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55 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Equation for Fick's Law of diffusion
FLUX (molecules/unit time) = ([high]-[low]) x (Area x Permeability Coefficient /Thickness of diffusion path)
Define bioavailability..

Equation?
the extent of absorption of a drug following administration by routes other than IV administration.

AUC oral/AUC injection
What is the apparent volume of distribution? Equation?
theoratical volume into which a drug distributes after IV administration

Vd = total amt of drug in the body (D) (mg) / conc. In plasma (Cp) (mg/l)
What does a large Vd indicate?
large amt of drug in the extraplasmic space, which means:

1. limited drug access to excretory organs
2. may indicate sequestration into some organ or comparment
What is Kd? equation?
Elimination rate constant

Kd = clearance / Vd
What is the total body water volume for a 70kg man.
Intracellular volume?
Extracellular volume? interstitial? plasma?
42L

28L

14L (10L, 4L)
Describe the first-order kinetics
1. Rate of drug elimination is directly proportional to the [free drug]
2. Constant percentage of drug is removed per unit time
3. Most clinical situations
4. T1/2 not dependent upon dose; independent of plasma [drug]
Describe the zero-order kinetics
1. Rate of drug elimination is constant over time
2. Large doses or drug-drug interactions
3. Drugs which undergo metabolism as their primary elimination pathway
4. E.g. alcohol; rate is usually 1 beer/1 hr (T1/2 = 30 min)
Clearance equation?
Cl = rate of elimination / plasma [drug]
half-life equation for first-order kinetics?
T1/2 = 0.693 * Vd / Cl or 0.693/Kd
Loading dose equation?

dosing rate equation?

what is steady state?
Loading dose = Vd * Css (steady state concentration)

Dosing rate = Cl * Css (steady state concentration)

steady state - amt going in = amt going out
Define polyphamarcy.
the unnecessary, excessive use of prescription and OTC medications.
List 6 criteria for polypharmacy.
1. Prescription of medications that have no apparent indication.

2. Use of medications with the same PK action (duplicate medications to treat same disease).*

3. Concurrent use of interacting medications

4. Use of inappropriate dosage

5. Use of drug therapy to treat ADR’s (adverse drug rxns)

6. Improvement after discontinuation of medications
What 3 qualifications must be met for generic drugs to be approved?
Same Tmax, Cmax, AUC (area under the curve) in the plasma [drug] vs time graph.
List and describe 4 different types of drug release.
1. Extended release - allows a reduction in dosing frequency compared to conventional dosage form.

2. Delayed release - designed to release drug at a time other than promptly after administration.

3. Repeat action - usually contains two single doses, one for immediate release, and the second for delayed release.

4. Targeted release - concentrating the drug in a body region, a tissue or a site
What 2 processes can destroy drugs?
Oxidation and hydrolysis
Definition of Pharmacodynamics?
study of biochemical and physiological effect on drugs on living systems
Definition of Pharmacokinetics?

What are the 4 main components?
ADME

Drug Absorption
Drug Distribution within body
Drug Metabolism
Drug Excretion
Agonists?

Antagonists?
Agonists - interact with receptors to produced a response

Antagonists - interact with receptors to prevent action of an endogenous or exogenous agonist
Define the following terms:

autocrine
paracrine
endocrine
juxtacrine
intracrine
autocrine – self

paracrine – near

endocrine – systemic

juxtacrine – adjacent; membrane-bound ligand

intracrine – pre-receptor; enzyme mediated conversion
5 factors that influence drug-receptor matching are??
1. shape of drug (stereochemistry; chirality)
2. size of drug
3. sum of electorstatic and hydrophobic forces
4. nature of D-R interactions
5. type of chemical bonds
What are 5 types of chemical bonds?

Which 2 are associated with "goodness of fit?"
1. Covalent bond
2. hydrogen bond
3. Van Der Waal Forces
4. ionic bonds
5. hydrophobic bonds

Hydrogen bonds and Van Der Waal forces are associated with goodness of fit
Efficacy (or Max efficacy)?

Potency?
Efficacy , Max efficacy – the greatest biological effect an agonist can produce

Potency – [drug] required to achieve a certain biological response
What are 3 theories related to receptor-effector coupling?

Describe each.
1. Occupational theory of Drug action - Formation of RD is directly 1:1 proportionate to biological/pharmacological Effect; explains agonists, antagonists, and competitive antagonists.

2.Modified occupational theory of drug action - Formation of RD is not directly 1:1 proportionate to biological/pharmacological Effect.; explains spare receptors and partial agonists

3.Allosteric theory of drug action - Receptor conformation (Ri = inactive; Ra = active) determines level of effect. Drugs can bind to either the Ri or Ra conformation, thereby promoting action or inaction; explains inverse agonists
What does the modified occupational theory of drug action explain that the (plain) occupational theory of drug can't?

How about allosteric theory of drug action?
Modified occupational theory of drug action - explains the concepts of partial agonists and spare receptors

alloesteric theory of drug action explains inverse agonists
Spare receptors?
unused receptors when at maximum biological effect
What are 4 main type of antagonism? Explain each.
1. Pharmacological - works through binding to the drug target

2. Chemical - chemically interact within the body to produce antagonism

3. Physiological - produce opposite effects through different receptors

4. Dispositional - alteration in the ADME (pharmacokinetics) resulting in the less drug reaching the target organ and reduced pharmacological effect
Name 3 different types of phamacological antagonists.

