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357 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
T/F Healthcare system plays a major role in the health status of a population
False.

there are many contributing factors to health: habits, genetics, socioeconomic status, environment, but surprisingly the healthcare system plays a very minor role in the health status of a population
_______ is a major contributor to disparities in health

Give two particular examples (US).
socioeconomic status

examples

- life expectancy at 16 is 16 years longer for white men and women living in the richest areas than African Americans living in the poorest (Geronimus, 2001)

- death rate in poorest regions of US exceeds that of Bangladesh
T/F Life expectancy and GDP/capita are directly related up to a point, after which there are other contributing factors
True
List the findings that Emile Durkheim found regarding comparisons of suicide rates between different groups of individuals?
Suicide rates greater in...

- Protestants compared to Catholics

- unmarried people compared to married

- soldiers compared to civilians

- in military officers compared to military privates

- in times of peace compared to times of war (because of improved nationalism)
Who was the first person to point out the social contribution to disease by studying suicide rates?
Emile Durkheim
Sir Michael Marmot was responsible for the Whitewall study, what was the focus of the study?
cardiac risk factors for workers of the civil service
What are the findings of the Whitehall study of cardiac risk factors for workers of the British civil service?
highest risk for dying from heart disease was a person’s rank

low rank > clerical > professional/executive> administrative

relative risks determined were significant even after adjusting for confounders
Using Hill's criteria, how can we interpret the results of the Whitewall study?
strong (large) relative risks tend to be causal

Whitehall Study showed a very probable causal relationship between rank and risk for heart disease death

the risk factor of rank was a better determinant of whether someone dies from heart disease than all cardiac risk factors combined
Whitehall study.

Besides heart disease, what other two conditions show the relationship between lower rank and a higher risk of disease?
stroke, cancer
Compare the effect of per capita income on mortality with the effect of income inequality on mortality.
effect of income inequality on mortality

more significant


than per capita income on mortality

note: your health/mortality is about where you are relative to those around you
Moving from egalitarian populations to populations with extreme disparities in economic income has what impact on life expectancy?
decreases LE
Who made this claim?

"the decline in overall mortality in the 20th century was not a result of the advances of medicine; most of the decline occurred before modern medical care "
McKinlay and McKinlay (US 1977) and McKeown (UK)
McKinlay and McKinlay (US 1977) and McKeown (UK) claimed that the decline in overall mortality in the 20th century was due to what four factors?
#1: improvement in the nutritional status of the population

#2: improvements in living environment and non-medical technology

#3 impact of hygiene and public health measures (improving water quality and sewage disposal)

#4: demographic changes (reduction in family size and parity)
McKinlay and McKinlay did admit that there were 5 diseases that did benefit from medical intervention:

What are they?
influenza,
pneumonia,
diphtheria,
whooping cough
poliomyelitis

vaccination resulted in 3.5% of the mortality decline
What is the single biggest medical intervention that’s contributed to improvement in mortality?
vaccinations
Health Field Concept
put money to improve factors which will have the biggest impact on the health of a population

- biological factors
- environment: defined as factors over which people don’t have control (air pollution, water pollution, etc)

- lifestyle factors: defined as factors over which people do have control (smoking, diet, exercise, alcohol intake, etc)
Historically what would governments do to try to improve healthcare?
put money into improving healthcare services (more hospitals, better training, new equipment, etc)
According to the CDC in 2000, the ten great public health achievements are:
vaccinations
heart disease and stroke
safer workplaces
family planning
safer and healthier foods
tobacco use
motor vehicle safety
mothers and babies
infectious disease
fluoridation of drinking water
Why, as physicians, should we be good role models for health for our patients?
studies have shown that pts of doctors who have healthy lifestyles are healthier than pts of doctors who do not have healthy lifestyles
What are different BMI ranges?
≤ 25 normal
25-29.9 overweight
30-34.9 Stage I obesity
35-39.9 Stage II obesity
≥ 40 Stage III obesity
What are the two ways to calculate BMI?
BMI = weight in kg/ (height in m)^2

BMI = 703 x weight in lbs/(height in in.)^2
BMI: 23
Normal
BMI: 27
Overweight
BMI: 33
Stage I Obesity
BMI: 38
Stage II Obesity
BMI: 45
Stage III Obesity
NHANES studies show that the number of overweight or obese individuals in the US is rising

What were the findings?
1/3 of the US population is obese (BMI>30.0)

- obesity is the second leading cause of preventable death (after smoking),

obesity will soon become the #1 leading cause of preventable death
What are some conditions that follow obesity?
hypertension, type 2 diabetes, coronary artery disease, stroke, and certain cancers
What is the goal for obesity for Healthy People 2010?
decrease obesity by 15%
BMI must be interpreted carefully because it is intended for who?
only for sedentary adults
In children BMI tends to ____ fat

In elderly BMI tends to _____ fat

In body builders BMI tends to ____ fat
overestimate fat in children and body builders

underestimate fat in elderly
What is the recommended rate of body weight loss/wk for adults?
lose <3 lbs per week
What are the recommendations for duration and frequency of moderate exercise for weight loss?
moderate intensity exercise for at least 30 minutes on 5 or more days per week (CDC)
What are the recommendations for duration and frequency of intense exercise for weight loss?
vigorous intensity exercise for at least 20 minutes on 3 or more days per week (Healthy People 2010)
Public Health Efforts to Control Obesity

disclosure:
nutritional labels
Public Health Efforts to Control Obesity

Tort liability, what suits have been attempted?
many have tried to sue fast food restaurants for making them fat; so far these lawsuits have been dismissed
Public Health Efforts to Control Obesity

surveillance:
some states want to make Type II diabetes reportable to the Health Department so that HbA1C levels can be monitored
Public Health Efforts to Control Obesity

targeting children and adolescents: What is the biggest problem?
the biggest problem in this population is soda
Public Health Efforts to Control Obesity

tax unhealthy food:
Canada has “sin taxes” for smoking, gas, and alcohol; some want to include unhealthy food in this tax
Public Health Efforts to Control Obesity

school policies to reduce obesity in adolescents and children?
more and more schools are banning soda and are developing healthier cafeteria menus
Public Health Efforts to Control Obesity

the built environment:
communities are greatly affected by the way they are designed- sidewalks encourage more walking
Public Health Efforts to Control Obesity

food prohibitions:
NYC has banned all trans fats
USPSTF makes what general recommendations?
recommendations only for hyperlipidemia and other coronary risk factors or diet-related chronic disease

general trend has been a movement from disease-specific recommendations to broad ones
The Institute of Medicine gives what recommendations for macronutrient intake?
- 20-35% calories from total fat

- 45-65% calories from carbohydrates

- 10-35% calories from protein

- 1 drink a day for women, 2 drinks a day for men

- minimize trans fats
Give short descriptions of the three types of vaccines and and examples of each.
- inactivated: microorganism is killed
- ex: influenza

- live attenuated: a weakened form of the microorganism that still activates the formation of Ab’s
- ex: rubella

- toxoid: a product of the microorganism you’re vaccinating against
- ex: tetanus
What are the two types of vaccinations?
- active: life-long immunity for the individual- this is what makes herd immunity possible

- passive: immunoglobulins given as treatment or prophylaxis following high risk exposures
- ex: a high risk rabies or tetanus exposure
_______ the interval between doses of a multidose vaccine does not diminish the effectiveness of the vaccine
increasing the interval between doses of a multidose vaccine does not diminish the effectiveness of the vaccine
______ the interval between vaccinations may interfere with Ab response and protection
decreasing the interval between vaccinations may interfere with Ab response and protection
Although vaccine reactions are generally rare, when they do occur you should report the incident to ______
Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System
Vaccine contraindication:

Definition
a condition in a recipient that greatly increases the chance of a serious adverse reaction
Vaccine precaution:

Definition
a condition in a recipient that might increase the chance or severity of an adverse reaction or might compromise the ability of the vaccine to produce immunity
If there is a contraindication present, the vaccine ______ (decision)
the vaccine should not be administered if there’s a contraindication
If there is a precaution present, the vaccine ______ (decision)
- administration should be decided on a case-by-case basis if there’s a precaution
permanent contraindications to vaccination (2)
- severe allergic reaction to a vaccine component or following a prior dose
- encephalopathy not due to another identifiable cause occurring within 7 days of pertussis vaccination (applies only to pertussis-containing vaccines)
If a patient tells you that he had an allergic reaction to a vaccine how should you proceed?
ask them what symptoms they experienced; often “allergic reaction” is used liberally and a vaccination is still recommended
What types of vaccines are not recommended for pregnant women?
- live vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant

