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89 Cards in this Set

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Hgb males=
14-18gm/dl
Hgb females=
12-16gm/dl
Hct males=
39-49gm/dl %
Hct females
33-43gm/dl %
RBC males=
4.3 - 5.9 x 10^6 mm^3
RBC females=
3.5 to 5.0 x10^6 mm^3
Reticulocyte count=
0.1-2.4%
MCV=
76-100 um^3
MCH=
27-33pg
MCHC=
33-37gm/dl
ESR males=
0-20mm/hr
ESR females=
0-30mm/hr
serum iron=
60-185ug/dl
TIBC=
250-460ug/dl
%tranferrin saturation
30%
Serum ferritin=
12-200ng/ml
erythropoietin=
2-25IU/L
Folic acid level
1.8-16 ng/ml
Vitamin B12 level=
100-900 pg/ml
Platelet count=
140,000 - 440,000/uL
Relative thrombocytopenia=
<150,000mm^3
Absolute thrombocytopenia=
<20,000mm^3
Bleeding time=
2.5 to 7 min
Prothrombin time (abr)
PT
PT =
12 to 16 sec
What can prolong PT?
defeciency in clotting factors II, V, VII, IX, X; low levels of fribrinogen; very high levels of heparin
What is the goal of anticoagulation therapy for PT?
maintain the ratio between 1.3-1.5 times the control
INR stands for...
International Normalization Ratio
What is the purpose of the INR system?
to standardize PT ratio
An INR of 2-3 is equivalent to what PT ratio?
1.3-1.5
aPTT stands for ...
Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time
aPTT=
24 - 36 secs
What is aPTT used for?
to monitor heparin therapy
What factor does aPTT not measure?
factor VII
What is the goal of anticoagulation therapy for aPTT?
to maintain a ratio of 1.5 to 2.0
Fribrinogen levels =
200-400mg/dL
What does decreased circulating levels of fribrinogen suggest?
a state of active coagulation
Fribrin Degradation Products=
<10ug/dL
An excessive degradation of fibrin and fibrinogen causes an increase in what
FDP
Name some risk factors for developing Thromboembolism
Anti thrombin II deficiency; dysfibrinogenemia; heart disease; immobility; paralysis; obesity; protein C and S deficiency; lupus anticoagulant; trauma; estrgen use; IBD; sickle cell anemia; malignancy; surgery;peripartum period; H/O varicose veins
What is venous stasis?
an alteration or decrease in blood flow in the deep veins of the lower extremities that can lead to formation of thrombi
What is vascular wall injury?
endothelial damage due to mechanical or chemical trauma
When does hypercoagulability occur?
when activation of the coagulation system exceeds the ability of the intrinsic fibrinolytic system to prevent thrombus formation
DVT stands for...
Deep Vein Thrombosis
What are the physical findings of DVT
pain and tenderness; leg swelling;discoloration; increased skin temp;palpable cord; (+) Homan's sign; leg ulcers/infection
What are some commonly employed lab studies for DVT?
doppler ultrasonography; impedance plethysmography; real time ultrasonography; 125I-fibrinogen leg scan; and Venography
What is doppler ultrasonography?
a noninvasive test that measures changes in sound waves to detect changes in venous flow
What is impedance plethysmography?
a noninvasive test that measures changes in electrical resistance which accompanies changes in blood volume
What is real time ultrasonography?
A noninvasive ultrasound which provides a 3-D picture of the deep veins through the use of a transducer
What is 125I-fibrinogen leg scan?
a screening tool in high risk patients or as an adjunctive test to impedance plethsymography in patients with suspected DVT
What is a venography
the most reliable, radio-opaque contrast dye which is injected into a dorsal foot vein or femoral vein providing an outline of the deep venous system of the lower limbs
Where do most thromboemboli originate?
the iliofermoral deep veins
What are less common sources of thromboemboli?
vessels below the knee, pelvic veins, upper extremities, mural thrombi arising from the right side of the heart
What does PE stand for?
Pulmonary Embolism
What are the clinical presentations of suspected PE?
dyspnea, cough, tachypnea, tachycardia, anxiety, sense of impending doom, pleuritic chest pain, hemoptysis, acute right heart failure, cardiovascular collapse, fever
What techniques are used to confirm or rule out PE?
ventilation/perfusion scan and pulmonary angiography
RBC definition is
an actual count of cell per unit of blood
Is the rbc elevated or decreased during polycythemia vera?
elevated
Hemoglobin is...(def)
a direct indicator of the oxygen transport capacity of the blood
Hematocrit is...(def)
the percentage of blood volume that is occupied by erythrocytes
Mean Cell Volume is...(def)
the average volume of the RBC
Mean Cell Hemoglobin is...(def)
the average wieght of the hemoglobin in the RBC
Mean cell hemoglobin concentration is ...(def)
the percent contribution of hemoglobin volume to the total volume of the cell
What does the total reticulocyte count represent?
the total number of circulating immature RBC compared to the RBC
what does the serum iron represent?
the conc of the iron bound to transferrin
What is total iron binding capacity?
an indirect measurement of the serum transferrin
What is ferritin?
the storage form of iron
What is ESR?
the rate at which erythrocytes settle to the bottom of a test tube through forces of gravity
What are some causes of IDA?
inadequate dietary intake; inadequate absorption; increased demand; excess blood loss or disease induced
What are some mechanisms of defeciency in meagloblastic anemia
inadequate intake; malabsorption;inadequate utilization; increased demand
What is the Schilling's test
a test used to distinguish pernicious anemia from other causes of Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
What is normocytic anemia?
anemia where iron availability is adequate but there is ineffective utilization
What is the def. of a normal range?
where 95% of normal people fall
What is the critical value?
a lab result that is far outside the normal range implying morbidity
Define sensitivity.
the chances that a person with a particular disease state will have a positive test result
Define specificity
the chances that a person without a disease will have a negative test result
What is megaloblastic anemia?
Reduced number of cell division with larger then normal RBC
What is pernicious anemia?
Sufficient B12 but defects in/or lack of intrinsic factor leads to malabsorption
What is Romberg's Sign?
a person can't tell where they are in space when their eyes are closed so they bob around
What drugs induce Folic Acid Deficiency?
methotrexate, trimethoprim, triamterene
How many signs do you need to have to be diagnosed with RA?
4 of the 7
What are the 7 criteria for RA
morning stiffness, arthritis of 3 or more joints, artritis of hand joints, symmetric arthritis, rheumatoid nodules, serum rheumatoid factor, and radiographic changes
what is SLE?
multisystemic, chronic inflammatory disease with a course of attenuating exacerbations and remissions
What drugs can induce SLE?
hydralazine, procainamide, isonazid, chlorpropamide, methyldopa, phenytonin, carbamazepine, lithium
how many criteria must a person have to be diagnosed with SLE?
4 of the 10
what are the 10 criteria for SLE?
malar rash, discoid rash, oral ulcers, arthritis, serositis, renal disorder, neurologic disorder, hematologic disorder, immunologic disorder, antinuclear antibody
What does ANA indicate?
presence of antibodies to nonspecific neuclear material
How many criteria must a person have to be diagnosed with gout?
6 of 11
What are the 11 criteria for gout?
exquisite pain involving joint; more then 1 acute attack of arthritis; joint inflammation max w/in 1 day; oligoarthritis; erythrema over involved joint;podagra; tophi; hyperuricemia; complete termination of an acute attack; asymmetrric swelling w/in a joint on radiologic exam