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55 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Equation for Fick's Law of diffusion
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FLUX (molecules/unit time) = ([high]-[low]) x (Area x Permeability Coefficient /Thickness of diffusion path)
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Define bioavailability..
Equation? |
the extent of absorption of a drug following administration by routes other than IV administration.
AUC oral/AUC injection |
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What is the apparent volume of distribution? Equation?
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theoratical volume into which a drug distributes after IV administration
Vd = total amt of drug in the body (D) (mg) / conc. In plasma (Cp) (mg/l) |
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What does a large Vd indicate?
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large amt of drug in the extraplasmic space, which means:
1. limited drug access to excretory organs 2. may indicate sequestration into some organ or comparment |
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What is Kd? equation?
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Elimination rate constant
Kd = clearance / Vd |
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What is the total body water volume for a 70kg man.
Intracellular volume? Extracellular volume? interstitial? plasma? |
42L
28L 14L (10L, 4L) |
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Describe the first-order kinetics
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1. Rate of drug elimination is directly proportional to the [free drug]
2. Constant percentage of drug is removed per unit time 3. Most clinical situations 4. T1/2 not dependent upon dose; independent of plasma [drug] |
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Describe the zero-order kinetics
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1. Rate of drug elimination is constant over time
2. Large doses or drug-drug interactions 3. Drugs which undergo metabolism as their primary elimination pathway 4. E.g. alcohol; rate is usually 1 beer/1 hr (T1/2 = 30 min) |
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Clearance equation?
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Cl = rate of elimination / plasma [drug]
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half-life equation for first-order kinetics?
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T1/2 = 0.693 * Vd / Cl or 0.693/Kd
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Loading dose equation?
dosing rate equation? what is steady state? |
Loading dose = Vd * Css (steady state concentration)
Dosing rate = Cl * Css (steady state concentration) steady state - amt going in = amt going out |
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Define polyphamarcy.
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the unnecessary, excessive use of prescription and OTC medications.
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List 6 criteria for polypharmacy.
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1. Prescription of medications that have no apparent indication.
2. Use of medications with the same PK action (duplicate medications to treat same disease).* 3. Concurrent use of interacting medications 4. Use of inappropriate dosage 5. Use of drug therapy to treat ADR’s (adverse drug rxns) 6. Improvement after discontinuation of medications |
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What 3 qualifications must be met for generic drugs to be approved?
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Same Tmax, Cmax, AUC (area under the curve) in the plasma [drug] vs time graph.
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List and describe 4 different types of drug release.
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1. Extended release - allows a reduction in dosing frequency compared to conventional dosage form.
2. Delayed release - designed to release drug at a time other than promptly after administration. 3. Repeat action - usually contains two single doses, one for immediate release, and the second for delayed release. 4. Targeted release - concentrating the drug in a body region, a tissue or a site |
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What 2 processes can destroy drugs?
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Oxidation and hydrolysis
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Definition of Pharmacodynamics?
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study of biochemical and physiological effect on drugs on living systems
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Definition of Pharmacokinetics?
What are the 4 main components? |
ADME
Drug Absorption Drug Distribution within body Drug Metabolism Drug Excretion |
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Agonists?
Antagonists? |
Agonists - interact with receptors to produced a response
Antagonists - interact with receptors to prevent action of an endogenous or exogenous agonist |
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Define the following terms:
autocrine paracrine endocrine juxtacrine intracrine |
autocrine – self
paracrine – near endocrine – systemic juxtacrine – adjacent; membrane-bound ligand intracrine – pre-receptor; enzyme mediated conversion |
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5 factors that influence drug-receptor matching are??
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1. shape of drug (stereochemistry; chirality)
2. size of drug 3. sum of electorstatic and hydrophobic forces 4. nature of D-R interactions 5. type of chemical bonds |
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What are 5 types of chemical bonds?
Which 2 are associated with "goodness of fit?" |
1. Covalent bond
2. hydrogen bond 3. Van Der Waal Forces 4. ionic bonds 5. hydrophobic bonds Hydrogen bonds and Van Der Waal forces are associated with goodness of fit |
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Efficacy (or Max efficacy)?
Potency? |
Efficacy , Max efficacy – the greatest biological effect an agonist can produce
Potency – [drug] required to achieve a certain biological response |
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What are 3 theories related to receptor-effector coupling?
Describe each. |
1. Occupational theory of Drug action - Formation of RD is directly 1:1 proportionate to biological/pharmacological Effect; explains agonists, antagonists, and competitive antagonists.
2.Modified occupational theory of drug action - Formation of RD is not directly 1:1 proportionate to biological/pharmacological Effect.; explains spare receptors and partial agonists 3.Allosteric theory of drug action - Receptor conformation (Ri = inactive; Ra = active) determines level of effect. Drugs can bind to either the Ri or Ra conformation, thereby promoting action or inaction; explains inverse agonists |
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What does the modified occupational theory of drug action explain that the (plain) occupational theory of drug can't?
How about allosteric theory of drug action? |
Modified occupational theory of drug action - explains the concepts of partial agonists and spare receptors
alloesteric theory of drug action explains inverse agonists |
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Spare receptors?
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unused receptors when at maximum biological effect
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What are 4 main type of antagonism? Explain each.