- HPV and Tdap vaccine should be deferred during pregnancy
What types of vaccines are acceptable to give to pregnant women?
in general, inactivated vaccines may be administered to pregnant women for whom they are indicated
Describe three conditions that can cause a patient to be immunosuppressed.
- disease: congenital immunodeficiency, leukemia or lymphoma, and generalized malignancy

- chemotherapy: alkylating agents, antimetabolites, and radiation

- the most common drugs that causes immunosuppression are corticosteroids
Describe the corticosteroid dosing that can make a patient immunosuppressed and how this relates to the decision to vaccinate.
20 mg or more per day of prednisone for more than 14 days does affect immunosuppression and possibly vaccination- do NOT give vaccine

- for pediatric populations: 2 mg/kg or more per day of prednisone for more than 14 days does affect immunosuppression and possibly vaccination- do NOT give vaccine
T/F Corticosteroids administered topically or via aerosol do not prevent you from giving a vaccine
True

- corticosteroids administered via aerosols or topically do NOT cause significant enough immunosuppression to affect vaccination
T/F Short course corticosteroids (less than 14 days) does not result in immunosuppresion and vaccination is acceptable at this time.
True

short courses of corticosteroids (less than 14 days) and alternate day corticoid treatments do NOT cause significant enough immunosuppression to affect vaccination
Immunosuppressed individuals:

Live vaccine?

Inactivated vaccine? - caveats?
live vaccines should not be administered to severely immunosuppressed persons

- inactivated vaccines are safe to use in immunosuppressed persons but the response to the vaccine may be decreased
Immunosuppressed individuals:

What vaccinations are recommended for people who live around the immunosuppressed?
receive MMR and varicella vaccines and annual influenza vaccination
Should we vaccinate individuals with these conditions/situations?

- mild illness
- severe illness
- antimicrobial therapy
- disease exposure or convalescence
- pregnant or immunosuppressed person in the household
- breastfeeding
- preterm birth
- allergy to products not present in vaccine or allergy that’s not anaphylactic
- FH of adverse events
- tuberculin skin testing
- multiple vaccines
Yes

these are not valid contraindications
T/F It is fine to vaccinate during acute or mild illnesses
True

- there’s no evidence that acute illness reduces vaccine efficacy or increases vaccine adverse reactions

- mild illness, such as otitis media or an upper respiratory infection, is NOT a contraindication to vaccination
recommendation for routine vaccination up to age ___ was added to the other recommendations for the influenza vaccine
18
zoster vaccine is recommended for pts older than ___ years to prevent shingles
60
What are some measures of Vaccination Effectiveness for intervention and case-control studies?
- for intervention study:
[AR(unvaccinated) – AR (vaccinated)] / AR (unvaccinated)
where AR = attack rate
- for case-control study: 1-OR where OR is odds ratio
Coronary Artery Disease

non-modifiable risk factors :
male gender, FH, and age
Coronary Artery Disease

modifiable risk factors :
cigarette smoking,
diabetes,
hypertension,
sedentary lifestyle,
excess weight,
hyperlipidemia, and
socioeconomic status
CAD patients who are diagnosed after an incident must undergo ____ prevention
tertiary
The Framingham Risk Score serves what function as related to CAD?
ID at risk individuals

- primary prevention of CAD begins with assessment of individual risk in asymptomatic individuals
What must we consider when using Framingham Risk Scores?
designed for adults > 20 yrs who do not have heart disease or diabetes

- scores come from data for white males because this was the Framingham cohort
What hard CAD outcomes do the Framingham Risk Scores predict?
score estimates as a percentage the 10-year risk for “hard” CAD outcomes (MI and coronary death)
hard outcomes
outcomes with reproducible clinical findings
soft outcomes
outcomes that are not reproducible clinically
What factors are taken into account when calculating the Framingham Risk Score?
age,
total cholesterol,
HDL cholesterol,
systolic BP,
treatment for hypertension, and cigarette smoking
What is the target for treatment of patients with Coronary Artery Disease and why?
LDL cholesterol remains the primary target of therapy because it is the risk factor we have the most data on
_____ is not a factor in the Framingham Risk Score, but it can be used to provide additional information (it’s an independent predictor for CAD)
BMI
If a patient has both a high LDL and BMI what is true about the predicted FRS?
The patient has a higher risk of CAD than predicted by the FRS
What management is recommended for patients that have a FRS of

<10%
Lifestyle modification
What management is recommended for patients that have a FRS of

10-20%
Test for atherosclerosis (CRP, stress testing, electron-beam CT, etc) followed by interventions as indicated
What management is recommended for patients that have a FRS of

>20%
Aggressive interventions (lipid-lowering agents, etc.)
FRS 18%, 130 LDL, 40 BMI

What should you do?
Most likely aggressive interventions.

Since the patient has high LDL and BMI, the risk for CAD is higher than predicted by FRS
Describe the ranges for blood pressures in terms of being normotensive, prehypertensive, stage I hypertension, stage II hypertension
normotensive <120/<80

prehypertensive 120-139/80-89

stage I hypertension 140-159/90-99

stage II hypertension >160/>100

(way to remember: normal 120/80
each range goes up 20/10.)
T/F Lifestyle modification is recommended for all patients regardless of BP
True
T/F Normotensive and prehypertensive patients normally do not require antihypertensive drugs
True

exception: patients with renal dysfunction could benefit from using an ACE I
Hypertension I, what drug do you use?
thiazide
Hypertension II, what drugs do you use?
thiazide and either a β-blocker or an ACE inhibitor
What is the target BP for individuals who are hypertensive w/o diabetes or renal disease?
<140/90
What is the target BP for individuals with renal disease or diabetes?
goal BP is < 130/80
According to the AHA what are the normal values for

Total Cholesterol
HDL
LDL
Triglycerides
- total cholesterol: less than 200 mg/dL

- HDL: 60 mg/dL or above

- LDL: less than 100 mg/dL

- triglycerides: less than 150 mg/dL
Screening of lipids typically starts with what two measurements?
Total cholesterol or HDL

pts do not need to fast before the test
Patients with a total cholesterol > ____ need to have a fasting lipid profile
>200
Lipid screening should start at __ for men and __ for women

- levels should be rechecked every __ years

High risk individuals should be screened at ____
35 yo for men
45 yo for women
- checked every 5 years

high risk individuals should be screened 20 yo
What recommendations should be given to individuals who do not have symptomatic CAD?
lifestyle modifications should be recommended before medications unless pt has symptomatic CAD
Diabetics:
What is the recommended HgA1C?

What drug can reduce risk of nephropathy?
- tight control of glucose reduces complications from diabetes

- goal is to keep HbA1C < 7%

- use of ACE inhibitors reduces risk of nephropathy
What public health efforts have helped to reduce TB incidence?
- greater institutional resources targeting high risk populations (health care workers)

- greater public health resources to ensure compliance with treatment

- directly observed therapy (DOT) lead to increase in compliance from 38% in 1993 to 78% in 2000

- reduced the number of people who would not finish their course of antibiotics which was responsible for antibiotic resistant TB
5 challenges to TB control (CDC):
1. prevalence of TB among foreign-born persons residing in US

2. delays in detecting and reporting cases of pulmonary TB

3. deficiencies in protecting contacts of persons with infectious TB and in preventing and responding to TB outbreaks

4. persistence of a substantial population of persons living in the US with latent TB (LTBI) who are at risk for progression to TB disease

5. maintaining clinical and public health expertise in an era of declining TB incidence (The Paradox of Public Health)
3 core elements of TB control:
1. case detection and management

