• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/284

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

284 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
__ min/week of __ exercise like __ will give you the most health benefits
150, moderate intestity, brisk walking
the legal range of services that professionals in a given field can provide
scope of practice
settings in which those services can be provided
scope of practice
guidelines or parameters that must be followed
scope of practice
the laws, rules, and regulations that govern a profession are estabilised for the __
protection of the public
fitness professionals __: diagnose, prescribe, prescribe diets or recommend specific supplements, treat injury/disease, monitor progress for medically referred clients, rehabilitatie, counsel, work with patients
DO NOT
fitness professoinals __: design exercise programs, refer, document progress, design an exercies program, coach, work with clients
DO
ACE certifications are valid for __ from the date earned
2
to renew ACE-certified professionals must: complete a minimum of __ hours of continuing education credits; maintain a current certificate in __ and if living in north america __
CPR, AED
remifications for allowing a an ACE certification to expire include (3):
can't advertise that they're ACE certified, discontinued professional liability insurance, loss of employment
the most important factor in starting an exercise program is the __
individual
a person __ be coerced into starting to work out
cannot
applying teh __ of behavioral change priciples will help increase the chances of success when adopting new behaviors
transtheoretical model
the allied healthcae continuum is composed of health professional who are credentilaed through: (3)
certifications, registrations, licensure
__ are at the top of teh allied healthcare pyramid, evaluating patients to diagnose ailments and imlement tratemtn plans, or referring patients to specialists as needed
physicians
potential determinants for physical activity can be broken down into three cartegories:
personal attributes, environmental factors, physical-activity factors
adherence to physical activity programs has proven to be consistently related to __, __, __, and __
education, income, age, and gender
lower levels of activity are seen with __, __and __
increasing age, fewer years of education, low income
__ may be unrelated to adherence levels in supervised exercise activities
age
__ demonstrate higher and more consistent activity adherence reates than __
men, women
__ referes to health conditions and is a weak predictor of exercise behavior
biomedical
biomedical status is a __ predictor of exercise behabior
weak
obese individuals are typically __ active than normal weight individuals
less
obese individuals are typically __ likely to adhere to supervised exercise programs
less
__ is the most important and influential personal attribute variable
activity hisotry
__ is the most reliable predictor of current participation in supervised exercise programs
past program participation
gathering activty history information fro a client helps personal trainers in teh __ of a clients program and gives the trainer an idea of __ that the client may facing in __
development, challenges, adhereing to a program
general tenencies that people have in their personality or psychological makeup
psychological traits
account for individual differences among people and are often difficult to define and measure
psychological traits
reflective of ones ability to set goals, monitor progress, and self-reinforce
self-motivation
has a positive relationship with physcial activity adherence
self-motivation
those who perviece their health to be porr are __ to __
unlikely, start or adhere to an activity program
a belief in personal control over health ourcomes
locus of control
a consistent predictor of unsupervised exercise activity among healthy adults
locus of control
consistently demonstrate a negative relationship with physcial acitivyt program adherence
percieved barriers
access to facilites most frequently refers to __
facility location
when fitness facilites are conveniently located near a persons home or work he or she is __ to adhere to the program
more likely
personal trainers should understand teh __ for each client to reach teh facility
convience
the most common excuse for not exercising and for dropping out of an exercise program
percieved lack of time
percieved lack of time is likely due to: (2)
not being interested in or enjoying the activty, not being committed to teh activty program
__ from family and friens is an inoportant predictor of physical activity behavior
social support
__ is an important and reliable predicor of program adherence
support from a spouse
personal trainers must be __ in creating and estabilisheing a support systemf or a client
proactive
the drop out rate for vigorous intesnity exercise is__ as high as in moderate ainstensity activity programs
twice
most poeple choose to start __ intesntiy programs rathran thatn __ intensity programs
moderate, vigorous
people will choose moderate over vigorous intensity acitivty programs regardless of whther the intesnity is meaturesed __ or __
physiologically or psychologically
approximatly __ of all people who engage in high intesntiy activities are injured each year
half
injuries that occur as a result of program participation are directly related to __
program dropout
__ are able to participate in modifed exercise programs
injured exerciseres
injured exercisers often report engaging in significantly more__ than non-inured exercisers
walking
being physcially active because a person truly enjoys it
intrinsic motivation
intrinsic motivation is associated with __ __ and -_ when faced with barrieres
positive attitudes and emotions, maximal effort, and persistence
__ adults are complely intrinsically motivated
few
personal trainers hsould __ enjoyment and engagement but not expect clients to always demonstracte intrinsic motivation
maximize
the engagement in exercise for any benefit other than for the joy of participation
extrinsic motivation
being phycially active because of some external factor
extrininsc motivation
associated with feelings of tension, guilt, or pressure related to participation
extrinsic motivation
what is the order and levesl of the stages of client tariner relationships?
