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96 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What three developments transformed air and space power's effectiveness, although its fundamental beliefs remain sound?
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1) contingency operations 2) space and information warfare 3) information technology
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Airmen have tended to prefer improvisation in air and space doctrine, but why must planning and employment be understood and repeatable today?
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because of the complex integration of our fighting elements, the complexity of joint and combined doctrine, and the uncertainty of rapidly developing contingency operations.
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Which publication is the premier statement of our beliefs and the cornerstone from which all AF doctrine flows?
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AFDD 1, AF Basci Doctrine. (it expresses our service's identity)
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Define air and space doctrine.
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A statement of officially sanctioned beliefs war-fighting principles and terminology that describes and guides the proper military use of air and space forces.
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Air and space doctrine is based on what four experiences?
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1) Actual combat operations 2) actual contingency operations 3) experiments 4) exercises
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Doctrine provides a common frame of reference regarding the best way to do what?
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Prepare and employ air and space forces.
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Should you apply doctrine jjudiciously of follow it to the letter?
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Use it judiciously. (do not dismiss it out off hand, but don't follow it blindly.)
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What are the 3 levels of air and space doctrine?
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1) Basic 2) operational 3) tactical
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Which level of doctrine states the fundamental, broad and enduring beliefs that describe and guide the proper use, presentation and organization of air and space forces in military action?
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Basic doctrine. (it is the fondation for all air and space doctrine and sets the tone and vision for future doctrine.
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Which level of doctrine describes the organization of air and space forces in more detail and applies basic doctrine's principles to military actions?
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Operational doctrine.
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Tactical doctrine describes the proper employment of specific AF asssets to accomplish detailed objectives. does it deal with employing assets individually or in concert with other assets?
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Both individually and in concert. (it is closely associated with empoloyment of technology.
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Which level of doctrine changes relatively slowly? which may change rapidly?
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Basic doctrine changes slowly. Tactical doctrine may change rapidly.
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What unique capability does the USAF's inherent speed, range and flexibility provide?
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The ability to project national influence anywhere in the world on very short notice.
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Key doctrine concepts build upon each other, progressing from broad concepts to specific applications. What image helps you visualize this?
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The doctrine concept funnel
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Which key doctrine concept encompasses "those aspects of warfare that are universally true and relevant," providing general guidance on applying military force?
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Principles of war
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Unity of command (a principle of war) concentrates effort for all objectives under how many commanders?
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One
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Why must airpower be controlled centrally by an airman?
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Because airpower's theater and global range imposes responsibilities that require the integration of centralized and control under an airman.
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Which principle of war shapes priorities and avoids fragmenting force elements?
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Objective. (it directs operations toward a defined and attainable goal that contributes to strategic, operational and tactical aims.)
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Name the pronciple of war that seizes, retians and exploits the initiative.
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Offensive.
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Which principle of war concentrates combat power at the most advantageous place and time to achieve decisive results?
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Mass.
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Which principle of war places the enemy at a disadvantage through the flexible application of combat power in a multidimensional combat space?
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Meneuver.
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The principle of war "_____ of force" judicously employs and distributes forces, allocating minimum essential resources to secondary efforts.
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"Economy of force."
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What is the greatest vulnerability for air and space power employment?
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Its misuse or misdirection, which can reduce its contribution more than enemy action.
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Which principle of war never permits the enemy to acquire an unexpected advantage?
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Security. (gaining and maintaining control of air, space and information media is crucial.)
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Attacking the enemy at a time, place or in a manner for which it is not prepared demonstrates which principle of war?
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Surprise. (air forces achieve suprise more readily than surface forces.)
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Although military operations - especially joint operations - are often complex, which principle of war calls for avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning and conducting operations?
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Simplicity.
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The ______ of air and space power are fundamental guiding truths specific to air and space forces.
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Tenets.
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The centralized control and ________ execution tenet of air and space power provides a critical theater-wide focus while allowing operational flexibility to meet theater objectives.
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Decentralized. (the most effective employment of air and space power.)
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Which two principles of war are assured by the tenet of centralized control and decentrailized execution?
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Unity of command (concentration of effort) and economy of force.
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Which aspect of the tenet of flexibility and versatitily exploits mjass and maneuver?
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Flexibility.
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Which tenet of air and space power is the proper application of a coordinated force to produce effects exceeding those of individually employed forces?
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Synergistic effects.
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Destorying a large number of targets through attrition warfare is rarely the key objective in modern war. What is?
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The percise, coordinated application of various elements of air, space and surface power to bring disproportionate pressure to comply with our national will on enemy leaders.