2. contact investigations

3. targeted testing and treatment of LTBI
Foreign Born individuals contribute to what percentage of TB?
foreign-born persons account for 53% of TB cases in the US (Asian-born persons account for 29.4% alone)
______ to _____% of persons with close exposure to a pt with pulmonary TB become infected
- 30-40% of persons with close exposure to a pt with pulmonary TB become infected
TB is transmitted by _____
droplet nuclei
What is true about LTBI individuals in terms of transmission and development of the disease?
- these persons are asymptomatic and can’t transmit TB, but if put on immunosuppressive therapy, could become symptomatic and contagious
Why is TB impossible to eradicate completely?
this population of LTBI makes eradication of TB nearly impossible, but because most with LTBI are in the elderly population, as that generation dies, eradication may be possible
Why isn't the BCG vaccine for TB recommended in the US?
- the BCG vaccine (administered widely worldwide) is not recommended in the US because

it only gives partial protection and

it confounds the results of the TB skin test

(people with the BCG vaccine will have a positive skin test, not allowing us to determine if it’s because of the vaccine or because they actually have TB)
TB Skin Testing with PPD for Healthcare Workers:

What is the procedure and why are we doing it this way?
1. perform baseline testing on all new employees with potential for exposure

2. perform 2-step, baseline PPD tests on those with negative results on initial PPD

- 2 step testing is necessary due to the amnestic response: people with TB or the BCG vaccine may test negative at first but on the second test are positive

- knowing which pts have the BCG vaccine prevents interpretation of a positive TB test during a TB outbreak as having TB when the person really does not

3. perform periodic (usually annual) follow-up

4. perform test following suspected TB exposure and repeat at 12 weeks
+ PPD’s are evaluated for active disease and treated
What is a positive PPD for an individual with one of these features?

- HIV infection or risk factors for HIV infection
- recent close contact with persons who have active TB
- fibrotic chest radiographs (consistent with healed TB)
Positive PPD > 5 mm
What is a positive PPD for an individual with one of these features?

- high risk groups: injection drug users; persons wit other medical conditions that increase risk of active TB; and children < 4 y.o.

- high prevalence groups: persons born in countries with high prevalence of TB; persons from medically underserved, low-income populations; and residents of long-term-care facilities
Positive PPD > 10 mm
What is a positive PPD for an individual with one of these features?

People not in high risk categories...
Positive PPD > 15 mm
What is the limitation of direct measurement of alcohol consumption?
direct measurement (blood alcohol) only indicates recent consumption
T/F Biochemical anomalies and work performance are not good measures of alcohol consumption
True

- biochemical abnormalities are not sensitive (many alcoholics do not have abnormal biochemical results)
- performance measures (work) are not sensitive or specific; many alcoholics are very good at their jobs
T/F Physician recommendations regarding alcohol use are particularly powerful, especially in male patients
True
What is the most sensitive and specific screening test for alcohol?
CAGE questionnaire
____ is most important for screening tests
sensitivity
____ increases as prevalence increases
+ predicitive value
T/F A screening tool is should be used if we can intervene after receiving a + result
True
In clinical practice most patients that undergo screening are _____ _____
falsely +
Screening

Requirements of the Disease (3)
1. outcome must be serious and justify use of resources

2. earlier detection should mean improved outcome

3. prevalence must be sufficiently high to justify the test
Screening

Requirements of the Test (3)
1. quick, easy, and cheap (because will screen huge #’s of people)

2. safe and acceptable

3. a valid screening test must exist
Bias
- 3 forms of bias can occur when evaluating screening tests
1. volunteer bias: people who are screened tend to be healthier which makes the screening test look better than it actually is

2. lead time bias:all screening tests have a lead time so it’s important that the lead time be corrected for when comparing the effect of screening tests on time between diagnosis and mortality

- if lead time is not corrected for, a screening test will look better than it actually is

3. length bias: not all diseases follow the same natural history and screening works better for pts with milder forms of disease because there is more of a chance that screening will catch them before they develop symptoms and early therapy helps improve outcome
volunteer bias: (in terms of screening)
people who are screened tend to be healthier which makes the screening test look better than it actually is
lead time bias: (in terms of screening
- all screening tests have a lead time so it’s important that the lead time be corrected for when comparing the effect of screening tests on time between diagnosis and mortality

- if lead time is not corrected for, a screening test will look better than it actually is
Length bias: (in terms of screening)
not all diseases follow the same natural history and screening works better for pts with milder forms of disease because there is more of a chance that screening will catch them before they develop symptoms and early therapy helps improve outcome
What are some characteristics of length bias in screening?
- length bias is a form of Neyman bias: a cross-section always sees more forms of milder disease

- length bias is very difficult to quantify and control
Why isn't lung cancer screening recommended?
due to both lead-time bias and length bias
Why do we see overdiagnosis in screening?
- overdiagnosis appears as an extreme form of length bias

- in theory, screening may identify some cases you wouldn’t otherwise know about and such cases would die of other causes (therefore early screening and diagnosis does nothing to improve these pt’s outcomes)
Screening

Requirements for Health Care System
1. follow-up available for positive results

2. treatment available

3. how to handle findings
Are regular checkups scheduled? Are they effective?

What considerations do we need to make on an individual basis?
- is performed when a pt is seen for some other reason
- ex: 50 y.o. pt coming in for back pain should be asked about colonoscopy

- regular check-ups are not done for most pts

- exceptions: infants, elderly, and pregnant women should all have regular check-ups

- no trial has ever demonstrated that a periodic health examination leads to a reduction in mortality or morbidity
- must weigh risks and benefits with your pt
- ex: it may not be worth the risk to do a colonoscopy on a healthy 86 y.o. pt
- be selective
- special efforts needed for those with less access
infants, elderly, and pregnant women should all have ____ check-ups
regular
community-level and policy interventions may be more effective than ____ ____
regular checkups
Why not screen all adult women with annual mammograms?
- false positives:
- 86% in women >50
- 97% in women 40-49

- false negatives:
- 10% in women > 50
- 25% in women 40-49
What are the three measures for recommendations by the USPSTF
- internal validity of individual studies rated from I to III

- quality of evidence overall graded good, fair, or poor

- strength of recommendations from A to I
USPSTF

Describe I-III categorization
I: evidence obtained from at least 1 properly randomized controlled trial

II-1: evidence obtained from well-designed controlled trials without randomization

II-2: evidence obtained from well-designed cohort or case-control analytic studies, preferably from more than one center or research group

II-3: evidence obtained from multiple time series with or without intervention; dramatic results in uncontrolled experiments (such as results of introduction of penicillin treatment in 1940s) could also be regarded as this type of evidence

III: opinions of respected authorities based on clinical experience, descriptive studies or case reports, or reports of expert committees
USPSTF

Describe the good, fair, poor categorizations
Good: evidence includes consistent results from well-designed, well-conducted studies in representative populations that directly assess effects on health outcomes

Fair: evidence sufficient to determine effects on health outcomes but strength is limited by number, quality, or consistency of individual studies or consistency of individual studies, generalizability to routine practice, or indirect nature of evidence on health outcomes

Poor: evidence is insufficient to assess the effects on health outcomes because of limited number or power of studies, important flaws in design or conduct, gaps in chain of evidence, or lack of information on important health outcomes
USPSTF

Describe the A to I recommendations
A: USPSTF strongly recommends that clinicians provide the service to eligible pts because it found good evidence that the service improves important health outcomes and concludes that benefits substantially outweigh harms

B: USPSTF recommends that clinicians provide the service to eligible pts because it found at least fair evidence that the service improves important health outcomes and concludes that benefits outweigh harms

C: USPSTF makes no recommendation for or against provision of the service because it found at least fair evidence that the service can improve health outcomes but the balance of benefits and harms is too close to justify a general recommendation

D: USPSTF recommends against providing the service to asymptomatic pts because if found at least fair evidence that the service is ineffective or that harms outweigh benefits

I: USPSTF concludes that the evidence is insufficient to recommend for or against routinely providing the service because evidence that the service is effective is lacking, of poor quality, or conflicting and the balance of benefits and harms can’t be determined
ID the USPSTF category:

evidence obtained from at least 1 properly randomized controlled trial
I
ID the USPSTF category:

evidence obtained from well-designed controlled trials without randomization

evidence obtained from well-designed cohort or case-control analytic studies, preferably from more than one center or research group

evidence obtained from multiple time series with or without intervention; dramatic results in uncontrolled experiments (such as results of introduction of penicillin treatment in 1940s) could also be regarded as this type of evidence
II-1
II-2
II-3
ID the USPSTF category:

opinions of respected authorities based on clinical experience, descriptive studies or case reports, or reports of expert committees
III
ID the USPSTF category:

evidence includes consistent results from well-designed, well-conducted studies in representative populations that directly assess effects on health outcomes
good
ID the USPSTF category:

evidence sufficient to determine effects on health outcomes but strength is limited by number, quality, or consistency of individual studies or consistency of individual studies, generalizability to routine practice, or indirect nature of evidence on health outcomes
fair
ID the USPSTF category:

evidence is insufficient to assess the effects on health outcomes because of limited number or power of studies, important flaws in design or conduct, gaps in chain of evidence, or lack of information on important health outcomes
poor
ID the USPSTF category:

USPSTF strongly recommends that clinicians provide the service to eligible pts because it found good evidence that the service improves important health outcomes and concludes that benefits substantially outweigh harms
A - you should do it
ID the USPSTF category:

recommends that clinicians provide the service to eligible pts because it found at least fair evidence that the service improves important health outcomes and concludes that benefits outweigh harms
B - you should do it
ID the USPSTF category:

USPSTF makes no recommendation for or against provision of the service because it found at least fair evidence that the service can improve health outcomes but the balance of benefits and harms is too close to justify a general recommendation
C - you might consider doing it given the circumstances
ID the USPSTF category:

USPSTF recommends against providing the service to asymptomatic pts because if found at least fair evidence that the service is ineffective or that harms outweigh benefits
D - Not recommended
ID the USPSTF category:

USPSTF concludes that the evidence is insufficient to recommend for or against routinely providing the service because evidence that the service is effective is lacking, of poor quality, or conflicting and the balance of benefits and harms can’t be determined
I - you might consider this on a case-case basis
Describe the transition of industrial medicine -> occupational and environmental health/medicine.
industrial -> occupational -> occupational health -> occupational and environmental health/medicine
Occupational health deals with the interface between medicine and work, taking into account the 2 mirrored aspects:
1. work-related health effects: diseases or injuries that occur as a result of work

2. health-related work effects: diseases or injuries that affect work (but are not caused by the work)
Define Injury

give an example based on acids
- injury: one exposure or multiple in rapid succession
- ex: splash strong acid on hands leads to burn
Define disease

give an example based on acids.
disease: prolonged exposure
- ex: getting dilute acid on hands for 1 month leading to irritant dermatitis
What is more common in the workplace, injury or disease?
injury
Define Environmental Health
- impact of the environment on human health

- looks at air, water, food, etc
- follows logically from occupational health
- ex: air pollution, climate change, environmental lead, PCB exposure
Occupational and environmental health focuses on _______ with emphasis on _______
preventive, population-based feature

on dermatology, pulmonary medicine, musculoskeletal, and industrial (not pharmaceutical) toxicology
T/F Occupational conditions are the same as their non-occupational counterparts
True
Occupationally-related conditions must be distinguished by _________
history of occupational exposure
Physician’s Role in Occupational Health
1. prevention of work-related disease/injuries

2. identifying when a disease or injury is work-related

3. filing and managing workers’ compensation claims

4. advising on ability of pt to work (this applies to conditions that are either work-related or are not)

5. treating work-related medical conditions like back pain, skin disorders, lung disorders
Classifying a condition as "work-related" means what probability of that it was actually work related?
>50% (probable)
Outcomes for a patient who has been off work can be improved by ____
reducing the amount of time that they are off work
What is the single most important predictor of a worker returning to work?
time off work

by 6 months off work, 90% of people will never return to work
Why is being off work detrimental to one's health in terms of social hierarchy?
being off work puts pts at the bottom of the social hierarchy which is detrimental for their health
What did Gordon Waddell describe in the occupational health paradigm and what are the consequences of being away from work?
he found that long-term worklessness is one of the greatest risks to health for many reasons:

- loss of fitness, 2-3 x’s risk of poor health, depression, 2-3 x’s risk of mental illness, 20% excess deaths

- long-term worklessness is a greater risk than many “killer diseases”

- long-term worklessness is a greater risk than most dangerous jobs (construction, mining, etc)

- workless pts are trapped on benefits to retirement age and experience social exclusion and poverty
Describe why re-employment of workers who have been of work is beneficial and also a caveat to this.
re-employment improves physical and general health and well-being, improves mental health,

and the magnitude of improvement cause by re-employment is comparable to the harmful effects of losing a job but these improvements do depend on the quality and security of the re-employment

(if there’s a persisting risk of poor employment patterns and further unemployment, then improvements are minimal)
What attitude of work is currently held and should be changed? Changed to what?
work as a risk and potentially harmful to physical and mental health; therefore, they think that medical leave “protects” them

the opposite is really true: work is healthy, therapeutic, and the best form of rehab; this is why sending a pt back to work is preferred over sending a pt to rehab
What factors contribute to 2/3 of individuals who are off work?
less severe medical conditions: common mental health problems, musculoskeletal conditions, cardio-respiratory conditions
What are some non-organic reasons that people are off work?
- essentially whole people with what should be manageable health conditions

- high prevalence in working age population

- largely subjective: little or no disease or impairment

- multifactorial causation: work is usually only 1 of many contributory factors

- most episodes settle rapidly but are persistent and recurrent

- most people remain at work or return to work quite quickly
Common health problems should be considered in a ______ context.

Also therapy should focus on _____ _____, not symptoms
social

restoring function
Describe the hierarchy of the prevention pyramid.
substitution elimination (top)
engineering controls
administrative controls
Personal Protective Equipment (bottom)

Effectiveness is highest at top
Human involvement is lowest at top
In terms of prevention, what are the least and most favorable methods?
Least favorable: Personal Protective Equipment

Most favorable: substitution/elimination
(technology is second)
T/F Chronic pain and depression go hand in hand
True

- people who are depressed are more likely to have chronic pain

- people who have chronic pain are more likely to be depressed
Martin’s Law
“the difficulty negotiating a claim through a Worker’s Compensation system is inversely proportionate to the clinical severity of the condition”

- the milder the condition, the harder it is to get a claim negotiated
Chronic pain syndrome (according to sanders, et. al)
- pain of at least 3 months duration consistent with or out of proportion to physical findings

- progressive deterioration in ability to function at home, socially, and at work

- progressive increase in health care utilization (tests, expensive treatments, seeing many
specialists)

- mood disturbance
- clinically significant anger and hostility
the AMA criteria for chronic pain syndrome (the 8 “D’s”)
1. duration: >6 months

2. dramatization

3. diagnostic dilemma: physicians can’t agree on diagnosis

4. drugs: often pt has been prescribed opioids

5. depression

6. disuse: pts stop using parts of their body

7. dysfunction

8. dependence: pt becomes dependent on a social system for life functions
What is the #1 reason for activity limitations?
Musculoskeletal problems
What are some of the statistics on WV on basis of lost work time and people staying off work after being injured?
WV has the highest proportion of FT workers suffering lost injuries in the US (WV 48%, nationally 29%) and has the nation’s worst record for getting injured workers back on the job (in WV 1 in 3 workers stay off more than 1 month while the national average is 1 in 5 workers)
T/F Even though most people recover from chronic pain, there still is a tremendous cost associated with chronic pain
True

25% of lower back pain cases contribute to 90% of chronic pain costs
acute back pain definition, general presentation.
defined as pain less than 6-8 weeks in duration

- most pts with low back pain show no evidence of disease or structural abnormality (Waddell)
- 80-90% of low back pain episodes remit in 6-8 weeks
What do you do for acute back pain, in the absence of red flags?
do not do any tests (explain to the pt that no tests are indicated); tell the pt to continue regular activities and to take NSAIDs for the pain; the most important thing a physician can do for these pts is reassure them**
Bed rest is not generally recommended for individuals with back pain. If you do suggest it, it should be for ____
less than 3 days
Acute back pain is self resolving (total resolution by week 8 in ____% of patients

100% of the remaining patients will still have problems ___ year after
93%

1
T/F Psychosocial factors are more important than biomedical factors in explaining why patients are still have back pain 1 year after wk 8 of acute back pain
True

a prospective study by Burton et al showed that biomedical variables accounted for only 10% of disability at 1 year while psychosocial variables accounted for 59%
- catastrophizing alone accounted for 47% of disability
What problems are associated with treating back pain problems?
- a medical diagnosis is only useful when there’s an understanding of pathophysiology and therefore there are objective abnormalities which can be seen on clinical exam or investigations to make diagnosis and to monitor treatment and there is specific treatment

