive tissue damage. True or False?
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True
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HCl (muriatic acid) is corrosive to tissue via _____. How do you treat?
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protein coagulation, treat via dilution or gastric lavage
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For pesticides the no effect level in animals is used to determine residue tolerance limits. True or False?
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True
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Parathion and Malathion are what class of insecticides?
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organophosphates
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What is the mechanism of action for parathion and malathion?
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inhibits acetylcholinesterase via phosphorylation of enzyme active site, leads to accumulation of Ach at NMJ junction and synapses, leads to paralysis
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Coma, resp. depression, seizures, blurred vision, sweating, salivation, muscle twitching, weakness, flaccid paralysis can result from poisoning with what compounds?
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organophosphates
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This insecticide can cause distal sensorimotor axopathy (degeneration of distal axons)
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Organophosphate induced delayed polyneuropathy
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What is the antidote for organophosphate poisoning?
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pralidoxime
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This class of insectisides interfere with inactivation of the Na+ channel in excitable membranes, inhibits repolarization, causes rapid firing in most neurons, convulsions, tremors
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Chlorinated hydrocarbons (DDT, lindane)
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Effects of too much exposure to this insecticide leads to dizziness, fatigue, malaise, headache, neurologic stimulation with hyperexcitability, irritability and delirium
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chlorinated hydrocarbons (DDT, lindane)
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What is the mechanism of action of carbamates?
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inhibit AChE by carbamoylation of active site
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What is used as an antidote for carbamate poisoning?
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pralidoxime not effective because they dephosphorylate; oximes used to treat (decarbamylate)
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Do organophosphates or carbamates penetrate the CNS most effectively?
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carbamates
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This household insecticide binds complex I of electron transport train and inhibits ATP synthesis
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Rotenone
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Rotenone poisoning has what effects?
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GI irritation, conjunctivitis, rhinitis
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The mechanism of action of this pesticide is it targets voltage gated Na+, Ca 2+, and Cl- & benzodiazepine receptors are considered targets
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Pyrethrum
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What are the effects of Pyrethrum?
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excitation, convulsions, tetanic paralysis
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What is used to treat pyrethrum poisoning?
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Ivermectin (Cl- agonist) and pentobarbital
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What is the mechanism of action of paraquat, a herbicide?
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formation of free radical, lead to lipid peroxidation and eventual fibrosis/edema of the lung
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How do you treat paraquat poisoning?
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gastric lavage, mineral adsorbents, hemoperfusion, DON't use hyperbaric oxygen as that will just generate more free radicals
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What is the mechanism of action of chlorophenoxy herbicides?
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2,4 Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid interferes with lipid metabolism enhancing lipid utilization in liver and decreases the production of cholesterol
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What are the effects of chlorophenoxy compounds?
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carcinogenic, teratogenic, decreased fertility
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This heavy metal is used in the electronics and plastics industries. There is exposure for seed fungicide treatment, dentistry, wood preservations, herbicides and insecticides, thermometers, and batteries
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mercury (Hg)
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Minamata disease, a severe neurological syndrome causes ataxia, numbness in hands and feet, general muscle weakness, and damage to hearing and speech. It was due to heavy metal poisoning from what compound?
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mercury
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Organic mercury has ___ involvement, whereas inorganic salts cause degradation of ____
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CNS, mucosa
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Toxicity of this heavy metal can lead to necrosis of proximal tubular epithelium. Chronic exposure to this compound can leads to CNS symptoms + gingivitis, tachycardia, goiter
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mercury, Hg
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How do you treat mercury poisoning?
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Penicillamine (a chelator) or dimercaprol
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Risk factors for poisoning with what compound is pollution for airline industry, pottery, school children clay projects, gasoline tank cleaning, contamination of drinking water from old pipes?
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lead (Pb)
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Alkyl-Pb is lipid soluable and can be absorbed through ___
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skin
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Increased phosphate means lead is stored where?
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bone
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Increased vitamin D, decreased phosphate, or increased Ca means lead is stored where?
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in soft tissue
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What is the half life of Pb in bone?
