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164 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
5 indications for initiating ART therapy
hx of AIDS definining illness
CD4 < 350
pregnancy
HIV-associated nephropathy
HBV co-infection when tx of HBV is indicated
goals of ART
suppress HIV replication to undetectable levels by 12-24 wks
reduce HIV-related morbidity/mortality
prevent vertical transmission
how are results of ART evaluated
plasma HIV RNA levels
characteristics of preferred HAART regimen
at least 3 drugs used
the regimens have combinations of drugs that have diff mechanisms of action
class-sparing
regimen #1 for ART in naive pts
efavirenz
+
tenofovir/emtricitabine
regimen #2 for ART in naive pts
atazanavir (or darunavir)
+
ritonavir
+
tenofovir/emtricitabine
ritonavir is used at a lower dose that is not antiretroviral, but it does ___
inhibit the P450 system
regimen #3 for ART in naive pts
raltegravir
+
tenofovir/emtricitabine
preferred antiretroviral regimen for pregnant women
lopinavir/ritonavir
+
zidovudine/lamivudine
what is the strongest predictor of subsequent HIV progression and survival
CD4+ count
acute HIV infection: how to diagnose
detectable plasma HIV RNA with a negative or indeterminate HIV antibody test
zidovudine: class
NRTI
zidovudine: indications
prevention of maternal-fetal HIV transmission
zidovudine: ADRs
myelosuppression, neutropenia, severe anemia
rare cases of lactic acidosis w/hepatic steatosis
zidovudine: DIs
no DI with P450
major hematologic toxicity with cytotoxic agents and ganicyclovir
didanosin: ADRs
pancreatitis
lactic acidosis and severe hepatomegaly w/steatosis
peripheral neuropathy
lamivudine: ADRs
peripheral neuropathy
Combivir: combination of what 2 drugs
lamivudine
+
zidovudine
abacavir: boxed warning
hypersensitivity rxns
d/c promptly if symptoms appear
emtricitabine: P450 activity
NO effects
tenofovir: class
nucleotide RTI
Truvada: combination of what 2 drugs
tenofovir
+
emtricitabine
NNRTI: stands for what? mech of action?
non-nucleoside inhibitors of reverse transcriptase

noncompetitive inhibitors of HIV-1 reverse transcriptase
do not compete with NRTIs
do not require initial cellular activation
nevirapine: class? P450 activity?
NNRTI
induces P450 3A4 enzyme
nevirapine: ADRs
severe, life-threatening rxns, including SJS and toxic epidermal necrolysis have occurred
potentially fatal hepatotoxity
first anti-HIV drug that is given once daily
efavirenz
efavirenz: ADR? P450 activity?
CNS/psych symptoms
3A4 mixed inducer/inhibitor
protease inhibitors: mech of action
not active against already infected cells, but reduce viral ability to infect other cells
class ADRs of protease inhibitors
hypercholesterolemia and hyperTGemia
insulin resistance, hyperglycemia
saquinavir: class? P450 activity?
protease inhibitor
inhibits 3A4 metabolism of numerous drugs
ritonavir: class? P450 activity?
protease inhibitor
strong inhibitor of P450
indinavir: ADRs
acute nephrolithiasis with flank pain with or without hematuria
what is the first protease inhibitor that is dosed once daily
atazanavir
enfuvirtide: class? mech of action?
fusion inhibitor

binds to the region of HIV that is involved with the fusion to host membrane
what is the only approved agent that prevents HIV entry into host cell
enfuvirtide
how is enfuvirtide administered
SC twice daily
maraviroc: class? mech of action?
chemokine receptor 5 antagonist

binds to CCR5 coreceptor to prevent HIV from infecting T cells
raltegravir: class? mech of action?
integrase inhibitor

inhibits the enzyme needed by HIV for viral reproduction
significance of integrase? what drug blocks its action?
enables the HIV-1 to integrate its DNA into the cellular DNA of host cells