rapport=>investigation=>planning=>action
begins with first impressions
rapport stage
during teh __ stage, personal trainers review any client data
investigation
in the __ stage, the trainer designs an exercise program in partnership with the client
planning
clients are ready to begin working out, signalling the beginning of the __ stage
action
during teh __ stage, teh personal trainer sets the scene for establishing understanding and trust
rapport
rapport develops through __ and __ communication
verbal, nonnverbal
apperance, facial expressions, body language, tone of voice
verbal communication
an individuals characteristics, thoughts, feelings, attitudes, behaviors, and coping mechanisms
personaltiy style
low sociablitiy and high dominence is a __ personaltiy
director
low sociability and low dominance is a __ personality
deliberator
high sociability and low dominence is a __ personaltiy
collaborator
high socialability and high dominance is a __ personality
expressor
more cognitive, less affective, aske oriented, methodical, fabor logic, objectivity analysis, and accuracy, oproblem solvers, working alone or in small groups, careful planners, appear rigid, formal, and cautious, ghilghly creative but thourough and detail oriented, emotionally reserved initialy opening up once strong relationships are forged, appear distant and uninterested in social interaction
deliverators (low S, Low D)
more cognitive less affective, action oriented, competitive, takes charge, dominant personalties. resourceful and tell oriented, favoring teamwork where they can define problems, identify solutions, appear insensitive, impatinet, direct, and unafraid to voice opinions. poor listeners, as they proactively think ahead to problem solving. appear unapproachable, unyeilding, inflexible, and blunt, emitionally reserved, valuing time over relationships
directors (low S, high D)
more affective, less cognitive. emotionally open, relationhsip oreinted, favor relationships over results. amiable, warm, trusting,a nd honest, sociable, easy going, supportive and non-dominant. avoid unnecessary risks, slow to decide, nonconfrontational, and sometimes exploited. team and ask oreinted gather information to reach consensus over conflict
collaborators (High S, low D)
more affective les cognitive. strong communicators, highly motivationslal and persuasive, but impatient. overly ambitious, more risk driven, favor incentives and rewards. impulsive and lack disciploine in completing projects, dominant, tell oriented visionaries who thrive on excitement, challenge and creativity
expressors (high S, high D)
something a client does, such as completes a certain number of workouts per week
process goal
something achieved, like weight loss
product goal
clients typically achieve __ goals before __ goals
process, product
the process of acquireing and improving motor skills
motor learning
illustrates a good way to introduce a new skill
tell, show, do
the three stages of motor learning
cognitive, associative, autonomous
the stage of motor learning in which: clients try to understand a new skill, movements are often uncoordinated and jerky, perosnal trainers should use the tell show do technique and provide ample opportunity for practice
cognitive
the stage of motor learning in which: clients begin to master the basics and are ready for specific feedback. personal trainers msut find teh balance between giving appropriate feedbacka nd giving too much feedback
associative
the stage of motor learning in which: clients are performing motor skills effectively and naturally. The personal trainer is doing less teaching and more monitoring
autonomous
explanations of behavior change (3)
examinations of peoples beleifs about their health, examinations of peoples beliefs about their ability to change, a persons readiness to make change
predicts that people engage in a health behavior based on the perveived threat that they feel regarding a health problem
health belie model
factors influencing percieved threat (3)
perveibed seriousness of health problem, perceived susceptibility to the health problem, cues to actoin
teh more likely people are __ about a potential health problem, the more liekly they are to take action and engage in health behavior
reminded
stages of change
precontemplation, contemplation, prepatation, action, maintenance
the stage of change where: people are sedentary and are not considering an activity program
precontemplation stage
the stage of change where: people are still sedentary. however, they are starting to consider activity as important
contemplation stage
the stage of change where: is marked by some physical activity, as individuals are mentally and physically preparing to adopt activity programs, people are readyt o adopt and live active lifestyles
preparation stage
the stage of change where: people engage in regular physcial activity but have been doing so for less than 6 months
action stage
the stage of change where: marke by regular physcial activity for longer than 6 months
