Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
89 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
chelesterol absorption inhibitor
|
ezetimibe
|
|
"statins"
|
HMG-CoA inhibitors
|
|
used in hyperlipidemia, safe during pregnancy, works through ion trapping
|
bile acid sequestering resin (chelestyramine, colesvalam, and colestipol)
|
|
adverse effect or verapamil
|
constipation
|
|
calcium channel blocker that works on the periphery
|
nafedipine
|
|
what class of drug is diltiezem
|
calcium channel blocker
|
|
used in anemia and is a colony stimulating factor for WBC deficiency
|
myeloid growth factors
|
|
treatment of megaloblastic anemia
|
B12 and folic acid
|
|
what side effect would occur if a B12 deficiency was only treated with folic acid
|
CNS problems
|
|
short acting beta 1-selective blocker
|
esmolol
|
|
antiarrythmic agen that has its action best described by decrease in myocardial conduction and excitability by inhibiting the influx of sodium through fast channels in myocardial cells
|
quinidine (class I)
|
|
antiarrythmetic effect in managment of reentrant paroxsymal supraventricular tachycardia including those associated with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Stimulates potassium channels. Has low toxicity with a short half life of 10 seconds with IV administration
|
adenosine
|
|
potassium sparing diuretic works at the collecting tubule inhibiting influx of sodium through ion channels
|
amiloride
|
|
block vasoconstrictive effects of catecholamines and decrease BP by decreasing venous tone and arterial resistance
|
alpha1-receptor blockers (-zosin)
|
|
cardiovascular drug that may cause renal damage and other malformations in the fetus if given during pregnancy
|
ACE inhibitors (-pril)
|
|
most commonly used alkylating agents
|
cyclophosphamide
|
|
inhibits Na/K ATPase pump and known as the universal poison
|
disoxin
|
|
combined alpha and nonselective beta blocker
|
carvedilol
|
|
the drugs block bradykinin and inhibit the conversion of angiotensin to angiotensin II
|
ACE inhibitors (-pril)
|
|
treatment for gaucoma and ocular hypertension
|
dorzolamide; carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (-amide)
|
|
names of loop diuretics
|
Bumex, Lasix, and demodex
|
|
intravenous dopamine DA1 agonist used for the acute treatment of severe hypertension
|
Fenoldopam
|
|
what type of diuretics won't cause hyperkalemia
|
thiazides. They cause hypokalemia
|
|
adverse effect of nitrates
|
thobbing headache (can also cause tachycardia and syncope)
|
|
adverse effect of minoxidil
|
hirsutism
|
|
diuretics used to reduce intracranial pressure in cerebral edema. Affects water not Na
|
osmotic diuretics
|
|
names of potassium sparing diuretics
|
triamterene, amiloride, and spironolactone
|
|
names of LMWH
|
all include "parin"
|
|
inhibit factor X, prevent DVT, used in post hip replacment surgery, are low molecular weight heparin fractions
|
LMWH
|
|
Drugs used in the treatment of HIT
|
contain "rudin"
|
|
what can be used for the reversal of warfarin
|
transfusion with fresh frozen plasma
|
|
Erythropoietin (administration, clinical uses and contraindications)
|
EPO can be used in chronic diseases and is the mainstay management of anemia associated with cronic renal failure. Effective in the tratment of anemia of renal failure, anemias od AIDS, anemia of prematurity and anemias of chronic diseases (cancer and RA). Its response requires adequate iron, folic acid and B12. Administered through IV or subQ. Elevates or maintains RBC levels, decreases the need for allogenic blood transfusion, improves hematocrit and activates the synthesis of Hb. Not indicated for pts needing immediate correction of svere anemia. AE include elevated diastolic pressure, iron deficience due to the increased requirement from iron storage.