- the problems is that many musculoskeletal conditions are not amenable to traditional medical approach because physicians don’t agree on the causes, don’t agree on the appropriate tests/investigations, and don’t agree on the treatment
T/F Medicalization of nonmedical problems is significant issue
True

pharmaceutical companies have a significant impact on public perception of health problems
more than ___% of the population is taking 1 or 2 prescription drugs; greater than____% is taking 3 or more
more than 40% of the population is taking 1 or 2 prescription drugs; greater than 20% is taking 3 or more
What does polypharmacy mean and is it harmful?
- polypharmacy is when a pt is taking 5 or more drugs-

it has been shown that the adverse effects outweigh the benefit of treatment when a pt is taking this many medications
What does Hadler say about patients with back pain in terms of psychosocial factors?
psychosocial distress and that their pain is an indication of broader distress; pain is a maladaptive but unconscious response
What does Cullen say are the 2 underlying social trends of back pain problems?
1. pts expect to be asymptomatic all the time

2. the culture has shifted so that causes are externalized
T/F Chronic back pain has a signficiant iatrogenic component
True
T/F More testing puts patients at ease as they know something is being done about their condition.
False

tests increase patient fear (encouraging catastrophizing), perpetuate the myth of external cause with quick, passive, medical solution (discouraging pt from taking responsibility), create confusion due to irrelevant findings, and prolong doctor shopping which interferes with rehab
What is the problem with physicians treating chronic back pain in a similar fashion as chronic malignant pain (opiod use)?
increased dependency, unnecessary surgery

We don't actually know the cause of the back pain and we don't know of an effective treatment
To what chronic back pain populations do physicians tend to prescribe more opiods?
older
depressed
personality disorder
history of substance abuse
What are some non-predicitive variables for physicians prescribing opiods over NSAIDS?
medical variables like six-month average pain score, average numbers of encounters, and number of lumbar images
Do we approach back pain at primary or secondary prevention level and what do we do?
At the secondary level

- early identification and management of psychological, occupational, and socioeconomic factors in a pt’s life
- a clinical psychologist with expertise in pain can be very useful
- reassurance*
- avoid the biomedical model
What are Waddell's signs for chronic back pain?
- tenderness: superficial skin tender to light touch or nonanatomic deep tenderness not localized to 1 area

- simulation:
- axial loading pressure on skull of standing pt induces lower back pain when really there is no transfer of force
- rotation of shoulders and pelvis in same plane induces pain in lower back when this movement does not involve the lower back

- distraction: difference in straight leg raising in supine and sitting positions (in both positions, the tension on the nerve root is the same)

- regional:
- weakness in many muscle groups
- sensory loss in a stocking or glove distribution, nondermatomal

- overreaction: disproportionate facial or verbal expression

More than 1 sign indicates a nonbiological cause
T/F Waddell's signs should not be used in elderly patients
True
- in working with chronic low back pain pts:

What should you keep in mind?
- show humility: make sure that you
empathize with the pt and assure them that you believe that they’re in pain

- stop investigating

- wean off the medications

- work with appropriate multidisciplinary rehab facilities

- the physicians role should be peripheral (providing reassurance)

- emphasize function, not pain relief

- pt must move from passive to active role

- ***reassure the pt***
What is the single biggest risk factor for having chronic back pain?
Previous incident of having low back pain
____ and _____ come into the highest contact with occupational exposure
lungs and skin
- in the US, workplaces are fairly safe so the most common occupational diseases are due to _______
- in the US, workplaces are fairly safe so the most common occupational diseases are due to hypersensitivity
hypersensitivity reactions do not follow the standard dose-response criteria

What does this mean?
only a very small amount of exposure is needed to cause disease in a sensitized individual

- further episodes of exposure may pose a risk

- recurrent episodes may cause irreversible disease progression (like asthma)

- complete removal from the exposure may be necessary even if levels are below legal standards because regulatory standards are not designed to protect hypersensitive individuals

- personal protective equipment may not be an acceptable alternative
Gell and Coombs Classification of allergic reactions: what are the four types?
Type I: immediate hypersensitivity or anaphylaxis

Type II: cytotoxic reaction (rarely seen clinically)

Type III: immune complex reaction (rarely seen clinically)

Type IV: delayed-type or cell-mediated
Type I: Immediate Hypersensitivity

Please describe it and give some examples.
- examples of Type I reactions include allergic rhinitis, allergic conjunctivitis, asthma, urticaria, latex allergy, and anaphylaxis (sudden drop in BP accompanied by bronchoconstriction)

- atopy: a predisposition to getting Type I reactions

- Type I reactions are immediate and involve the release of pre-formed antibodies from mast cells
atopy
a predisposition to getting Type I reactions
Type I reactions are ______ and involve the release of pre-formed antibodies from mast cells
Type I reactions are immediate and involve the release of pre-formed antibodies from mast cells
- the presence of ____ to a certain antigen indicates that the pt is sensitized to that antigen but not necessarily that the pt has the hypersensitivity reaction/disease
IgE

- the presence of IgE to a certain antigen indicates that the pt is sensitized to that antigen but not necessarily that the pt has the hypersensitivity reaction/disease
Type IV: Delayed or Cell-Mediated Immunity

Please describe it and give some examples
- Type IV reactions are a result of the activation of T cells by macrophage antigen presentation; activated T cells release cytokines, recruiting more inflammatory cells to the site which results in a localized granulomatous inflammation

- symptoms usually develop in 48-72 hours post-exposure

- examples of Type IV reactions include contact allergic dermatitis, PPD testing, and Mantoux testing

- unlike Type I, Type IV reactions are not immediate and do not involve antibodies
Patch tests are used to determine _____ allergic reactions
Type IV
- there’s no blood test for Type IV reactions because no ________ are involved
- there’s no blood test for Type IV reactions because no immunoglobulins are involved
Describe the two categories of functional lung disease and what disease fall into each.
1. obstructive: this group includes asthma

2. restrictive: this group includes hypersensitivity pneumonitis (HP) and the pneumoconioses like coal worker’s pneumoconiosis (CWP or black lung), silicosis, asbestosis and other asbestos-related disease
- spirometry

Describe what measurements you get out of performing one
- FEV1 is Forced Expiratory Volume at 1 second which is the percent of air expired from the lungs in 1 second

- for a normal person, FEV1 should be 75-85%
- FVC is Forced Vital Capacity which is the volume of air a pt is maximally able to expire and it’s not linked to time
obstructive lung disease

Describe what you see in terms of FEV1 and FVC
there is a normal FVC (except in very advanced disease where it can be decreased) but a decreased FEV1

- obstructive lung disease is diagnosed based on the value of FEV1/FVC

- FEV1 is used to grade severity of obstruction by comparing the obtained FEV1 to a predicted FEV1 for the pt’s body size, age, etc
in restrictive lung disease

Describe what you see in terms of FEV1 and FVC
there is a normal FEV1 but a decreased FVC because of decreased volume capacity of the lungs
- restrictive lung diseases caused reduced lung volumes
- the FEV1/FVC ratio is normal (though it can be abnormal)
What other conditions can lead to low performance on a spirometry test?
poor effort and obesity (obtain similar results as in restrictive lung disease)
spirometry

What kind of measurement do you obtain?
only gives an indirect measure of lung volume so when abnormal spirometry result is obtained, then a direct measurement test should be conducted
plethysmography

What kind of volume measurement do you obtain?
is an example of a direct measurement of lung V- the pt is placed in a sealed chamber where the pressure differential is measured, independent of the pt’s effort- it is the most effective non-invasive, direct test for lung volume
Asthma

What are some basic characteristics of asthma?
- is variable airflow obstruction in response to certain agents

- is an episodic disorder but even between episodes, an inflammatory process is taking place, causing bronchial hyperreactivity

- is the most common occupational lung disease

- 10-15% of all asthma in adults is related to work
Describe hypersensitivity in asthmatics.
many asthmatics have specific triggers and react at very low doses (the Type I aspect of the disease) but these asthmatics also have non-specific bronchial hyperreactivity so that they may react to other agents (dust, smoke, cold air) more easily than non-asthmatics
What must be true in order to diagnose work-related asthma?
There has to be pre-existing asthma
Differentiate between work-related asthma with and without latency.
- asthma without latency (also called “irritant-induced asthma”) is caused by a direct irritant effect which occurs within 24 hours of exposure; no Type I reaction occurs in this type; it can last 3 years or longer