maintenance
the belief in ones own capabilities to successfully achieve a task
self efficacy
there is a __ reltaionship between self efficacy and behavior change
circular
__ asks as both a determinant and an outcome of behavior change
self efficacy
to develop an understanding of a clients self efficacy, a trainer should __
ask questions about the sources of self-efficacy information
specifcally through conversation a trainer should gain knowledge about a clients: (4)
previous experience with exercise, feelings and emotions associated with starting a new program, expectations and apprehensions related to program invovlement, potential barriers for program adherence
refers to making adjustments to the enviorment to increase the likeihood of healthy behaviors
stimulus control
effective stimulus strategies include: (4)
1. choosing a gym that is in the direct route between home and work, 2. keeping a gym bag in teh car that contains all teh required items for a workout, 3. having workout clothes, socks, and shoes laid out for early morning workouts, 4. writing down workout times as part of a weekly schedule
exercise and physcial activity are associated with some __
inherent risks
the purposes of the pre-participation screening include: (5)
1. idenifying the presence or absence of known disease 2. identifying individuals with medical contridictions who should be excluded from exercise or physical activity. 3. detecting at risk individuals who should first undergo medical eval and clinical exercise testing before initiationg an exefcise program. 4. identifying those individuals with medical conditoins who should participate in medically supervised programs 5. identifyng pre-existing conditoins and or injuries that make certain exercises or movments contradicted
what is the goal of the precontemplation phase?
make inactiviy a relevant issue and start thinkiking about being active
what is the goal of the contemplation phase?
to get involved in some type of activity
what is the goal of the preparation phase?
reguar physical participation
what is the goal of the action phase?
maintain regular physcial activity
what is the goal of the maintenance phase?
prevent relapse and maintain continued activity
refers to teh prcess of using reinforments to gradually achieve a target behavior
shaping
what does smart goals stand for?
specific, measuragle, attainable, relevant, and time bound
a __ must be performed for all new participatnst
pre participation screening
with self directed exercies, a __ is ocmpleted by teh individual with little to no feedback from teh fitness professionals
standard questionaire (physical activity readiness questionnaire (PAR-Q)
what is the purpose for performing a rist stratification prior to engaging in physical activity program? (3)
1. the presnesce or absence of known cardiovascular, pulmonary, and or metabolic disease, 2. the presnese or absence of cardiobascualr risk factors, 3. the presnece or absence of signs or symptoms suggestive of cardiovascular, pulmonary and or metabolic disease
client risk is stratified as __
low moderate or high
moderate intensity exercise is equivalent to __% VO2 max, __ METs , or an intesntiy well within an indiviuals capacity that can be comfortably sustained for ~__ min
40-60, 3-6, 45
vigorous intesnisty activity is equivalent to __& VO2 max, __ METs, or a level of intensity sufficient enough to represnet a substantial cardiorespratory challenge
>60, >6
asymptomatic, <1 total risk factor
low risk
asymptomatic, >2 total risk factors
moderate risk
symptomatic or known cardiac, pulmonary, or metabolic disease
high risk
Low risk: referral necessary: moderate exercise __, vigorous exercise __
no, no
moderate risk: referral necessary: moderate exercise __, vigorous exercise __
no, yes
high risk: referral necessary: moderate exercise __, vigorous exercise __
yes, yes
Low risk: doctor supervision of exercise test necessary: moderate exercise __, vigorous exercise __
no, no
medium risk: doctor supervision of exercise test necessary: moderate exercise __, vigorous exercise __
no, yes
high risk: doctor supervision of exercise test necessary: moderate exercise __, vigorous exercise __
yes, yes
__ are also included in risk straification, but must only be interpreted by a qualified licensed professional
sings and sypmtoms of disease
pain, dysnpnea, orthopnea, ankle edema, palpiations, intermittenet claudication, heart murmur, unusual fatigue or difficulty breathing, dizziness or syncope
signs and sypmtoms of disease
a form saying teh exerciser is acknowledgin having een specifically infomred about the risks associated with activity
informed consent/assumption of risk form
informed consent/assumption of risk forms are used __ to asseessments and provide evidence of discolsure of the purposes, procedures, risks, and benefits associated with teh asessments
prior
are informed consent forms a liability waiver and provide legal immunity?