|
|
antagonizes vasoconstrictor effects of catecholamines on both arterial and venous smooth musle
|
alpha-1 receptor blockers (-zosin)
|
|
duiretic with mineralcorticoid blocking activity (mineralcorticoids are releae by the adrenal gland)
|
spironolactone
|
|
beta blocker with NO vasodilatory activity
|
nebivolol
|
|
combined alpha/beta blocker
|
carvedilol
|
|
nonselective beta antagonist and partial beta agonist (vasodilatory beta blocker)
|
pindolol
|
|
vasodilator drug that has LLS as an adverse effect
|
hydralazine
|
|
an antiarrythmic drug with LLS as an adverse effect
|
procainamide
|
|
why are beta blockers useful in cardiac failure when it is considered a paradox
|
slowing cardiac contraction rate and contraction velocity improve cardiac output. Beneficial action is believed to be due to attenuation of adverse effects of catecholamines, up-regulation of beta receptors, decreased heart rate, and reduced remodeling (hypertrophy)due to inhibition of catecholamine mediated mitogenesis
|
|
drugs used in hypertensive emergencies
|
sodium nitroprusside (arteral and venous dilation), Carvedilol and Labetalol (alpha and beta blockers), Fenoldopam (dilates renal and mesenteric vessels), Methyldopa, Esmolol
|
|
inhibits thromboxane A2 causing no platelet aggregation. SE conchonism
|
aspirin
|
|
antiplatelet drug that inhibits phosphodiesterase causeing an increase in cAMP and has vasodilatory effects
|
cilostazol
|
|
antiplatelet drug that inhibits ADP inhibiting fibrinogen binding but can cause neutropenia
|
ticlopidine
|
|
ticlopidine analogues
|
clopidogrel and prasugrl
|
|
monoclonal antibody against GP2A/3B recpetor
|
abciximab
|
|
small polypeptide against GP2a/3b receptor
|
eptifibatide and tirofiban
|
|
drugs used in the treatment of hypertension
|
diuretics, selective aldosterone receptore antagonists (eplerenone), vasodilators, alpha-1 receptor blockers, alpha-2 receptor agonists, beta blockers, ACE inhibitors, ARBS, renin inhibitor (Aliskiren) and cacium channel blockers
|
|
Drugs used in renin-angiotension axis
|
ACE inhibitors, ARBS and renin inhibitor
|
|
thrombolutic agent specific to plasmnogen bound to clot (converts to plasmin) used for DVT, pulmonary emboliam, MI and peripheral arteial thrombosis
|
tPA
|
|
thrombolytic agent non-specific for clot bound fibrin that convert plasminogen to plasmin. Used in acute pulmonary emboliam
|
streptokinase
|
|
inhibits the enzyme namely calcineurin (a phosphotase) which is necessary for the activation of a Tcell specific transcription factor that is involved in the synthesis of interleukins. Approved for liver and kidney rejections
|
Tacrolimus
|
|
anti-CD-11a (aplha subunit of the leukocyte function antigen-1). Humanized IgG-kappa isotype monoclonal antibody. Targets T-cells and prevents their activation without destroying them. Used in the managment of psoriasis
|
Eflizumab
|
|
Non specfic immunosuppressive drugs that reduce the size and lymphoid content of lymph nodes and spleen, though they have essentially no toxic effect on proliferating ,yeloid and erythroid stem cells. Have antiinflammatory and anti-immune response. Considered lymphocytopenic. Cause diminished chemotaxis in monocytes and neutrophils. In monocytes they inhibit IL-1 production thus inhibiting IL-2 and interferon-gamma production. Used in inflammatory bowel disease (crohn's), SLE, allergic rxts, glomeronephritis, Hashimoto's thyroiditis and in many organ transplants. AE include virla, bacterial, and fungal infectins, hyperglycemia, and obesity (due to lipid mobilization)
|
Corticosteroids (i.e.prednisone)
|
|
An alkylating agent that is also a highly potent immunosuppressive. desroys proliferating lymphoid cells (cytotoxic) and also destroys some resting cells. After some breakdown by P-450, it's intermediates form phosphoramide mustard that alkylates the DNA. Does not prevent graft-vs-host rxt in bone marrow transplant. AE include pancytopenia and hemorrhagic cystitis (bladder inflammation and blood in urine due to acrolein toxicity to the bladder).
|
cyclophosphamide
|
|
what diuretics cause hypercalemia. decrease Ca content in the urine
|
thiazide diuretics---all contain "thiazide" with the exception of chlorthialidone, indapamide and metolazone
|
|
which diuretics cause hypocalemia. Increase calcium concentration in the urine
|
Loop diuretics---Bumetanide, furosamide, torsemide and ethacrynic acid
|
|
What two potassium sparing diuretics are not aldosterone antagonists
|
Triamterene and amiloride
|
|
what two diuretics are aldosterone antagonists
|
spironolactone and eplerenone (no reflex increase in renin)
|
|
what class of cardiac arrythmic drugs do lidocaine, mexiletine, procainamide, and quinidine belong to
|
class I---Na channel blockers (local anesthetics)
|
|
what class of cardiac arrythmic drugs do Propanolol and esmolol belong to
|
class II---beta blockers
|
|
what class of cardiac arrythmic drugs do verapamil and diltiazem belong to
|
class IV---Ca channel blockers
|
|
what class of cardiac arrythmic drugs do amiodarone, bretylium and sotalol belong to
|
class III----potassium channel blockers
|
|
what drugs are only found in the treatment in ischemic heart disease
|
organic nitrates (i.s. isosorbide dinitrate, nitroglycerin) and fatty acid oxidation inhibitor (ranolazine)
|
|
All alogrithmic potassium channel blocker used in ischemic cardiac arrythmia. Antianginal and antiarrythmic. Approved for the treatment of refractory life threatening ventricular arrythmias (refractory supraventricular and ventricular tachyarrythmias) in various patient settings. Also noncompetitively inhibits alpha and beta receptors. Contains iodine so may cause hypo or hyperthyroidism and blue skin discoloration.
