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47 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The action mechanism of Fenbendazole is:
disrupt the microtubles-tubuline equilibrium, thus starving the parasite
What does fenbendazole treat?
Panacur - nematodes, cestodes, trematodes, and Giardia

- rounds, some hooks, whipworms, taenia tape

Safe-guard in cattle and swine
What breeds are sensitive to high doses of avermectins?
Collies, Shelites, Australian Shepherds, border collies
What products does not kill adult fleas?
Program - Lufenuron
Name a monthly heartworm preventative that gets whipworms
Interceptor (milbemycin)or sentinel (milbemycin/lufenuron)
What is the drug of choice for tapeworms?
Drocit (praziquantal)
Ractopamine is a _______ which does ______
repartitioning agent
converts carcass fat to muscle
Which tissue of the eye is the primary barrier to topical drug absorption to the anterior chamber of the eye?
corneal epithelium
The increase in which ion intracellular second messenger distinguishes longterm potentiation (and learning) from shortterm memory in hippocampus? What are the other ions involved?
Ca 2+; Na+ and Mg2+ for all
Chronic administration of a behavior-modifying drug may result in a smaller clinical benefit than seen after short-term administration. In this case, the overall adaptation of the brain's cellular and synaptic function has possibly resulted in...
- down regulation of postsynaptic receptors in the plasma membrane

- reduction of NT release through stimulation of presynatpic "auto-receptors"

- tolerance
Developing clinical applications of NMDA - subtype glutamate receptor antagonists (eg dissociative anesthetic ketamine) inclue:
- neurogenetive diseases

- epilepsy

- ischemic brain damage
What drug is considered NMDA (N-methyl D-aspartate) receptor antagonist?
Ketamine
Which component would be altered by oral administration?
- absorption
- elimination
- metabolism
- distribution
- absorption
Which pharmokinetic component should be considered with renal failure?
- elimination
Chemotherapy results in cell death. In general, what is the target molecule for most cytotoxic agents?
DNA
Name a topical anesthetic (dermatology)
Pramoxine
The primary action of keratolytic agents is:
dissolution of the cells in the stratum corneum
This is a primary action of a humectant:
attraction and binding of water in the stratum corneum
How do CA inhibitors decrease the IOP?
decreasing aqueous production
T/F - Becase it is as short-acting mydriatic, tropicamide is the appropriate choice for diagnostic evaluation of the eye.
True
T/F - Topical atropine is both a mydriatic and a cycloplegic while tropicamide is primarily a mydriatic
True
How does topical atropine result in decreased outflow from the anterior chamber?
the cycloplegic effect closes the drainage angle allowed increased outflow
Where are growth promotant implants placed?
Middle 1/3 of ear, SQ
What is the topical medication of choice for the treatment of feline conjuctivitis cause by Chlamydia?
terramycin (oxytetracycliune and polymyxin B)
Name 4 uses for anxiolytic drugs.
1 - firework noise phobias in dogs

2- urinary marking in cats

3 - boredom in large breed dogs (lick granulomas)

4 - separation anxiety in dogs
Which of the following correctly pairs a reuptake inhibitor drug with the NT(s) update of which it inhibits?

a) Fluoxetine (Prozac): serotonin

b) Phenothiazines: Glutamate

c) Benzodiazepines; GABA

d) Tricyclic antidepressants; NE and serotonin

e) A and D
A and D

Prozac (Fluoxetine) -> serotonin

Tricyclic antidepressants -> NE and S
Why do selective serotonin (5HT) reuptake inhibitors take 2-3 weeks to reach a therapeutic benefit "steady-state" in an animal (or person)?
With increased 5HT in the synapse, autoreceptors for serotonin on the serotoninergic presynaptic nerve desensitization
Toxicity associated with chemotherapy may be associated with unexpected prolonged exposure to cytotoxic agents. Which of the following parameters would potentially result in prolonged drug exposure?

a) Low oral absorption
b) Limited bioredistribution
c) Accelerated Metabolism
d) Delayed excretion
e) Enhanced biotransformation
Delayed excretion
In order for chemotherapy to exert cytotoxic effects against cancer cells, therapeutic concentrations must be achieved within the immediate local tumor microenvironment. What is a major impediment for achieving therapeutic concentrations?
High interstitial pressure
What drug decreases pruritus (itching) by raising the pruritic threshold?
Menthol
Which of the following drugs has no activity against Giardia?

a) Albendazole
b) Fenbendazole
c) Drontal Plus
d) Ivermectin
e) None of the above
Ivermectin
Chemotherapy attacks ______ cells such as ______
- Rapidly dividing

- BAGS - bone marrow, alopecia (hair follicles), GI, spermatozoa
Which heartworm preventative product(s) also has activity against whipworms in days?
Interceptor
For heartworm prevention, Heartgard Plus should not be given to which breeds?
Safe for all breeds at HW prevention dosages
Certain breeds of dogs (such as Collies) are unusually sensitive to toxic effects to high doses of avermectins. This is due to:
A gene deletion that codes P-glycoprotein
Beef production has been increased approximately 200% since 1955 while maintaining the same size cow herd. What can this be attributed to?
- pharmaceuticals such as implants, ionophores, parasticides

- genetic advancements in beef and dairy cattle

- nutrition of stockers, feeders, finishers and cow calf operations

- grain yields and overall feeding costs
What drugs (or classes of drugs) reduce the production of aqueous humor?
- Alpha 2 Adrenergic agonists

- beta antagonists

- Epinephrine
What drug does NOT function as an anxiolytic drug and is prone to have its action reversed by startling the animal with a painful stimulus?
- phenothiazine, acepromazine
In managing cognitive dysfunction in the dog, what drug
increases dopamine concentrations in the nerve and nerve terminals by inhibiting the enzyme monoamine oxidase?
L-deprenyl (MAO-B inhibitor)
A dog with hematuria and stranguria present to your clinic for evaluation. You perform an abdominal ultrasound and identify a mass within the bladder lumen. With a sterile urinary catheter, you collect urine for culture and also exfoliated cells for cytology. Urine culture identifies a gram negative E. coli only sensitive to gentamicin, while exfoliative cytology provides a diagnosis of transitional cell carcinoma. You begin to treat your patient with intramuscular gentamicin and oral piroxicam. Upon reevaluation 14 days later, the dog represents for acute renal failure. Which altered pharmacokinetic parameter most likely resulted in the adverse side effects?

a) eliminiation
b) absorption
c) metabolism
d) distribution
e) none of the above
- Elimination - renal failre, gentamycin
Some chemotherapeutic agents require biotransformation into active compounds. What is a mechanism that explains for the inherent differences which exist among individuals for their ability to metabolize drugs?
- genetic polymorphism
The skin pH of a dog at rest in a thermoneutral environment is typically between ___ to ___.
7-8
T/F

Oral and topical carbonic andhydrase inhibitors decrease IOP by decreasing aqueous production
True
Microbial cultures are best taken after the administration o f a topical anesthetic as the patient cannot feel the cornea and a more representative sample can be harvested
False - take the samples before you put anything in the eye
Because it is a short-acting mydriatic, topical tropcanimide is the appropriate choice for diagnostic evaluation of the eye
True
Topical atropine is both a mydriatic and cycloplegic while topical tropcanimide is primarity a mydriatic
True
It is the cycloplegic effects of topical atropine that closes the drainage angle and results in decreased outflow of aqueous from the anterior chamber
True