raltegravir
class ADRs fo NRTIs
lactic acidosis
hepatomegaly w/steatosis
class ADRs of protease inhibitors
hyperglycemia
new onset DM
insulin resistance
hyperlipidemia
class ADRs of NNRTIs
rash
what is the duration of all regimens for post-exposure prophylaxis of HIV
4 weeks
basic regimen of post-exposure prophylaxis of HIV
zidovudine and lamivudine
for exposures posing an increased risk for HIV transmission, the preferred expanded regimen is ____
basic regimen (zidovudine + lamivudine)
+
lopinavir/ritonavir
amphotericin B: mech of action
binds to the ergosterol component of fungal membranes and alters permeability to allow leakage of ions
how is amphotericin B administered
not absorbed po, must be given IV
DOC for major systemic fungal infections, especially in immunocompromised pts
amphotericin B
what is the advantage of lipid encapsulated amphotericin B
have increased circulation time and reach higher concentrations, while being essentially impermeable to normal tissues
what formulation of ampho B is given to pts who cant tolerate the conventional IV formulation
lipid-encapsulated drug
douching is ___
BAD
amphotericin B: ADRs
infusion rxns (fever, chills, HA, nausea)
usually occur 1-3 hrs after starting infusion
nephrotoxicity (80%)
flucytosine: mech of action
synthetic pyrimidine antimetabolite used in combination with ampho B for tx of systemic mycoses and meningitis
what drug is commonly used in combination with flucytosine
amphotericin B
does flucytosine penetrate the CSF?
yes
azole antifungal agents: mech of action
inhibit P450 isoenzyme that converts lanosterol to ergosterol
concurrent use of azoles and ____ is contraindicated
amphotericin B
what azole inhibits gonadal steroid synthesis, thus suppressing testosterone production
ketoconazole
what 4 things impair ketoconazole absorption
food
antacids
H2 antagonists
PPIs
what enhances ketoconazole absorption
acidic cola drinks
does ketoconazole penetrate CSF?
no
ketoconazole: ADRs
endocrine: gynecomastia, impotence
blackbox: hepatotoxicity
ketoconazole: DIs? P450 activity?
antacids
inhibits P450
DOC for cryptococcal meningitis and coccidiodomycosis
fluconazole
fluconazole: brand name? P450 activity?
Diflucan
inhibits P450
DOC for onychomycosis
itraconazole
itraconazole: boxed warning? P450 activity?
risk of CHF
potent inhibitor of P450
itraconazole: take with ____ and ____
food and high acidic beverage
1st line agent for tx of acute invasive aspergillosis
voriconazole
indications for voriconazole
acute invasive aspergillosis
non-neutropenic pts with candidemia or deep tissue candidal infx
posaconazole: indications
prophylaxis of invasive aspergillosis and candidiasis in pts who are severely immunocompromised
posaconazole: ADRs
hepatic failure, sometimes severe
QT prolongation
caspofungin: indications
empirical tx of presumed fungal infx in febrile, neutropenic pts
what OTC is used for tinea pedis, cruris, and corporis
clotrimazole (Lotrimin)
griseofulvin: mech of action
interacts with fungal cell microtubules to disrupt the mitotic spindle and inhibit mitosis
griseofulvin: active only vs. ____
dermatophytes
griseofulvin absorption is enhanced with ____
high fat meal
griseofulvin: concentrates in what 3 types of tissue
skin, hair, nails
(keratinized tissue)
terbinafine: brand name? mech of action?
Lamisil

fungicidal agent that inhibits squalene epoxidase (essential for sterol synthesis)
terbinafine: indications
tx of onychomycosis of the toenail or fingernail due to dermatophytes
ciclopirox: indications? administered how?
dermatophytic infections (tinea)

lotion
when is medical care warranted for vulvovaginal candidiasis
if symptoms persist or recur within 2 months after using an OTC product
nystatin: mech of action
polyene antibiotic similar to ampho B
broad spectrum
too toxic for systemic administration
nystatin: clinical uses
topical for superficial candidal fungal infx of skin, mucus membranes, and intestinal tract

also oral suspension for tx of thrush
clotrimazole: fungicidal vs ____
candida species
clotrimazole: indications
vaginal formulation for local tx of VVC
buccal tablet for local tx of oropharyngeal candidiasis
miconazole: what formulations are available
intravaginal
dermatologic - for cutaneous candidiasis and tinea versicolor
DOC for trichomoniasis
metronidazole
metronidazole: preferred regimen
single dose, 2 g po
mebendazole: preferred regimen
100 mg chewable tablet
DOC for helminthic infections (pinworm, roundworm, hookworm, whipworm)
mebendazole
chemoprophylaxis of TB infx without active disease
isoniazid and pyroxidine
qd for 9 months

if INH resistant, rifampin po qd for 4 months
tx of active TB in HIV+ pts
initial phase (8 wks): qd regimen of INH, RIF, PZA, EMB

continuation phase (18 wks): INH and RIF qd
RIF is not recommended for pts receiving ____ due to its inducing effects
protease inhibitors

(rifabutin is preferred)
primary chemoprophylaxis for myco avium complex with HIV infection
clarithromycin (or azithro)

avoid combination with rifabutin
tx of active MAC infection
clarithromycin (preferred)
ethambutol
addition of rifabutin may be considered
chronic maintenance therapy of MAC
clarithromycin + ethambutol with/without RFB