NO
intended to communicate the dangers of teh exercise program or test procedure
informed consent
represnets a clients voluntary abadnonment of teh right to file suit
aggrement/liability release waiver
used to release a perosonal trainer from liability for injuries reslting from a supervised exercise program
aggrement/liability release waiver
does an aggrement/liability release waiver protect a trainer from negligence lawsuits?
NO
an __ or __ is a protrusionof teh abdominal contents into the groin or trough the abdominal wall
inguinal, abdominal hernia
done during an activity involving increasd abdominal pressure
inguinal/abdominal hernia
what injury makes it important to teach breathing techniques during lifting activities?
inguinal/abdominal hernia
beta blockers cause __ on resting HR, __ on exercising HR, __ on maximal exercising HR
decrease, decrease, decrease
diuretics cause __ on resting HR, __ on exercising HR, __ on maximal exercising HR
none, none, none
block beta adrenergic receotpors and limit sympathetic nervous stimulation
beta blockers
block teh effects of catecholamines and reduce resting exercise and maximal exercise HR
beta blockers
what would be a good way of determining exercise intesity with someone on beta blockers?
percieved exertion
act directly on the blood vessels to stimulate vasoconstriction
decongestants
causes constrictin of teh blood vessels in teh upper airways that reduces teh volume of swollen tissues and results in more air space
decongestants
decongestants may cuase raised __ due to vasoconstriction in the peripheral vessels
BP and HR
block histamine receptors
antihistaines
antihistamines have __ effect on HR and BP
no direct
produce a drying effect in the upper airways and may cuase drowiness
antihistmaines
most cold medicaitions are a combination of __ and __
decongestant and antihistmines
cold medications in low does usually have __ effect on exercise
minimal
a trainer should choose tests that will provide __ results without causing undue __ on teh client
valid, stress
the foundation of the ACE IFT model is built on__
rapport
a trainer should establish__ prior to collecting health-history information
initial rapport
what are the two prinicap training components of the ACE IFT model?
functinal movment and resistance training, cardiorespiratory training
according to the ACE IFT model, what increases risk for inury? (3)
weak core muscles, muscle imbalances, postural deviation
in the ACE IFT, functinoal movement and resistance training begins in phase __
1
in the ACE IFT aessessementsand training for postural and joint stabilitya and mobility are introduced in phase:
1
in the ACE IFT phase __ is focused on basic movment patters
2
in the ACE IFT, in pahse __, the focus is on applying external reistance or loads to functional movement patterns
3
in the ACE IFT, clients who have performeace oriented goasl can move onto training for performance in phase:
4
pahse 1 of functional movment and resistance training of the ACE IFT
stabilty and mobility training
pahse 2 of functional movment and resistance training of the ACE IFT
movement training
pahse 3 of functional movment and resistance training of the ACE IFT
load training
pahse 4 of functional movment and resistance training of the ACE IFT
performance training
pahse 1 of cardiorespiratory training of the ACE IFT
aerobic base traiing
phase 2 of cardiorespiratory training of the ACE IFT
aerobic efficiency training
phase 3 of cardiorespiratory training of the ACE IFT
anaerobic endurance training
phase 4 of cardiorespiratory training of the ACE IFT
anaerobic power training
what is the principal goal of phase 1 of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent?