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20-30 years
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What heavy metal inhibits heme biosynthesis? Binds delta-ALA synthase and delta-ALA dehydratase, leading to increase of delta-aminoleuvilinate in plasma and urine or this metal can bind to ferrochelatase increasing protoporphyrin IX in plasma and urine
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lead
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Abdominal pain, encephalopathy, erythrocyte basophilic stippling, wrist drop, hemoglobinuria, and oligouria leading to hypovolemic shock are signs and symptoms of what heavy metal toxicity?
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lead
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EDTA, Dimercaprol/BAL, Succimer and penicillamine can be used as antidote against what heavy metal poisoining?
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lead
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Exposure to well water, food, fumes and dust from smelting can lead to poisoning from what heavy metal?
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arsenic
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In what places does arsenic concentrate?
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skin, hair, nails
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This heavy metal can inhibit anaerobic and oxidative phosphorylation by displacing inorganic phosphate in the synthesis of high energy phosphates. As a gas it can mediate massive intravascular hemolysis, leading to oliguric renal failure
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arsenic
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Rice water diarrhea, melanosis, arrhythmias, liver angiosarcoma, and skin and lung cancer can be caused by toxicity with what heavy metal?
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arsenic
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How do you treat arsenic poisoning?
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With penicillamine
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Environmental exposure/risks for exposure to this heavy metal include pigments, polishes, antique toys, electroplating, galvanization, plastics, batteries, industrial metal fumes, tobacco
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cadmium
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This metal inhibits a1-antitrypsin and eventually leads to emphysema
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cadmium
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This metal causes proximal tubular injury in kidney leading to proteinuria and B2 macroglobulin
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cadmium
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Chest pain, vomiting, diarrhea, pulmonary edema, nephrotoxicity, and emphysema are all signs/symptoms of what heavy metal toxicity?
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cadmium
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What is the treatment for cadmium toxicity?
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EDTA
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This heavy metal is stored in hepatocytes and reticuloendothelial cells
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iron
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How do you treat iron toxicity?
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chelation by deferoxamine
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How is EDTA administered?
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given IV
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Dimercaprol is administered IM in peanut oil. What metals does it guard against poisoning from?
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As, Hg, Pb
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Renal tubular destruction due to release of metal and thrombophlebitis in cases of overly rapid infusion are toxicities of what chelator?
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EDTA
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Convulsion in high doses, increased BP from tachycardia and constriction of peripheral arterioles, and renal toxicity can result from treatment with what agent?
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dimercaprol
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This drug used to treat iron overload can cause skin rash, histamine release with decreased BP, shock and cataracts
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deferoxamine
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Penicillamine, N-acetylpenicillamine is used for what poisoning?
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Pb, Hg, As
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What drug is used to treat Wilson's disease?
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Penicillamine, can also use trientine but is teratogenic in long term use
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Patients on penicilliamine must be supplement with what B vitamin?
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B6, pyridoxine
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Fever, skin rash, leucopenia, nausea and vomiting and anaphylaxis due to allergy can be toxicities of this drug
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penicillamine
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Dimercaptosuccinate is given how? and is used to treat what poisoning?
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given PO, treats As, Pb, Hg poisoning by reversing the inactivation of sulfhydryl containing compounds
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What is the toxicity of dimercaptosuccinate?
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GI disturbance
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This drug is used for diagnostic evaluation of pituitary function and growth failure
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sermorelin (GHRH_
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This drug is used in deficiency, growth failure in children, Turner's syndrome
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Somatropin
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This drug is used to mediate the effects of GH but is used when there is a defective GH receptor
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somatomedin (IGF-1)
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This drug is used to treat acromegaly, carcinoid, gastrinoma, and glucagonoma
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Octreotide (analog of somatostatin)
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What are some side effects of octreotide?
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abdominal pain, flatulence, STEATORRHEA, sludge gallstones
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Dopamine suppresses the release of this hormone
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prolactin
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Indications for this drug, a dopamine agonist, include hyperprolactinemia and Parkinson Disease
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Bromocriptine
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What are some side effects of bromocriptine
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nausea, headache, psychiatric problems
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This drug is an analog of ACTh and is used to diagnose adrenal insufficiency
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Cosyntropin
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Gonadorelin does what?