|
amiodarone
|
|
what drugs are used in acute heart failure
|
beta AGONISTS, sympathomimetics (dopamine, dobutamine), Phosphodiesterase inhibitors (dipyradine, inamrinone and milrinone) and Digoxin
|
|
what drugs are used in chronic heart failure
|
diuretics, vasodilators (NESIRITIDE), Ca channel antagonists, and beta blockers
|
|
LOG kill hypothesis
|
anticancer drugs kill a fixed proportion of tumor cells not a fixed number of tumor cells (i.e. 3-log kill dose to 10^12 cells, 10^9 remain. now we have 10^12 total minus 10^9 remaining cells which means 9.99x10^11 cells we killed)
|
|
a cell cyle specific antibiotic anticancer drug. Interacts with topoisomerase II enzyme, and causes the cels to accumulate in the G2 phase and mitosis (triphasic mechanism). Most serious adverse effect is pulmonary toxicity
|
Bleomycin
|
|
Antibiotic anticancer drug that is a cyclic derivative of the heavy metal chelator EDTA
|
Dexrazoxane
|
|
anticancer alkylating agent that form a reactive intermediate that alkylates the guinine residue of a DNA molecule. Used in Hodgkin's disease as part of the MOPP regimen. Also useful in solid tumors.
|
mechlorethamine
|
|
what anticancer alkylating agent has lipophilicity and can cross the bloo-brain-barrier so is useful in treating brain tumors
|
Nitroso-ureas (all have NU in the name)
|
|
anticancer alkylating agent used at low doses to give selective suppression of granulocytopoiesis leading to its use in most regimens of chronic myelogenous leukemia.
|
Busulfan
|
|
what anticancer alkylating agent is used in the treatment of multiple myeloma
|
Melphalan
|
|
what anticancer antimetabolite is structurally similar to folic acid so acts like an antagonist of folate by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase. Which inhibits the conversion of folate to THF. Also can cause ABORTION
|
methotrexate
|
|
what anticancer antimetabolite is activated by hypoxanthine guinine phosphoribosyl transferase used in the maintainence of remission in acute lymphoblastic leukemia.
|
6-marcaptopurine
|
|
what anticancer antimetabolite that is one of the most active drugs in leukemias. AE include severe myelosuppression, ataxia (shaky movements), dysarthria (speech disorder), dysdiadochokinesia (clumsy rapidly alternating movements)
|
cytarabine
|
|
anticancer microtubule stabilizing agent approved for the treatment of metaststic or locally advanced breast cancer
|
Ixabepilone
|
|
anticancer microtubule stabilizing agents that increase DNA degration by interaction with topoisomerase II and inhibits mitochondrial ETC. Used in combination regimens for therapy of small cell lung, prostae and testicular carcinomas
|
Etoposide and Teniposide
|
|
Topoisomerase I inhibitor used in the treatment of estrogen-dependant breast cancers and endometrial carcinoma. An estrogen antagonist abd estrogen receptor partial agonist.
|
Tamoxifen
|
|
Topoisomerase I inhibitor that degrades the estrogen receptor
|
Fulvestrant
|
|
enzyme that cleaves asparaginase in childhood leukemia
|
L-asparaginase
|
|
Anticancer drug that acts like and alkylatic agent used to treat testicular carcinomas. Administered through slow IV. Highly toxic.
|
Cisplatin
|
|
First monoclonal antibody used as a chemotherapeutic agent. Binds to CD 20 expressed on B-cell non-Hodkin's lymphoma
|
Rituximab
|
|
what drug is also a naturally occuring hormone produced by the ventricles that produces balanced arterial and venous dilation. Is used for the acute treatment of decompensated CHF. AE include universal renal failure
|
Nesiritide
|
|
mechanism of warfarin
|
Indirect anticoagulant that inhibits hepatic synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors (2, 7, 9, and 10). Competatively antagonizes vitamin K. Does not result in rapid anticoagulation.
|
|
antiarrythmic and beta blocker used in treatment of atrial and ventricular arrythmias. Should not be interchanged
|
sotalol
|
|
mechanism of organic nitrates
|
relax smooth muscle by conversion to nitrite then NO which activaes guanylate cyclase= increase in cGMP= relaxation through dephophorylation of myosin light chain
|
|
Erythropoietin (administration, clinical uses and contraindications)
|
EPO can be used in chronic diseases and is the mainstay management of anemia associated with cronic renal failure. Effective in the tratment of anemia of renal failure, anemias od AIDS, anemia of prematurity and anemias of chronic diseases (cancer and RA). Its response requires adequate iron, folic acid and B12. Administered through IV or subQ. Elevates or maintains RBC levels, decreases the need for allogenic blood transfusion, improves hematocrit and activates the synthesis of Hb. Not indicated for pts needing immediate correction of svere anemia. AE include elevated diastolic pressure, iron deficience due to the increased requirement from iron storage.
|