must be used for rest of life
rifabutin: ADRs
orange-brown discoloration of urine, feces, saliva, etc
primary prophylaxis of candidiasis
NOT recommended
preferred agent for initial episode of oropharyngeal candidiasis
fluconazole
DOC for esophageal candidiasis
fluconazole
secondary prophylaxis of candidiasis
fluconazole (both oropharyngeal and esophageal)
primary prophylaxis of cryptococcosis
NOT indicated
DOC for cryptococcal meningitis
amphotericin B deoxycholate
+
flucytosine
prevention of recurrence of cryptococcal meningitis
fluconazole
primary prophylaxis of coccidioidomycosis
fluconazole
tx for mild coccidioidomycosis
fluconazole
tx for severe non-meningeal coccidioidomycosis infections
amphotericin B
DOC for active aspergillosis infection
voriconazole
DOC for CMV retinitis
gancicyclovir intraocular implant and valganciclovir po bid for 14-21 days, then qd
ganciclovir ocular implant cannot prevent _____
CMV infection in the contralateral eye or systemic CMV infection
advantage of cidofovir over ganciclovir and foscarnet
long half life allowing once weekly dosing
cidofovir: ADRs
nephrotoxicity and proteinuria
secondary prophylaxis of CMV retinitis
valganciclovir
DOC for orolabial lesions and initial/recurrent genital HSV
valacyclovir
tx for moderate-severe mucocutaneous HSV
initial: acyclovir
after lesions regress: valacyclovir
tx for acyclovir-resistant HSV
IV foscarnet
tx for post-exposure VZV
varicella-zoster immune globulin as soon as possible but within 96 hrs after close contact
tx for uncomplicated varicella
acyclovir po 5x daily
tx for severe/complicated varicella
IV acyclovir
tx for extensive cutaneous lesions or visceral involvement of herpes zoster
IV acyclovir
DOC for aciclovir-resistant VZV
IV foscarnet
primary prophylaxis of pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
TMP-SMX
p. jirovecii pneumonia: alternative regimen when TMP-SMZ cant be tolerated
dapsone
aerosolized pentamidine
DOC for p. jirovecii pneumonia
TMP-SMZ
alternative agents for moderate-severe PCP
pentamidine isethionate IV

primaquine + clindamycin
alternative agents for mild-moderate PCP
dapsone + trimethoprim

primaquine + clindamycin

atovaquane
primary prophylaxis of toxoplasmic encephalitis
TMP-SMX
DOC for toxoplasmic encephalitis
pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine + leucovorin
sulfadiazine: ADRs
crystalluria
nephrolithiasis
lifelong maintenance therapy for chronic suppression of toxoplasmic encephalitis
pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine + leucovorin
atovaquone: class
antipneumocystic
pyrimethamine: mech of action
folic acid antagonist
inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
what do you give if signs of folate deficiency develop in pts taking pyrimethamine
leucovorin
zanamavir: class? indications?
neuraminidase inhibitor
tx of uncomplicated acute illness due to influenza virus in pts >7 years
zanamavir: contraindications
not recommended for tx or prophylaxis in pts with underlying airway dz (asthma, COPD)
oseltamavir: indications
tx of uncomplicated acute illness due to influenza virus in pts >1 yr
oseltamavir: mech of action
oral prodrug which is converted by hepatic esterases to the active agent in vivo
ribavarin: mech of action
synthetic guanosine nucleoside analog
interfere with critical rxns needed for viral replication
tx of severe lower resp tract infx due to RSV
ribavarin
how is ribavarin administered
aerosol
whats the warning for ribavarin
drug precipitation within endotracheal tubes and ventilators
ribavarin: ADRs
teratogenic
contraindicated in pregnant women and male partners of pregnant women
palivizumab: indications
prevention of serious lower resp tract dz caused by RSV in high risk pediatric pts
what virus is resistant to acyclovir
CMV
what viruses are sensitive to acyclovir
HSV-1
HSV-2
VZV
EBV
acyclovir: indications
tx of initial and recurrent mucosal and cutaneous HSV1, HSV2, and VZV infx in immunocompromised pts
acyclovir: kinetics
poor oral availability
slowly and incompletely absorbed
acyclovir: ADRs
nephrotoxicity if given as IV bolus

give only by slow infusion over atleast 1 hr with adequate hydration
ganciclovir: mech of action
synthetic analog of acyclovir
prodrug which is converted intracellulary to an active triphosphate form
advantage of ganciclovir over acyclovir? whats the caveat though?
active vs CMV

but is NOT a cure for CMV retinitis
ganciclovir: ADRs
myelosuppression
netropenia
anemia
thrombocytopenia
ganciclovir: DIs
nephrotoxic drugs
probenecid
zidovudine
famciclovir: mech of action? clinical uses?
prodrug of the antiviral agent penciclovir

tx of acute herpes zoster
valacyclovir: advantage over acyclovir
po bioavailability increased 3-5
foscarnet sodium: active vs what 3 things
CMV
HSV-1
HSV-2
foscarnet sodium: ADRs
renal dysfunction
seizures
anemia
foscarnet sodium: clinical uses
2nd line agent to ganciclovir for CMV
active vs. ganciclovir-resistant CMV and ACY-resistant HSV and VZV
cidofovir: mech of action
nucleoside analog that suppresses CMV replication by selective inhibition of viral DNA synthesis
cidofovir: ADRs
nephrotoxicity
neutropenia
valganciclovir is a _____ of ganciclovir
ester prodrug
indicated for tx of HSV infx of the conjunctiva and cornea (3 drugs)
idoxuridine
vidarabine
trifluridine
trifluridine: indications
primary keratoconjunctivitis and recurrent epithelial keratitis due to HSV-1 and 2
indicated for tx of recurrent herpes labialis (cold sores)
penciclovir