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causes release of LH and FSH
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This drug is indicated for prostate cancer, endometriosis, and precocious puberty and is a GnRH agonist that suppresses release of LH and FSH
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leuprolide
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One needs to use the androgen receptor blocker ____ with the use of leuprolide
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flutamide
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bone pain, hot flushes, edema, gynecomastia, decreased libido and depression are side effects of this drug used to treat prostate cancer
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leuprolide
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This drug is used to inhibit premature LH surges in women for infertility reproduction
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ganirelix
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This drug is a GnRH antagonist that inhibits FSH and LH release
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Ganirelix
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This is used to treat Diabetes insipidus and in the kidney it binds to V receptor to increase water permeability and reabsorption in collecting tubules. In the vascular smooth muscle binds to V1 to cause constriction
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vasopressin
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This drug is used to treat DI but is specific for V2 receptor in kidney
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desmopressin
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This drug is used to induce labor
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oxytocin
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This pro-fertility agent acts like LH, stimulates ovarian progesterone production and testicular androgen production
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hCG
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Are FSH/LH and GnRH pro-fertility agents?
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Yes
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This drug is a fertility drug that blocks negative feedback of estrogen on hypothalamus and anterior pituitary, causes preovulatory gonadtropin surge.
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clomiphene
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Dinoprost, Ergonovine, Mifespristone and Oxytocin are part of what class of drugs?
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Oxytocics --> induce labor or abortifactant
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Tocolytics are a class of drugs that do what?
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prevent uterine contraction/premature birth
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This tocolytic is an NSAID that is also used to close patent ductus arteriosus
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Indomethacin
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This is a tocolytic that is a beta2 agonist that relaxes uterine contractions
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ritodrine
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Terbutaline is a ___ agonist
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beta2
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SEs of this class of drugs include glucose intolerance, HTN, glaucoma, osteoporosis, axis suppression, skin atrophy, fat redistribution, acne, and weight gain
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glucocorticoids
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What are the two long acting glucocorticoids that have so salt retaining effects?
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Betamethasone and dexamethasone
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What drug has the side effect of hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, cushings syndrome, insomnia and anxiety?
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fludrocortisone and desoxycorticosterone (for dogs)
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Thyroxine and levothyroxine are synthetic analogs of T3 or T4?
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T4
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Liothyronine is a synthetic analog of T3 or T4
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T3
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Liotrix has what ratio of T4 to T3?
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4:1
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Agranulocytosis, rash and edema are side effects of drugs such as propylthiouracil or methimazole, _____ agents
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antithyroid
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Is methimazole or PTU the first line antithyroid drug?
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methimazole
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Along with inhibiting the iodination of tyrosy groups and coupling, ___ also blocks the conversion of T4 to T3, and has liver toxicity
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PTU
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This class of drugs decreases bone resorption by decreasing the activation of osteoclast and apoptosis
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Bisphosphonates
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SE of this class of drugs includes abdominal pain, bone pain, ulcers and ESOPHAGITIS
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Biphosphonates
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Alendronate, Etidronate are what class of drugs?
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biphosphonates
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This drug reduces bone resorption but can causes rhinitis, sinusitis, and hypersensitivity
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calcitonin
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This drug stimulates intestinal calcium and phosphorus absorption, stimulates bone mineralization
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calcitriol
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Teriparatide or ____ hormone stimulates blastic activity over clastic activity. There is increased risk of osteosarcoma in animals
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parathyroid
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Indications for this hormone include to prevent pregnancy, HRT, and control menstrual cycle
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estrogen
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This class of drugs can cause increased risk of thromboembolism and breast and endometrial cancer
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estrogens
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Mestranol is what type of drug?
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estrogen
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Premarin and DES are what type of drugs?
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estrogens
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This class of drugs is used for treatment of breast cancer and prevention of breast cancer
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SERMS
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What are some side effects of SERMS?