develop postural stability without compromising mobility
the training focus of phase 1 of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent is the introduciton of __ exercise programs to improve teh clients __
low intensity, posture
exercise selection of the phase 1 of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent focuses on __
core and balance exercises
assesssments of phase 1 of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent should be over __ (40
posture, balance, movment, ROM
the primary focus of phase 2 of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent is __
training movment patters
what are the five primary movments of exercise that are focused on in phase 2 of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent?
bend and lift, single leg, pushing, pulling, rotational
in phase 2 of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent exercise rpograms emphasize the proper seqencing of movments and control of teh body's __
center of gravity
in phase 2 of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent, what kind of movment patters that ultilize gravityas reistance are emphasized?
whole body
the general timeline for phase 2 of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent is __
2-8 weeks
in phase 3 of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent what is added to the exercise program?
external force
at phase 3 of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent clients will stay at tehis phase for __
many years
phase 4 of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent emphasizes specific trianinig to improve __, __, __, __, and __
speed, agility, quickness, reactivity, and power
many clients will not progress to this phase of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent
phase 4 (performance training)
power traing can also be affective at helping clients improve __
body composition
cardiorespiratory programs have traditionally focused on __
stead state trainng
what do internvals traditionally focus on? (2)
reducing boredom, training at or near lactate threshold to improve speed
phase 1 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent focuses on deleoping an initial __ in clients who have been __ or __
aerobic base, sedentary, near sedentary
durign phase 1 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent, exercise should be performed at __ intensities in the __ intesnity range
steady state, low to moderate
during phase 3 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent the primary focus is to improve __
performance
during phase 3 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent, assessment of teh clinets cardioresipratory capacity at the __ threshold is appropriate
2nd ventilatroy threshold
during phase 3 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent __ intervals that develop anaerobic endurance are introduced
higher intensity
during phase 2 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent, the primatry focus is __
enhancing anerobic effiency
when are aerobic intervals introduced?
phase 2 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent
progressing the program thorugh increased duratin of sessions, increasing teh frequency to f sessions when possible, and introducing aerobic intervals are ways to enhance a clients aerobic efficiency training in phase __
2
the gaol of introducing intervals is to improve __ and __
aerobic endurance by raising the intesntiy of exercise, the clients ability to utilize fat as a fuel source
trainers can conduct teh ___ test to determine HR at teh first ventilatory threshold
submaximal talk
you are in zone 1 of phase 3 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent if you are __, __% of training time
<VT1, 70-80%
you are in zone 2 of phase 3 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent if you are __, __% of training time
VT1 to ,VT2, <10%
you are in zone 3 of phase 3 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent if you are __, __% of training time
>VT2, 10-20%
the primary focus of phase 4 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent is building on __ while introducing __ for anaerobic power
previous training, new intervals
duirng phase 4 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent, intervals are __, __, and __
shortduration, high intestiy, very taxing
clients working in this phase are training for competition or have specific goals that relate to short duratin, high intesnity efforts during lnger endurance events
phase 4 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent
the most important goal for special population clinetle is to provide them with __ that promote __ through comfotably achieved intitial success
intial positive exeriences, adherence
Deviation 1 is __
ankle pronation/supination
both feet face forward in parallel or with slight (8-10 degrees) external rotaion
normal ankle position
in normal ankle position, toes should be alingned in teh same direction of the __
feet
the body is one __