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Air, space and information operations may be conducted continuously against a broad spectrum of targets. Air and space forces can visit and revisit wide ranges of targets nearly at will. These are examples of which tenet?
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Persistence.
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Why is the tenet "concentration of purpose" crucial for airmen?
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Because airmen must guard against inadvertently dispersing air and space power due to high demand.
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Why must air and space power be prioritized?
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So demands for forces don't overwhelm air commanders.
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List the five considerations an air commander should balance against the risk to friendly air and space forces.
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1) Combat opportunity 2) necessity 3) effectiveness 4) efficiency 5) accomplishing assigned objectives.
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List the three core competencies that are the fondation upon which we organize, train and equip.
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1) Developing airmen 2) technology to war-fighting 3) integrating operations.
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The AF contributes unique essential capabilities to joint war-fighting, bujt all four service branches must be integgrated to achieve success. (T/F)
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True (this is a core competency.)
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Name the two sources of AF's distincitive capabilities.
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Functions 1) best accomplished only by air and space forces 2) that are most benefficial to the nation when performed by air and space forces.
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Which distinctive capability allows freedom to attack as well as freedom from attack?
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Air and space superiority. (air, land, sea and space operations' success depends on it)
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Define the distinctive capability of information superiority.
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The ability to collect, control, exploit and defend information while denying the ability to an adversary.
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Which service shares the AF's ability to attack rapidly, persistently and with a wide range of munitions anywhere on the globe at any time?
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None. (global attack is a distinctive capability unique to the AF.)
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Can the responsiveness of air and space forces be instantaneous?
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Yes (depending on the system required and assigned mission.)
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Precision ______ commands, controls and employs discriminate force precisely to cause specific strategic, operational or tactical effects.
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Engagement.
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Which operational function describes the overall vision for striking the enemy?
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Strategic attack.
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Name the operational function that attains and maintains air superiority by destroying, degrading or disrupting enemy forces.
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Counterair
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The operational function ______ uses kinetic and nonkinetic operations to attain and maintain space superiority by destroying, degrading or disrupting enemy space capability.
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Counterspace. (it has offensive and defensive components.)
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What 2 discrete air operations does the operational function "counterland" provide the JFC?
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1) air interdiction (AI) - air meneuver indirectly supporting land maneuver 2) CAS - air maneuver directly supporting land maneuver
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Which operational function's actions influence, affect or defend information, systems and/or decisionmaking across the battlespace?
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IO
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C2 is an operational function. What is the difference between command and control?
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Command is both the legal authority exercised over subordinates by virtued of rank or assignment and the art of motivating/directing people and organizations to accomplish missions. control is the process and system commanders use to plan and guide operations.
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Which operational function transports personnel and materiel through the air?
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Airlift. (it can be applied across all military operations and can achieve tactical through strategic effects.)
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Why is air fefueling considered a force enabler? A force multiplier?
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It is a force enabler because it increases range/endurance. it is a force miltiplier because it prevents aircraft from sacrificing payload for fuel.
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What does the operational function spacelift deliver to space?
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Satellites, payloads and materiel.
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Which DOD service operates US launch facilities?
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The AF.
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Name three special airpower operations under the operational function special operations.
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1) Denied teritory mobility 2) surgical firepower 3) special tactics.
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Which operational function results from the collection, processing, integration, analysis, evaluation and interpretation of available information about foreign countries and areas?
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Intelligence.
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Which aspect of the operational function surveillance and reconnaissance is continual and not oriented to a specific target?
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Surveillance.
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Which operational function is an element of personnel recovery (PR) and recovers isolated personnel during war or military operations other than war (MOOTW)?
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CSAR (it uses a mix of dedicated and augmenting assets.)
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What does the operational function "navigation and positioning" provide?
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Accurate location and time off reference for strategic, operational and tectical operations.
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What three systems do navigation and positioning rely on?
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1) space-based GPS 2) airborne-based air-to-surface radar 3) various ground-based navigation aids.
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Which operational function supplies commanders with timely and accurate space and atmospheric environmental information?
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Weather services.
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The operational function _______ _______ consists of essential capabilities, functions, activities and tasks that create and sustain air and space forces.
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Combat support. (includes procurement, maintenance, distribution and replacement of personnel and materiel.)
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The AF organizes, deploys and employs using organizational pronciples based on _________.
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Doctrine.
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What concept does the AF follow when presenting its forc capabilities to satisfy commander requirements?
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The air and space expeditionary force (AEF) concept.
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The AF organizes, trains, equips and susttains itself according to the AEF concept by creating a mindset and culture that embraces the unique characteristics of aerospace power. List these four characteristics.
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1) Range 2) speed 3) felxibility 4) precision
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What are the two fundamental principles of the AEF concept?