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HOT FLASHES, MENSTRUAL IRREGULARITIES, vaginal bleeding
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This SERM increases the likelihood of endometrial cancer
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tamoxifen
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This SERM is an agonist on bone and is used to treat osteoporosis. It has little or no effect on the uterus but can lead to increased thromboosis and leg cramps
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raloxifene
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This class of drugs is used to prevent pregnancy and increases the vascularization of endometrium and can be used for treatment of endometrial cancer and abnormal uterine bleeding. Side effects include weight gain, changes in libido, acne, hirsuitism
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progestins
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Norethindrone is what class of drug?
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progestin
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Norgestrel is what class of drug?
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progestin
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Norethynodrel is what class of drugs?
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progestin
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Ethynodiol is what class of drugs?
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progestin
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This is a progesterone antagonist that interferes with the progesterone needed to maintain pregnancy. The side effect is uterine bleeding
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mifepristone
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This drug is used in the treatment and prevention of breast cancer and blocks the conversion of testosterone to estradiol
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anastrozole
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What are side effects of anastrozole?
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because it is an anti-estrogen it will cause osteoporosis, hot flashes, depression, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and fractures
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This drug inhibits CYP450 which is involved in steriod synthesis.
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Ketoconazole
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This drug blocks androgen and adrenal steroid synthesis therefore having the side effects of gynecomastia, decreased libido, impotence, and menstrual abnormalities. it is also hepatotoxic
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ketoconazole
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This drug is used for treatment of adrenal insufficiency. It blocks cortisol synthesis by inhibiting steroid 11 beta-hydroxylase
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metyrapone
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aspart, lispro and glulisine are rapid acting, intermediate, or long acting insulins?
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rapid acting
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detemir and glargine are rapid acting, intermediate, or long acting insulins?
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long acting
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Is NPH a rapid acting, intermediate, or long acting insulin?
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intermediate
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This drug is used in emergency hypoglycemia and induces liver glycogen breakdown and glucose release
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glucagon
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This class of drugs block ATP sensitive K+ channels, promoting insulin release from beta cells. Side effects include weight gain, allergy and hypoglycemia
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sulfonylureas
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Tolazomide is what class of drug?
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1st generation sulfonylurea
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Glipizide, glyburide and glimepiride are what class of drugs?
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2nd generation sulfonylureas
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Nateglinide and Repaglinide have what mechanism of action?
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block K+ efflux just like sulfonylureas, have no sulfur group so use in patients with allergy to sulfas
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Metformin or Glucophage inhibits gluconeogensis and improves peripheral uptake of glucose. What are its main side effects?
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lactic acidosis and GI disturbances
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What is the first line therapy in type 2 DM?
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metformin
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This class of drugs target the nuclear hormone receptor PPAR-Y, decreasing insulin resistance. Its side effects are osteopenia, increased risk of MI/CV risk, hepatotoxicity, and edema
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thiazolidinediones
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Pioglitazone and Rosiglitazone have what mechanism of action?
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target nuclear receptor PPARY
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This drug inhibits intestinal brush border a-glucosidases, leading to delayed sugar hydrolysis and glucose absorption. Main SE is GI disturbance
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Acarbose, also Miglitol
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This is a GLP-1 that mimics incretin in that it increases insulin release, slows gastric emptying time, decreases food intake, decreases glucagon secretion and promote beta proliferation. Its SE can include nausea, vomiting, and pancreatitis
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Exenatide
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What class of diabetes drugs is CI in heart failure?
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thiazolidinediones
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This drug irreversibly blocks the conversion of arachidonic acid to thromboxane A2, inhibiting platelet activation and aggregation
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aspirin
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Side effects of this drug can be increased bleeding, hemorrhagic stroke, stomach ulcers, and Reyes syndrome
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aspirin
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Diflunisal is an analog to what drug?
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aspirin
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Ibuprofen is what class of drug?
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non-selective COX inhibitor
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diclofenac is what class of drug
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non-selective COX inhibitor
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Naproxen is what class of drug?
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non-selective COX inhibitor
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Tolmetin is what class of drug?