- asthma with latency is more common and involves sensitization over a period of months to years
What does latency refer to when it pertains to asthma?
time period between first exposure and when the pt actually develops asthma
irritant-induced asthma or asthma without latency

What causes it?
is caused by a high-level exposure to irritant gases like chlorine, ammonia, and acid mists
T/F Individuals who experience asthma without latency are not allergic to the material which caused the asthma
True

important to distinguish the type a person has because a person with asthma without latency is not allergic to the material that caused the asthma so they can be re-exposed to it after having recovered without being at greater danger than normal individuals (the same is not true for people with asthma with latency)
asthma with latency is an ______ response
asthma with latency is an allergic response
What is the #1 cause of occupational asthma?
Isocyanates
What are the causes of asthma with latency?
- causes include latex, large molecules (animal dander, detergent enzymes, flour proteins), isocyanates, and wood dust
diagnosing occupational asthma involves 2 steps:
1. diagnose the pt with asthma (a pt can’t have occupational asthma without first having asthma)

2. determine the relationship to work
What does an environmental history entail?
environmental history includes questions about household pets, carpets, home heating, smoking, and dust
What does an occupational history entail?
occupational history includes questions about exposures at work, symptoms worsening at work, etc.
diagnosis of asthma involves _____ and ____
spirometry and the methacholine challenge
Patient potentially has asthma. The spirometry results indicate obstructive lung disease. How do you proceed?
Give bronchodilator

obstruction will be reversed - diagnose as asthma
Patient potentially has asthma. The spirometry results are normal. Are you done? How do you proceed
no.

Do methacholine challenge

asthmatics will experience greater bronchoconstriction at lower concentrations than normal individuals

FEV1 is measured at first after giving pt a saline solution; then the pt is giving increasing levels of methacholine and FEV1 falls more and more; when pt’s FEV1 drops below 75% (compared to the original saline FEV1) the test is stopped ant the pt is given a bronchodilator

- the test is positive if the FEV1 falls 80% below baseline with less than 8 mg/mL methacholine
Methacholine challenge test + result would be?
PD20 <8 mg ml
What is PD 20 and what can we use it for?
is an artificial number that extrapolates what the dose would be when the FEV1 reaches 80%; as PD20 increases, the amount of bronchial hyperrreactivity decreases; PD20 can be used to follow a pt being treated for asthma
What must you do in order to determine if the asthma is work-related?
pt’s history:

peak flow monitoring can be used by the pt to monitor function at home

compare investigations when working and not working

if the PD20 increases or the spirometry normalizes, then work is the cause of the asthma

- you must be confident of the diagnosis before removing the pt from the workplace
What pleural changes are possible in asbestos (a restrictive lung disease)?
1. benign: plaques, thickening, effusions
- benign plaques are the most common radiographic finding after asbestos exposure

2. malignant: mesothelioma (any time a pt has mesothelioma, it’s always an occupational disease
What parenchymal changes can occur due to asbestos exposure?
1. “benign” fibrosis: asbestosis
2. malignant: lung cancer
Smoking can aggravate _____ changes in patients with asbestos.
parenchymal changes
For lung cancer, ______ and asbestos has a synergistic effect
smoking
Asbestosis:
there are small irregular opacities mostly in lower lung zones because the body clears materials in upper lung zones more efficiently
Why is mortality from asbestos increasing despite the fact that it is no longer being used?
There is a long induction period and it takes 20-30 years for the pneumoconiosis to develop
Why does WV has the highest death rate for asbestos in the US?
Because of the numerous steel mills
Coal workers pneumoconiosis

What do we find?

How are levels of CWP changing in WV, KY and TE?
there are small regular opacities in upper lung zones but no pleural changes

- recently levels in WV, KY, and TE are increasing for unknown reasons; in WV, more coal miners who have worked less than 10 years in the mine have more severe cases of CWP than those that were seen in life-long coal miners decades ago
What is the major engineering control that is reducing the risk of CWP?
water spraying in the mines to remove the dust
Acute Silicosis:

What causes it?
results from high level exposure to freshly generated crystalline silica

- it is not a fibrotic lung disease

- is rapidly fatal and involves fluid build-up in the lungs
T/F Acute Silicosis is a fibrotic lung disease
False
What is considered the worst industrial accident in the US?
the worst industrial accident in the US occurred during the digging of the tunnel at Gauley Bridge in the late 1920s where a minimum of 700 workers died within months of exposure (leading to acute silicosis)
Chronic silicosis:

Describe what we find when we look at the lungs.
there are small regular opacities in upper lung zones like in CWP but there may also be larger opacities- no pleural changes (like CWP)

- silica nodules are onion-shaped nodules that can be seen in the lungs of these pts

- pts with chronic silicosis have an increased risk of TB and fungal infections
Describe the B reading classifications
- b-readers classify opacities as regular (p, q, r seen in CWP or silicosis) or irregular (s, t, u seen in asbestosis)

- the letters represent opacities in increasing size as you go down the alphabet

- each reading is given a 2 level classification (like t/t or p/s)
- b-readers also classify grade profusion compared to standard films on a scale from 0 (normal) to 3 (greatest profusion)
What is true about a patient who potentially has pneumoconiosis who doesn't end up having a B-reading?
a pt is not eligible for benefits unless their x-ray has been read by a B-reader
B-reading

What are B-readings and who can perform them?
B-reading is a method to standardize chest x-ray readings of pts with pneumoconiosis; the standardized method was designed by the ILO (International Labor Organization)

- any physician that successfully passes the certification exam can be a B-reader (the exam only has a 50% pass rate)
Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis (HP)

What kind of allergic reaction is it and what happens?
- has elements of both type III and type IV hypersensitivity (mostly type IV)

- it’s a granulomatous disease which follows a spectrum from acute self-limited flu-like illness to chronic fibrotic lung disease
there are 2 steps in the diagnosis of occupationally-related HP:
1. diagnose HP

- observe decrease in FVC on pulmonary function test

- see diffuse granulomatous fibrosis on x-ray

- serological studies can be used because IgG is made (since there’s a type III element of the disease); when the lab does these studies, they do an “HP Panel” but you must tell them what kind of agents you think are most likely to be the cause so they can detect IgG’s made to those agents

2. determine relationship to work/environment
If you patients have "recurrent flu-like symptoms" what do you need to suspect?
The possibility of Hypersensitivity of Pneumonitis
Why was litigation prior to Worker's compensation generally unsuccessful?
the courts believed that you were agreeing to the risks of your job when you accepted a job and many lawyers used the argument of contributory negligence
What problem arose when society moved from agrarian to industrial? How did this contribute into the development of WC?
- as society moved from agrarian to urban/industrialized, work became more dangerous and families became dependent on the father as the sole source of income; thus, a single injury could condemn the family to poverty for the rest of their lives

- employers disliked litigation because the few cases that successfully sued the company would cost huge sums of money, often forcing the company into bankruptcy

WC would become the solution!
When was WC developed and why was this a new step forward?
- most WC systems were developed in the US by 1920

- WC was the first social insurance system to be developed in a country
What does a "no fault" system mean?
- a claim is accepted regardless of who is responsible for the injury
- this is an advantage because it saves money from hiring expensive lawyers for litigation
What are the advantages and disadvantages of WC to the employer?
- advantages for the employer: receive protection from lawsuits

- disadvantages for the employer: more successful claims than with litigation
What are the advantages and disadvantages of WC to the employee?
- advantages for the employee: easier acceptance of claim

- disadvantages for the employee: less money is received if claim is successful
Who funds WC? How are these individuals managing the costs?
- is funded by the employers

there is a “pooled risk”: risk is shared between companies
premiums for WC are charged on payroll based on:
- industry classification
- there is a “pooled risk”: risk is shared between companies

- claims experience
- incentive to improve workplace health and safety
What are the state laws governing WC claims?
claims be filed for conditions which, with a reasonable degree of medical certainty (>50% probability due to work):
- in the course of and
- as a result of performing normal job duties