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to 1) provide trained and ready aerospace forces for national defense 2) meet national commitments through a structured approach that enhances Total Corce readiness and sustainment.
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The AF uses a combination of forward stationed forces and rotational forces, "AEF forces." Do AEF forces include all USAF forces worldwide?
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Yes. (including those permanently assigned combatant command (COCOM) to combatant commanders.)
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The AF organized its Total force into how many AEFs?
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10 AEFs (5 AEF pairs).
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To maintain a sustainable rotational rhythm, how many AEFs are tasked at any time?
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Two (however all 10 are "on the line at anytime," ready to meet operations plan (OPLAN) requirements.)
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The AF presents forces to the combatant commander as _________.
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AETFs (air and space expeditionary task forces).
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What are the 3 levels within the AETF?
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1) air and space expeditionary wings (AEW) 2) air and space expeditionary groups (AEG) 3) air and space expeditionary squadrons (AES).
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AETFs may consist of a single AEW or AEG or may be a ______ consiting of multiple AEWs, AEGs or both.
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NEAF (numbered expeditionary air force).
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An AETF is mission-oriented, task-organized and scalable. Who commands it?
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The Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR).
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Does an AEW or an AEG normally establish and operate an airbase?
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An AEW.
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An AEW uses a combat wing sturcture for what groups?
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Operations, maintenance, medical and mission support groups. (also, normally two or three aviation or operations squadrons and an associated operations support squadron.)
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A(n) _______ is normally the smallest AETF presented.
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AEG.
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Normally deployed as a tenant unit or to conduct nonflying missions, what does an AEG normally consist of?
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One or two operations, maintenance, and mission-specific expeditionary combat support (ECS) squadron.
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The _________ is the basic war-fighting organization of the AF and the building block of the AETF.
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AES.
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The 20-month AEF lifecycle includes periods of normal training, preparation and on-call or deployment eligibility. How long is each of these 3 periods?
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1) normal training is 14 months 2) preparation is 2 months 3) on call or deployment eligibility is 4 months.
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Which period of the AEF lifecycle may include JCS, AF or MAJCOM exercises and contigency and deployment training?
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Normal training.
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What does the deployment preparation period of the AEF lifecycle focus on?
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Area of responsibility (AOR) specific events for the on-call or deployment eligibility period, if known.
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The oncall or dployment period is based on a(n) ______ environment where all requirements are known adn can be met with the forces allocated within the AEF pair.
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Steady-state.
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Which forces, with different operating or operations tempo (OPTEMPO) management standards, must be managed carefully to support the AEFs?
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Limited forces in the enabler library. (they may not rotate on the normal 4-month on-call or deployment schedule.)
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The AEF alignes existing capabilities into sustainable force packages. what happens when combatant commander requirements exeed forces readily avilable in sustainable (on-call) force packages?
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The trigger point is passed and the force enters surge operations.
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A(n) ______ is an accumulation of contingency commitments (coming from a single operation or a number of smaller contingencies) that exceed the current on-call force packages.
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Surge.
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Entering surge normally requires a subsequent period of ______ _________ that may affect future steady-state or rotational availability.
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force reconsistution.
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when do reconsistution, maintenance and modification, composite force exercises, inspections, etc., occur during the AEF rotational cycle?
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During the 14-month normal training period.
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How long is surging beyond 2 AEFs sustainable?
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6-12 months
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How many AEFs can meet limited surge operations for crisis response and return to the normal AEF rotation with limited impact?
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four
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Using more than 4 AEFs is called _______ surge.
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maximum surge. (it results in significant future capability shortfalls as the AEF is reconstituted.)
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The normal AEF battle rhythm still requires reconstitution and tiered readiness. T/F
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False. (it avoids the need for reconstitution and tiered readiness.)
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Minimal reconstitution is needed for an AEF surge of no more than four AEFs for _______ months or less.
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15 months. (the remaining AEF pair is extended to 179 days to allow the other to recoup lost training time.)
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List several near-term adjustments that may be necessitated by reconstitution actions during the AEF cycle.
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Extended tour length, reaching forward into subsequent AEFs, temporary continuation of mobilization and acdeptance or some increased risk.
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The AEF provides members predictability in deployment eligibility in each cycle. Does it guarantee the member or unit 15 months between cycle rotations?
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No.
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When should members PCS to avoid conflicting with their AEF eligibility period?
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Preferable imediately before the losing unit's AEF eligibility period of following the first AEF eligibility at the gaining base.
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Personnel returing from an unaccompanied oversea assignment are not eligible for an AEF deployment until they have ______ months on station.
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Six months.
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