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non-selective COX inhibitor
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Ketorlac is what class of drug
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non-selective COX inhibitor
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Phenylbutazone is what class of drug?
|
non-selective COX inhibitor
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This drug is an anti-pyretic and analgesic but it does not affect platelet function and has no anti-inflammatory effects. It is well tolerated though toxic doses can lead to hepatic and renal necrosis
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acetaminophen
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COX2 selective inhibitor are CI in what people?
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people with sulfa allergy
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Celecoxib and Rofecoxib are what type of drugs?
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COX2 inhibitors
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This drug is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase and is good for long term use against gout. Has potential rare side effect known as Stevens-Johnson syndrome
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allopurinol
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This antigout agent increases the effect of mercaptopurine, cyclophosphamide and azathioprine
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allopurinol
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This drug increases uric acid excretion by increasing uric acid secretion and decreasing reabsorption of uric acid
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probenecid
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This drug binds to tubulin, decreasing mobility of granulocytes, cell division, and release of leukotrienes
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colchicine
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This antigout drug blocks secretion of penicillin and other acidic drugs
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probenecid
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What drugs should be used to treat an acute attack of gout?
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NSAIDs
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Hdroxychloroquine is what type of drug?
|
DMARD
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Anakinra is what type of drug?
|
DMARD
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Etanercept is what type of drug?
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DMARD
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Infliximab is what type of drug?
|
DMARD
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This DMARD is taken up by macrophages and will suppress phagocytosis. Main SE is myelosuppression
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gold compounds
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This DMARD inhibits phospholipase A2 and platelet aggregation. Its main SE are ocular toxicity, GI upset, skin discoloration and CNS problems
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hydroxycloroquine
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This DMARD is a IL-1 receptor antagonist. Side effects include infection, HA, N/D, abdominal pain
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anakinra
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This drug causes remission in active rheumatoid arthritis and is also used in inflammatory bowel disease. It scavenges toxic oxygen metabolites produced by neutrophils
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sulfasalazine
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This drug is the 1st choice DMARD and is a folic acid antagonist with cytotoxic, immunosuppressive, and anti-rheumatoid activity
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methotrexate
|
|
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This drug forms a complex that inactivates calcineurin, inhibiting NFATc and cytokine (IL-2) release. Its side effects are nephrotoxic, hepatotoxicity, and hypertension
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cyclosporine
|
|
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This drug binds to the FK binding protein inhibiting calcineurin. It causes nephro and nero toxicity but no hirsutism or gum hyperplasia
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Tacrolimus
|
|
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This drug binds to mTOR inhibiting the cellular response to IL-2. Its side effects are hyperlipidemia, nephrotoxic, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and impaired wound healing
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Sirolimus
|
|
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This drug competitively inhibits dihydrofolate reductase and leads to blockage of tetrahydrofolate synthesis, depletion of nucleotide precursors. Side effects include leukopenia and thrombocytopenia, pulmonary pneumonitis, renal tubular necrosis
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methotrexate
|
|
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This drug is used after renal transplant and has a drug interaction with allopurinol
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azathioprine
|
|
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This drug targets the Fc region fused to CTLA-4. It inhibits CD28, thus preventing activation of T cells. Used in patients with moderate to severe RA who don't respond to other DMARDs
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abatacept
|
|
|
This drug is a chimeric monoclonal antibody against CD20
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Rituximab
|
|
|
These two drugs binds to and inhibits TNF-alpha
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Infliximab, etanercept
|
|
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This drug binds to IL-2 receptor interfering with proliferation
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daclizumab
|
|
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This drug is indicated in acute and severe rejection. It depletes T cells. Binding to CD3 results in disruption of T-lymphocyte function. Side effects include cytokine release syndrome
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muromonab
|
|
|
What is the main side effect of H1 receptor antagonists?