continuous kinetic chain
barring structural differences in teh skeletal system, a pronated ankle typically forces __ of the tibia and faster, greater __ of the femur causeing __ of teh ankle
internal rotation, internal rotation, eversion
barring structural differences in teh skeletal system, a supinated ankle typically forces __ of the tibia and faster, greater __ of the femur causeing __ of teh ankle
external rotation, external rotation, inversion
deviation 2 is __
hip adduction
a lateral tilt of the pelvis that elevates one hip higher than the other
hip adduction
if a person raises the right hip, the line of gravity following the spine tilts toward the __ following the spine
left
this position progressively legthens and weakens the hip abductors, which are unable to hold teh hip level
hip adduction
sleeping on one's side can produce this deviation
hip adduction
anterior tiliting of teh pelvis frequently occurs in individuals with __
tight hip flexors
a __ pelvic tilt that rotates the superior anterior portion of the pelvis foward and downward
anterior
a __ pelvic tilt rotates the superoir posterior portion of the pelvis backward and downward
posteior
an anterior pelvic tilt wil increase __ in the lumbar spine whereas a posterior pelvic tilt will reduce the amount of it in teh lumbar spine
lordosis
tight __ are generally coupled with tight __ muscles producing an anterior pelvic tilt
hip flexors, erector spinae
tight __ are generally coupled with tight __ producing a posterior pelvic tilt
rectus abdominis, hamstrings
the coupoing relationship between tight hip flexors and erector spinae is defined as teh __
lower cross syndrome
with ankle pronation and acompanying internal femoral rotaion, the pelvis may tilt __ to acomodate the head of teh femur
anteriorly
what are the the 4 techniques to evaluate pelvic tilt?
1. relationship between ASIS and PSIS 2. appearance of lordosis 3. alighnment of pubic bone to ASIS 4. degree of flexion or hyperextension in knees
what is deviation 3?
hip tilting
what is deviation 4?
shoulder position and thoracic spine
limiations and compensations to movement at teh shoulder occur frequently due to the complex nature of the __
shoulder girdle
obsercation of teh __ in all three planes proides good insight into the quality of movement a clinet has at teh shoulders
scapulae
if the knuckles or the backs of the clients hands are visible when teh hands are positioned at the sides, this generally indicates __ of teh humerus or __
internal rotation, scapular protraction
if the vertebral/inferior angles of teh scapulae protrude outward, it indicates an inability of the __ to hold teh scapulae in place
scapulae stabilizers
if the shoulders are not level, the __, __, and __ may be tight
upper trapezius, levator scapula, rhomboids
if there is asymmetry to the midline of the shoulder the __ may be tight
lateral trunk flexors
if the scapulae are protracted, the __, __ and __ may be tight
serratus anterior, scapulohumeral muscles, upper trapezius
if teh humerus is medially rotated, the __, __ and __ may be tight
pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, subscapularis
if there is kyphosis and a depressed chest, the __, __, __, __ may be tight
shoulder adductors, pectoralis minor, rectus abdominis
what is deviation 5?
head position
with good posture, the earlobe should align approximatly over teh __
acromion process
what head position is very common?
forward head position
if there s forward head position, teh __, __, and __ may be tight
cervical spine extensors, upper trapezius, levator scapulae
the objective is to examine symmetrical lower extremity movility and stability and upper extremity stabilty during a bend and lift movement
bend and lift screen
what should you observe on teh first repitition of teh bend and lift screen? (frontal)
stabilty of the foot
what should you observe on the 2nd repitition of the bend and lift screen? (frontal)
alignment of knees over the line
what should you observe on the 3rd repitition of the bend and lift screen? (frontal)
overall symmetry over base of support
what should you observe on the 1rst repitition of the bend and lift screen? (sagital)
heels remain on contact of floor
what should you observe on the 2nd repitition of the bend and lift screen? (sagital)
glute/knee dominance
what should you observe on the 3rd repitition of the bend and lift screen? (sagital)
parallel position betweeen teh tivia and torso
what should you observe on the 4th repitition of the bend and lift screen? (sagital)
lordosis
what should you observe on the 5th repitition of the bend and lift screen? (sagital)
changes in head position
if there is a lack of foot stability: the ankles collapse inward/feet turn outward then the __ are suspected to be weak or tight
gastrocnemius
if the knees move inward during a bend and lift screen, the __ may be tight and teh __ may be weak
hip adductors, glut med and max
if the heels cannot stay in contact with the floor during teh bend and lift scren what mesucles are suspected to be tight?