- when in doubt (think there’s a 50% chance that the injury is due to work), give benefit to the worker
WC includes aggravation but not exacerbation. What is aggravation?
aggravation: pre-existing condition that work makes permanently worse
WC includes aggravation but not exacerbation. What is exacerbation?
exacerbation: a temporary flare-up of a pre-existing condition
WC works on the "thin skull" principle. What does this mean?
applies regardless of the presence of predisposing conditions (“thin skull principle”)
Describe WC compensation claims in WV. #, % people who return to work before 4 days, % people who have lost time (>4 days)
- in WV, there are 40,000 WC claims annually
- 80% of people who make claims return to work before 4 days
- 20% of people have lost time (>4 days)

- a small % of these have “delayed recovery” which accounts for most of the expenses of the system
What is the role of the claims adjuster in regards to WC and should you feel troubled about this?
- determines whether claim is acceptable

- authorizes all investigations and treatments

- determines level of benefits awarded

Yes because they're probably high school graduates!!
To Whom do workers appeal decisions and what happens if the claim is accepted?
Administrative Law Judge or State Supreme Court

- if claim is accepted and worker cannot return to work, then WC pays the worker temporary total disability (TTD) benefits which are 2/3 of their salary (for a maximum of 500 days)
Describe the process from determination of TTD to Maximal Medical Improvement and finally to an impairment rating.
Temporary Total Disability -> assessed by independent medical evaluation (IME) ->determined Maximal medical improvement,

- if the physician deems the worker to be MMI, then use AMA Guides to determine impairment rating
Does the physician performing the independent medical evaluation in a WC treat the patient?
no. only evaluates the patient's condition
Describe how WC affects HIPAA and how we as physicians must act,
by filing a claim, worker entitles all relevant parties (including the employer) to documents relevant to the claim
- WC overrides medical confidentiality laws (HIPAA)

- the worker must send all documentation concerning work-related injury or disease to WC and should include SSN, WC claim #, and date of injury

Physician: only medical information relevant to the injury needs to be sent
- impairment:
impairment: measure loss of structure or function
- is a medical determination by the physician
- describes the impact of the injury/disease on activities of daily living
- disability:
- disability: restriction in activities as a result of an impairment
- is not a medical determination
- instead is highly context specific
There is _____ correlation between impairment and disability
poor.

- workers with very high levels of impairment can have very low levels of disability and vice-versa

Example:
- impairment for a concert pianist and a teacher, both who lost their left arms at the shoulder, is the same, but their disabilities are different (disability is 100% for the pianist)
permanent total disability (PTD):
administrative decision that a person should not go back to work (determined by WC)
Martin’s Law
- “the difficulty negotiating a claim through WC is inversely proportionate to the clinical severity of the condition”
- it’s easier to assess the amputation of an arm than it is to assess back pain
Why do some surgeons refuse to operate on patients who have a WC claim?
studies show that WC can have an adverse effect on medical treatment
What is the biggest work-related cause of disability?
low back pain
Why is the major driving cost of disability Temporary Total Disability (TTD)?

*Updated*
TTD is a 2/3 payment of salary anywhere from 4 days to 500 days
For low back pain what is the greatest source of cost?
- most of the costs for low back pain are due to loss of days at work; though treatment costs are also increasing
Public health is generally the responsibility of the ______ unless there are interstate implications
state
Federal administration of health falls mostly with this organization.

What is the distribution of funding that goes to healthcare (Medicare and Medicaid) and CDC?
Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS)

- more than 80% of the DHHS’s budget was spent on healthcare (Medicare and Medicaid)

- only 0.5% of the budget goes to the CDC
Identify the organization

- “to improve the quality, safety, efficiency, and effectiveness of health care for all Americans”

- responsibilities: research and policy in healthcare organization, financing, and quality

- recent focus has been on medical errors and quality

- organize National Guidline Clearinghouse (NGC) which is a centralized, searchable collection of health guidelines issued by any organization
Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)
Who's mission statement is this?

- “. . . developing and applying disease prevention and control, environmental health, and health promotion and health education activities designed to improve the health of the people of the United States”
CDC
Most public health activities fall under the _____
CDC
activities of the CDC:
- directs control of infectious diseases at federal level
- works with states on disease surveillance and control
- provides information via Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report (MMWR)
- immunization and other preventive programs
- research and training in public health
- research and training in occupation and environmental health (not regulatory functions- these fall under OSHA and the EPA)
- global disease control efforts
regulatory functions of occupation and environmental health fall under the responsibility of what two organizations?
OSHA -work
EPA - environment
ID the organization

“. . . responsible for protecting the public health by assuring the safety, efficacy, and security of human and veterinary drugs, biological products, medical devices, our nation’s food supply, cosmetics, and products that emit radiation”
Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
off label use:
use for indication, dosage form, dose regimen, population use or other parameter no mentioned in the approved labeling
- FDA recognizes that such use by prescribers may be appropriate
- frequent in oncology and pediatrics

- limitations are on the manufacturer: can not promote off label uses
black box warning:
notification of a serious adverse effect
What organization?

- “improving access to health care services for people who are uninsured, isolated, or medically vulnerable”
- ex: the WVU Positive Clinic, a treatment clinic for HIV/AIDS pts
Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA)
What organization?

- “ . . . to raise the physical, mental, social, and spiritual health of American Indians and Alaska Natives to the highest level”
- initiated in 1787
Indian Health Service
Describe NIH funding and its coveted grant. What has happened to funding since 2003?
- intramural funding: funding for research within the NIH

- extramural funding: funding for research outside the NIH

- the R01 research grant includes both direct costs (what it costs to do the research) and indirect costs (money that goes to the university)

- NIH funding has steadily decreased since 2003
Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA)

goals?
- prevention and treatment of mental disorders and addictions
Missions of Public Health
1. promote physical and mental health
2. prevent disease, injury, and disability
10 essential public health services
evaluate
monitor health
Dx and investigate
Inform, educate, empower
Mobilize community partnerships
Develop policies
Enforce laws
Link to/Provide care
Assure competent workforce
research

Circle: Assessment -> policy development -> assurance
Ottawa Charter for Health Promotion

What does the charter suggest?
says we should change from “public health policy” to “healthy public policy” which stresses the importance of healthy communities and the new public health
People 2010 has health promotion and disease control objectives

who coordinates it?

what are the main goals?
- is coordinated by the federal government

- 2 broad goals:

1. increase the quality and years of healthy life

2. eliminate health disparities

- under the goals are 28 focus areas
- also identifies 10 leading health indicators and gives specific targets for each
How is the healthcare system doing?

Are insurance and health compatibile?
- insurance does not work for health

- for life insurance , you’re betting against the insurance company that you’re going to die before they think you will die
- the outcome is rare, tragic, and undesirable
- “moral hazard”:
"tragedy of the commons"

if a service is covered, then a person will use it independent of need
- ex: if an insurance covers massage therapy, many people are likely to use it even if they don’t need it
Insurance Coverage:

Benefits of using employer coverage?
employer-sponsored: company pays bulk of premium
Insurance coverage:

Disadvantages of private insurance?
individual buys own insurance from private insurance company

problems :
- enroll people on a case-by-case basis which is very expensive
- very high deductable
Economists have shown that we pay _____ by not covering everyone than if we covered everyone
more
Medicare
- covers 3 groups of people:
1. elderly (ages 65 +)
2. end-stage renal disease (regardless of age)
3. disability (per Social Security Administration)
Medicare
- financed by (3)?
1. federal income taxes
2. payroll taxes
3. out-of-pocket payments by enrollees because not all care is covered
Medicare

administered by?
Federal government
Medicare

What is part A?
Part A: hospital insurance

- automatic, no premium

- care in hospitals as an inpatient, skilled nursing facilities (not custodial or long-term care), hospice care, and some home health care
Medicare

What is part B?
Part B: supplemental insurance

- optional, premium in $96.40/month (2008)

- doctor’s services, outpatient hospital care, physical and occupational therapy, and some home health care
Medicare

What is part C?
Part C: managed care

- Part A, B, and D services provided by private, managed care organization approved by Medicare
Medicare

What is part D?
Part D: prescription drugs
What are the advantages of Medicare?
Advantage: spending growth generally slower than private insurance
What are the disadvantages of Medicare?
significant coverage gaps: most enrollees obtain supplemental insurance