How does each change the %maximal effect vs. log [drug] graph?
1. competitive - shifts to the right but same Max effect

2. noncompetitive - shifts down the Max effect

3. irreversible - shifts down the max effect
Define the following:

Partial agonist
Inverse agonist
Potentiation
Additive agonism
Synergistic agonism
Partial agonist - Produce lower max responses than full agonists

Inverse agonist - binds to Ri and produces the opposite effect of the agonist

Potentiation - makes the receptor more responsive to the agonists

Additive agonism - when 2 drugs yield a biological response that equals the sum of the individual drug responses for each drug

Synergistic agonism - 2 drugs cause a biological effect greater than the anticipated sum of their pharmacologic effects
what are 3 mechanisms of desensitization?

Explain!
1. Metabolic - increased metabolism due to induction of liver enzymes that more rapidly decrease drug levels

2. cellular adaptive - less receptors

3. homeostatic - environmental cues are associated with drug administration --> bodily rxn in the opposite direction of the drug effect
Tachphylaxis?
Rapid loss of responsivity following a single administration of drug
What is the main difference b/t the graded dose response curves and the Quantal dose-effect curve
Graded dose response curve - effect of a single organ or an individual

Quantal dose-effect curve - effect of a drug on a population
Define the following terms:

ED50
TD50
TI
Certain safety margin
ED50 – effective dose for 50% of population

TD50 – toxicity dose for 50% population

Therapeutic index (TI) = LD50/ED50

Certain safety margin = LD1/ED99
What is the general difference b/t phase 1 and phase 2 reactions of biotransformation?
Phase 1 - Do not require energy

Phase 2 - Require high energy intermediates
What is the general function of phase I and II reactions?
Phase I - to make drugs more polar by adding polar groups or exposing polar groups.

Phase II - to modify insufficient polar compounds to more hydrophilic compounds
What are 4 broad types of Phase I reaction?
1. microsomal oxidation - uses microsomal cytochrome P450 system, which mediates oxidative reactions

2. nonmicrosomal oxidation - does not use microsomal cytochrome P450 system

3. Reductions

4. Hydrolysis
Name 6 different microsomal oxidation reactions.
1. alphatic or aromatic hydroxylation

2. N-, O-, and S-dealkylation

3. Sulfoxidation

4. N-oxidation or hydroxylation

5. Oxidative deamination

6. Desulfuration
Name 3 phase I reactions that do not involve cytochrome P450 system.
1. Reduction (nitroreduction and azoredcution)

2. Hydrolysis

3. non-microsomal oxidation
Name the reaction with the following description:

addition of -OH

Phase I or II?
hydroxylation

phase I
Name the reaction with the following description:

removal of methyl group from N, O, or S

Phase I or II?
N, O, S- dealkylation

Phase I
Name the reaction with the following description:

adding a carboxyl group ( =O) to S.

Phase I or II?
Sulfoxidation

Phase I
Name the reaction with the following description:

addition of -O to N

Phase I or II?
N-oxidation or hydroxylation

phase I
Name the reaction with the following description:

replace -NH2 to =O

Phase I or II?
Oxidative deamination

Phase I
Name the reaction with the following description:

replace =S with =O

Phase I or II?
desulfuration

Phase I
What are 2 types of reduction? Describe
Nitroreduction - NO2 --> NH2

Azoreduction - breaking the N=N and add -H to each N.
Name the reaction with the following description:

addition of water across peptide, amide, or ester bond

Phase I or II?
Hydrolysis

non-microsomal phase I
Name 5 Phase II reactions.
1. Glucuronide conjugation
2. sulfate conjugation
3. N-acetylation
4. O- and N- methylation
5. Glutathione conjugation
what are the substrates for Phase II reactions? (2)
1. Metabolites of phase I rxns
2. Cpds that already contain –OH, -NH2, and COOH
Which phase II reaction utilizes UDP-GT?

What is the clinical importance of this reaction?
Glucuronide conjugation

Clinically important in neonates - bilirubin and biliverdim (products of Heme catabolism) need to be conjugated with glucuronide but neonates lack UDP-GT (glucuronyl transferase) --> accumulation of bilirubin --> jaundice
Which phase II reaction utilizes sulfotransferases?
Sulfate conjugation
Which phase II reaction is important in detoxifying acetaminophen?
Glutathione conjugation
Which phase II reaction is involved in conversion of norepinephrine to epinephrine?
N-methylation
Name 7 P450 inducers. (optional)

Mnemonic?
Quinidine
Barbiturates
Phenytoin
Rifampin
Griseofulvin
Carbamazepine
St. John's wort

"Queen Barb takes Phen-phen and Refuses Greasy CarbS"
Name 6 P450 inhibitors (optional)

Mnemonic?
Isoniazid
Sulfonamides
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Erythromycin
Graphfruit juice

"Inhibitors Stop Cyber-Kids from Eating Grapefruit."
What is drug idiosyncrasy?
a genetically determined abnormal reactivity to a drug