plantarflexors
thomas test: back and sacrum flat, back and lowered tight does not touch the table and the knee cannot flex to 80 degrees. what is tight?
hip flexors
thomas: with back and sacrum flat, teh back of the lowered thigh does not touch the table, but the knee does flex to 80 degrees. what is tight?
the iliopsoas
thomas test: with teh back and sacrum flat, the back of teh lowered thigh does touch teh table, but the knee does not flex 80
the rectus femoris
involves multiple and simultaneous movements of the scapulothoracic and glenohumeral jionts in all three planes
apley's scratch test
apleys scratch test is completed in conjunction: (2)
shoulder flexion test, internal/external roation test of humerus
used to assess simultaneous movments of teh shoulder girdle
apleys scratch test
movments included in the apleys scratch testl
shoulder extension and flexion, IR and ER, scapular abd and add
what does the clients ability to touch teh medial border of teh contralateral scapula/how far down the spine they can reach means?
shoulder flexion, external rotation
what does the clients ability to touch teh oppostie inferior angle of the scapulae mean?
shoulder extension and IR
the ability to touch specific alndmarks in teh apleys scratch test means __
good shoulder mobility
interpretation of teh external and internal rotation test: the ability to roate the forearms 90 degrees to touch teh mat
good mobility in rotators
interpretation of teh external and internal rotation test: inability to reach the floor or discrepancies between limbs
tightness in medial rotators
interpretation of teh external and internal rotation test: inability to internally rotate forearm 70 degrees
tightness in lateral rotators of arms
used to assess static balance by standing with a reduced base of support while removing visual sensory information
romberg test
you should __ if a client : loses postural control and balance, feet move on the floor, eyes open, arms move form folded position, exceeds 60 seconds with good ps=ostural control during a romberg test
stop time
the inability to reach 30 seconds on the romberg test, it is indicative of inadequate __
static balance and postural control
with teh stork stand balance test you should __ if: hands come off hips, stance or supporting foot moves, any part of teh elevated foot loses sontact with stance leg, heel of stance leg touches the floor, loses balance
stop timing
excellent rating for the stork balance test for males is __, females __
>50, >30
good rating for the stork balance test for males is __, females __
41-50, 25-30
average rating for the stork balance test for males is __, females __
31-40, 16-24
fair rating for the stork balance test for males is __, females __
20-30, 10-15
poor rating for the stork balance test for males is __, females __
<20, <10
what sites are skinfolds taken for men?
chest, thigh, abdomen
what sites are skinfolds taken for women
triceps, thigh, suprailium
essential % body fat for men is __, women __
2-5, 10-13
pecent body fat for athletes: men __, women __
6-13, 14-20
% body fat for fitness indv.: men __, women __
14-17, 21-24
% body fat for average people: men __ women __
18-25, 25-31
% body fat for obese: men __, women __
>25, >32
measuring V02 max in a lab involves the collention and analysis of __ during __ exercise
exhaled, maximal
estimation of bodies ability to use o2 for energy at maximal exertion
V02 max
how fast should teh metronome be set for the step test for men?
96 bpm
considered suitable for low risk apparently helathy non athletic individuals between the ages of 20-59
YMCA submaximal step test
a test that evaluates recovery HR, this test measures exercsining HR from which VO2 max can be estimated, useful for clients wtih higher levels of aerobic fitness, individuals who are short may struggle with this
Mcardle step test
__ involves complex moevemtns that continually change
core stability
the three parts of teh McGills torso muscualr edurance test battery
trunk flexor endurance, trunk lateral endurance, trunk extensor endurance
for a McGills torso battery test a persons flexion:extension ration should be less than __, a persons right side bridge:leftside bridge should be no greater than __ froma balanced score of 1. side bridge extensionration to be less than __
1, .05,1, .75