- Medicare only covers 46% of costs for elderly

- costs are increasing partly due to the aging population but especially due to increased technology
Medicaid

Who is covered?
covers certain low-income individuals but not every poor person is covered
Medicaid

Who administers it?
state government
often out-sourced to non-government administrators
Medicaid

Who funds it?
financed jointly by the state and federal governments
Medicaid

Advantages?
Advantage: benefits are fairly comprehensive
Medicaid

Disadvantages?
Disadvantage: many providers won’t take care of Medicaid pts because the reimbursement levels are so low
What is S-CHIP?
State Children’s Health Insurance Program (S-CHIP)

- supplements Medicaid by covering low-income children who are ineligible for Medicaid

- administered and financed similarly to Medicaid

- similar problems to Medicaid:

- some providers refuse to accept S-CHIP due to low reimbursement rates
- under-enrollment
- eligibility varies by specific populations and states
Veterans Health Administration
- health benefits plan available to all veterans
- services delivered through VA health care facilities (“socialized medicine”)
- financed by the federal government
Indian Health Service
free healthcare for Native Indians and native Alaskans
US HC System Compared to Other Countries in terms of cost

spending per capita? hospital care?
- health care spending per capita in the US is twice that of other comparable countries

- hospital care is the single greatest expense and is constantly increasing

Americans spend more on out-of-pocket health care expenses
At what ages are most of our medical expenses?
- most of healthcare spending is spent on the final years (even months) of life
What is currently the biggest problem in health financing?
- the biggest problem is direct/out-of-pocket payments which are rapidly increasing
Despite the greatest amount of spending on health, US has these problems:

IMR
Life expectancy
Deaths due to surgery mishaps, mistakes

Compare to other countries
- the US has an infant mortality rate twice that of Japan’s
- WV’s infant mortality rate is the highest in US white populations

- the US has the lowest life expectancy after the UK compared to similar countries

- the US has the most deaths due to surgical or medical mishaps

- 1/3 of adults in the US experience duplicative or unnecessary care
health care delivery in the US is described as a “cottage industry”:

what does this mean?
it’s highly fragmented and there’s little communication
We need improved _____ care
Primary
The Medical Home solution
- a comprehensive method of primary care
- pt is assigned to a health care team who coordinates the pt’s care
- in this system, a pt’s hospitalization is seen as a failure
- largely driven by those who pay for health insurance
Trauma:

- the trauma pt is an injured person who requires:
- timely diagnosis and treatment
- of actual and potential injuries
- by a multidisciplinary team of health care professionals
- supported by the appropriate resources
- to diminish or eliminate the risk of death or permanent disability
most trauma cases in the US are due to _______.
most trauma cases in the US are due to motor-vehicle-related crashes
the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)’s mission is
1. save lives
2. prevent injuries
3. reduce economic costs due to road traffic crashes
trauma is extremely expensive:

What are some of the highest contributors to DALY for males?
motor vehicle crashes, homicide, violence, and unintentional injuries accounted for more male DALY’s than ischemic heart disease (CDC and Harvard Study)
the golden hour:

What is the concept? Concept problem?
the period immediately following injury when resuscitation and definitive care improve outcome

- the problem with this concept: people who are dying at the site of the car crash due to failure of reaching them within the first hour of the injury have graver injuries and are still likely to die if EMS had reached them sooner
Injury control

Prevention success depends on:
Public policy – great for the public but not for the individual

Public acceptance

Public funding – funding will be pulled if the public does not approve (e.g. having the top speed limit as 55 mph)
We need to look at trauma as a _____ and not a ______
disease and not an accident

o Look for causes, treatment, & preventive measures
o Could save a country billions
What are the injury control system

System components?
Injury prevention
Prehospital care: starts with 911 – starts with activation; EMT/paramedics
Acute care facilities
Have to be able to safely not over-treat or overuse
Issue is using a CAT-scan for a splinter to avoid litigation
Put costs on someone else (not yourself as the doctor)
Post-hospital care
What is needed to make sure that there is optimal use of the injury control system?
Integration of resources
Seamless transition b/w phases of injury care
Enhanced community health

What are some things that could help achieve this?
Organized system, a friendly system

Injury prevention – best way to take care of injuries; don’t do it!!
Acute care
Rehabilitation
Identify risk factors
Develop interventions
Activation of the injury control system is essential because ______
there exists a chain of survival. Break one link -> harm to the patients overall outcome
What are some issues with the injury control systems? Past incidents that have been particularly costly?
o Most frequent trauma : 1-4 victims/incident (comes from the automobile)
o Greater # of victims may rapidly overwhelm routine resources – too quickly/too many to care for
Mass casualty
Natural
Man-made

• Intentional: War, terrorism
• Unintentional: Crane falling in NYC

Combination: New Orleans
• Huge costs in terms of deaths, disability, young/productive life years lost, money (12% of all medical spending)
Describe components of the infrastructure of the injury control system.
Leadership
Professional resources
Education & Advocacy
Information management
Finances
Research
Technology (On-Star, GPS, E911, CAN – automatic collision notification, etc.)
Disaster preparedness & response
Describe the # of injury victims who benefited from evaluation/treatment in regional trauma centers

severity-adjusted national norm for patient cost?

also what are the total trauma center costs and losses
o 678,000 injury victims in U.S. who benefit from evaluation/treatment in regional trauma center
o Severity-adjusted national norm for per patient costs in a trauma center is $14,896
o Total trauma center costs ~$10.1 billion
o Total trauma center losses ~$1 billion
T/F Geographic location can effect patient access to injury control systems
True
T/F Funding challenges for trauma centers exist in both urban and rural areas
True
What are some future/current improvements to injury control systems?
Automotive Telemetric/GPS
- Locate crashes, monitor vital signs, determine injury severity

Access
- ACN & wireless E911, video feeds, telemedicine, distance-based learning, patient simulator technologies
Patient care is _______ driven, NOT protocol driven
judgement
Generally you need to focus on ABCs in trauma patients. What are they?
Airway – basic skills first!
C-spine control

• Oxygen – keep pO2 > 95%
• Ventilation 12-20

Breathing

Circulation
- Control external hemorrhage
What should we try to do in trauma situations?
Appropriate triage & transport decisions

Field termination & resuscitative efforts
• Just because you have a CAT scan, doesn’t mean you have to use it
• Basic SHOCK therapy
Splint
Restore body temperature
Tourniquet
Haemostatic agents
Injury transport

Goals
10 minutes or less
Appropriate facility
Limited scene intervention
As healthcare providers we must always be careful of _______
burnout

If you can't take care of yourself - you won't be able to take care of the patient.
• Golden Principles of trauma care
Ensure safety of prehospital care providers & the patient

Assess the scene to determine need for additional resources

Recognize kinematics (but treat the patient)

Primary survey “Treat as you go”
ABC's

Warmed IV fluids
Medical hx
Secondary survey

The trauma patient owns him/herself, so we all work for the patient

“Primum Non Nocere” = first do no harm
Shock:

When is it reversible? Irreversible?
Reversible – The Golden Hour/Period

Irreversible
• Tissue Perfusion
• Mitochondrial death
What are we trying to achieve in the golden hour?
Gain access to the patient

Identify life-threatening injuries

Treat or stabilize life-threatening injuries
- Package
- Transport
• Closest APPROPRIATE facility
• Least amount of time

hemorrhage control & resuscitation
What are some basic components of the injury control system?
o Activation
Access

Asset integration

Existing resources

Future resources
o Anticipation
 Disaster Medicine

• At some point, need to triage (e.g. in the ER) – tough to say that you can save 3 in place of 1 if know he/she is dying

Integration of resources

Seamless transition b/w phases of injury care
What are the significant reasons for the high costs of injuries?
• Huge costs in terms of deaths, disability, young/productive life years lost, money (12% of all medical spending)
Describe funding in injury control.
Funding – Partial & intermittent
o Emergency Medical Services Systems Act of 1973
o Trauma Care Systems Planning & Development Act of 1990
o Congress failed to fund in 1995
o State & community funding
o Hospital & private funding by cost-shifting
o WV is @ high economic risk in regards to state trauma d/t:
Not a lot of money to go through it
Per capita income is not so good
ID the Organization

- includes National Library of Medicine which maintains the Medline database

- “. . . the primary Federal agency for conducting and supporting medical research”
NIH