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drowsiness, but can also lead to dry mouth, difficulty urinating/defecating
|
|
|
H1 antihistamines block serotonin which will ___ appetite
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increase
|
|
|
Which drug blocks the cholinergic receptor in the parietal cell?
|
Dicyclomine
|
|
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This H2 receptor antagonist inhibits the P450 system and is an anti-androgen
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Cimetidine
|
|
|
What the major side effects of proton pump inhibitors?
|
nausea/diarrhea, bone fractures
|
|
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This drug is used in NSAID ulcer prevention and abortion. It is a prostaglandin E1 analog that inhibits secretion of HCl and stimulates secretion of mucus and bicarbonate. Side effects include nausea/diarrhea and uterine contractions
|
Misoprostol
|
|
|
This drug is used to treat ulcers. It forms a complex gel with epithelial cells creating a physical barrier that impairs HCl and degradation of mucus. Should not be used with acid reducing drugs
|
Sucralfate
|
|
|
What is chloropheneramine?
|
H1 receptor antagonist (1st gen)
|
|
|
What is diphenhydramine?
|
H1 receptor antagonist (1st gen)
|
|
|
What class of drug is terfenadine?
|
H1 receptor antagonist (2nd gen)
|
|
|
What class of drug is loratadine?
|
H1 receptor antagonist (2nd gen)
|
|
|
Blockage of H___ receptors can treat motion sickness
|
H1
|
|
|
Meclizine is what class of drug?
|
anti-emetic anti-histamine
|
|
|
Ipecac (emetine) is what type of drug?
|
pro-emetic
|
|
|
apomorphine is what type of drug?
|
pro-emetic
|
|
|
metocloproamide is what class of drug?
|
D2 dopamine antagonist (anti-emetic drug)
|
|
|
promethazine is what class of drug?
|
D2 dopamine antagonist (anti-emetic drug)
|
|
|
Ondanestron is what class of drug?
|
5HT3 antagonist
|
|
|
Scopolamine is what class of drug?
|
anti-cholinergic anti-emetic drug
|
|
|
Antacids can cause what side effect?
|
electrolyte toxicity in renal impaired
|
|
|
Bicarbonate is what class of drug?
|
antacid
|
|
|
The side effect of this antacid is burping and flatulence, systemic metabolic alkalosis
|
bicarbonate
|
|
|
Calcium carbonate is what class of drug?
|
antacid
|
|
|
Mg or Al hydroxide is what class of drug?
|
antacid
|
|
|
This cholinergic drug is indicated in ileus and urinary retention. It directly activates muscarinic receptor, contracting the detrussor muscle of the bladder and relaxing sphincter and trigone
|
bethanechol
|
|
|
This drug is a pro-kinetic drug of the bowel that inhibits acetylcholinesterase, an enzyme that cleaves Ach to acetate and choline and therefore increases Ach level
|
Neostigmine
|
|
|
This drug is used for diabetic gastroparesis and is a dopamine D2 antagonist.
|
metoclopramide
|
|
|
Domperidone is what class of drug?
|
prokinetic
|
|
|
Ipecac is what class of drug?
|
pro-emetic
|
|
|
This drug works locally by irritating the gastric mucosa and centrally by stimulating the medullary chemoreceptor trigger zone to induce vomiting
|
Ipecac
|
|
|
Apomorphine is what class of drug?
|
pro-emetic
|
|
|
This drug is used for Parkinson's disease and used for veterinary medicine to induce emesis. It is an agonist fro dopamine
|
Apomorphine
|
|
|
This drug is indicated for motion sickness and is an anti-emetic that can cause sedation and dry mouth
|
scopolamine
|
|
|
This drug is an anti-emetic that blocks 5HT3 in vagal afferent fibers and in chemoreceptor trigger zone. Side effects include headache and constipation
|
ondanestron
|
|
|
Metoclopramide and promethazine block ____ receptors centrally and are anti-emetic but can cause hypotension, restlessness, EPS, and sedation
|
dopamine
|
|
|
Dronabinol is what type of drug?
|
anti-emetic
|
|
|
Psyllium is indicated to treat what condition?
|
constipation
|
|
|
This drug reduces secretions and binds bacterial toxins; possesses antimicrobial effects. Side effects include blue tongue and stools, tinnitus
|
bismuth salycilate
|
|
|
Loperamide is what type of drug?