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1. Pharmacological - works through binding to the drug target
2. Chemical - chemically interact within the body to produce antagonism 3. Physiological - produce opposite effects through different receptors 4. Dispositional - alteration in the ADME (pharmacokinetics) resulting in the less drug reaching the target organ and reduced pharmacological effect |
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Name 3 different types of phamacological antagonists.
How does each change the %maximal effect vs. log [drug] graph? |
1. competitive - shifts to the right but same Max effect
2. noncompetitive - shifts down the Max effect 3. irreversible - shifts down the max effect |
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Define the following:
Partial agonist Inverse agonist Potentiation Additive agonism Synergistic agonism |
Partial agonist - Produce lower max responses than full agonists
Inverse agonist - binds to Ri and produces the opposite effect of the agonist Potentiation - makes the receptor more responsive to the agonists Additive agonism - when 2 drugs yield a biological response that equals the sum of the individual drug responses for each drug Synergistic agonism - 2 drugs cause a biological effect greater than the anticipated sum of their pharmacologic effects |
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what are 3 mechanisms of desensitization?
Explain! |
1. Metabolic - increased metabolism due to induction of liver enzymes that more rapidly decrease drug levels
2. cellular adaptive - less receptors 3. homeostatic - environmental cues are associated with drug administration --> bodily rxn in the opposite direction of the drug effect |
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Tachphylaxis?
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Rapid loss of responsivity following a single administration of drug
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What is the main difference b/t the graded dose response curves and the Quantal dose-effect curve
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Graded dose response curve - effect of a single organ or an individual
Quantal dose-effect curve - effect of a drug on a population |
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Define the following terms:
ED50 TD50 TI Certain safety margin |
ED50 – effective dose for 50% of population
TD50 – toxicity dose for 50% population Therapeutic index (TI) = LD50/ED50 Certain safety margin = LD1/ED99 |
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What is the general difference b/t phase 1 and phase 2 reactions of biotransformation?
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Phase 1 - Do not require energy
Phase 2 - Require high energy intermediates |
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What is the general function of phase I and II reactions?
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Phase I - to make drugs more polar by adding polar groups or exposing polar groups.
Phase II - to modify insufficient polar compounds to more hydrophilic compounds |
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What are 4 broad types of Phase I reaction?
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1. microsomal oxidation - uses microsomal cytochrome P450 system, which mediates oxidative reactions
2. nonmicrosomal oxidation - does not use microsomal cytochrome P450 system 3. Reductions 4. Hydrolysis |
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Name 6 different microsomal oxidation reactions.
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1. alphatic or aromatic hydroxylation
2. N-, O-, and S-dealkylation 3. Sulfoxidation 4. N-oxidation or hydroxylation 5. Oxidative deamination 6. Desulfuration |
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Name 3 phase I reactions that do not involve cytochrome P450 system.
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1. Reduction (nitroreduction and azoredcution)
2. Hydrolysis 3. non-microsomal oxidation |
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Name the reaction with the following description:
addition of -OH Phase I or II? |
hydroxylation
phase I |
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Name the reaction with the following description:
removal of methyl group from N, O, or S Phase I or II? |
N, O, S- dealkylation
Phase I |
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Name the reaction with the following description:
adding a carboxyl group ( =O) to S. Phase I or II? |
Sulfoxidation
Phase I |
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Name the reaction with the following description:
addition of -O to N Phase I or II? |
N-oxidation or hydroxylation
phase I |
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Name the reaction with the following description:
replace -NH2 to =O Phase I or II? |
Oxidative deamination
Phase I |
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Name the reaction with the following description:
replace =S with =O Phase I or II? |
desulfuration
Phase I |
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What are 2 types of reduction? Describe
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Nitroreduction - NO2 --> NH2
Azoreduction - breaking the N=N and add -H to each N. |
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Name the reaction with the following description:
addition of water across peptide, amide, or ester bond Phase I or II? |
Hydrolysis
non-microsomal phase I |
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Name 5 Phase II reactions.
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1. Glucuronide conjugation
2. sulfate conjugation 3. N-acetylation 4. O- and N- methylation 5. Glutathione conjugation |
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what are the substrates for Phase II reactions? (2)
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1. Metabolites of phase I rxns
2. Cpds that already contain –OH, -NH2, and COOH |
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Which phase II reaction utilizes UDP-GT?
What is the clinical importance of this reaction? |
Glucuronide conjugation
Clinically important in neonates - bilirubin and biliverdim (products of Heme catabolism) need to be conjugated with glucuronide but neonates lack UDP-GT (glucuronyl transferase) --> accumulation of bilirubin --> jaundice |
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Which phase II reaction utilizes sulfotransferases?
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Sulfate conjugation
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Which phase II reaction is important in detoxifying acetaminophen?
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Glutathione conjugation
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Which phase II reaction is involved in conversion of norepinephrine to epinephrine?
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N-methylation
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Name 7 P450 inducers. (optional)
Mnemonic? |
Quinidine
Barbiturates Phenytoin Rifampin Griseofulvin Carbamazepine St. John's wort "Queen Barb takes Phen-phen and Refuses Greasy CarbS" |
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Name 6 P450 inhibitors (optional)
Mnemonic? |
Isoniazid
Sulfonamides Cimetidine Ketoconazole Erythromycin Graphfruit juice "Inhibitors Stop Cyber-Kids from Eating Grapefruit." |
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What is drug idiosyncrasy?
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a genetically determined abnormal reactivity to a drug
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