|
antidiarrheal that is an opiod that decreases peristalsis
|
|
|
Diphenoyxlate is what type of drug?
|
antidiarrheal that is an opiod that decreases peristalsis, use with atropine to prevent abuse
|
|
|
Difenoxin is what type of drug?
|
antidiarrheal that is an opiod that decreases peristalsis
|
|
|
This drug is indicated for hyperlipidemia and DM2. It binds to negatively charged bile acids and bile salts in the small intestine, preventing bile from returning to the liver by enterohepatic circulation. Can work as an anti-diarrheal causing constipation
|
cholestyramine
|
|
|
Magnesium salt is what type of laxative?
|
osmotic
|
|
|
Phosphates are what type of laxative?
|
osmotic
|
|
|
Lactulose is what type of laxative and is primarily used to treat what?
|
osmotic laxative used to treat hepatic encephalopathy
|
|
|
Polyethylene glycol solution is what type of laxative?
|
osmotic
|
|
|
This type of laxative form gels causing water retention and distension, increasing peristaltic activity. Increased bacterial fermentation produces short chain fatty acids, which stimulate motility
|
bulk laxatives
|
|
|
Dietary fiber is what type of laxative?
|
bulk laxative
|
|
|
methylcellulose is what type of laxative?
|
bulk laxative
|
|
|
psyllium is what type of laxative?
|
bulk laxative
|
|
|
Bisacodyl is what type of drug?
|
stimulant laxative
|
|
|
This drug activates nerve fibers to stimulate colon. Side effects include cramps and ATONIC COLON
|
bisacodyl
|
|
|
Senna is what type of drug?
|
stimulant laxative, causes water and electrolyte secretion
|
|
|
Castor oil is what type of drug?
|
stimulant laxative, irritant that increases peristalsis
|
|
|
What stimulant laxative has the side effect of uterine contractions?
|
castor oil
|
|
|
Cascara is what type of laxative?/
|
stimulant laxative
|
|
|
This drug becomes emulsified with stool to make softer feces
|
docusate
|
|
|
What are two lubricants that facilitates passage of hard stools?
|
mineral oil, glycerin
|
|
|
This drug has side effects such as leukopenia, GI disturbance, malaise, headache, and rash. It is used to treat inflammatory bowel disease
|
sulfasalazine
|
|
|
Mesalamine is used to treat what disorder?
|
inflammatory bowel disease
|
|
|
This drug is indicated for iron deficiency. Take on empty stomach. SE include black stool, constipation and GI disturbances. 5 mg of this drug = 1 mg elemental iron
|
Ferrous sulfate
|
|
|
Ferrous gluconate and ferrous sulfate can be used to treat what type of anemia
|
microcytic
|
|
|
Iron dextran is given _____ and has the side effect of serious anaphylactic reaction
|
parenterally
|
|
|
This drug is used to treat acute iron overload. Acts by binding free iron in the bloodstream and enhancing its elimination in the urine
|
deferoxamine
|
|
|
Cyanocobalamin is indicated in ____ deficiency such as pernicious anemia
|
B12
|
|
|
This drug is used to treat anemia and is a replacement of glycoprotein normally made by the kidneys for treatment of anemia by ESRD, HIV or cancer, Can cause arthralgia
|
epoetin alfa or darbepoetin
|
|
|
This drug has the toxicity of causing pure red cell aplasia. To reduce the risk of serious cardiovascular events, hemoglobin levels should be maintained above 12 g/dL
|
erythropoietins (epoetin alfa)
|
|
|
This drug is indicated for neutropenia. It is recombinant granulocyte colony-stimulating factor, increases neutrophil production. Side effects include bone pain
|
Filgrastim
|
|
|
This drug is recombinant granulocyte/macrophage colony stimulating factor. Side effects include bone pain, malaise, flu-like symptoms, fever, diarrhea, dyspnea, and rash
|
Sargramostim
|
|
|
This drug improves platelet recovery after chemotherapy induced thrombocytopenia
|
IL-11
|
