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284 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
__ min/week of __ exercise like __ will give you the most health benefits
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150, moderate intestity, brisk walking
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the legal range of services that professionals in a given field can provide
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scope of practice
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settings in which those services can be provided
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scope of practice
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guidelines or parameters that must be followed
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scope of practice
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the laws, rules, and regulations that govern a profession are estabilised for the __
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protection of the public
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fitness professionals __: diagnose, prescribe, prescribe diets or recommend specific supplements, treat injury/disease, monitor progress for medically referred clients, rehabilitatie, counsel, work with patients
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DO NOT
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fitness professoinals __: design exercise programs, refer, document progress, design an exercies program, coach, work with clients
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DO
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ACE certifications are valid for __ from the date earned
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2
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to renew ACE-certified professionals must: complete a minimum of __ hours of continuing education credits; maintain a current certificate in __ and if living in north america __
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CPR, AED
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remifications for allowing a an ACE certification to expire include (3):
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can't advertise that they're ACE certified, discontinued professional liability insurance, loss of employment
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the most important factor in starting an exercise program is the __
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individual
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a person __ be coerced into starting to work out
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cannot
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applying teh __ of behavioral change priciples will help increase the chances of success when adopting new behaviors
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transtheoretical model
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the allied healthcae continuum is composed of health professional who are credentilaed through: (3)
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certifications, registrations, licensure
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__ are at the top of teh allied healthcare pyramid, evaluating patients to diagnose ailments and imlement tratemtn plans, or referring patients to specialists as needed
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physicians
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potential determinants for physical activity can be broken down into three cartegories:
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personal attributes, environmental factors, physical-activity factors
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adherence to physical activity programs has proven to be consistently related to __, __, __, and __
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education, income, age, and gender
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lower levels of activity are seen with __, __and __
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increasing age, fewer years of education, low income
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__ may be unrelated to adherence levels in supervised exercise activities
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age
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__ demonstrate higher and more consistent activity adherence reates than __
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men, women
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__ referes to health conditions and is a weak predictor of exercise behavior
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biomedical
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biomedical status is a __ predictor of exercise behabior
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weak
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obese individuals are typically __ active than normal weight individuals
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less
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obese individuals are typically __ likely to adhere to supervised exercise programs
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less
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__ is the most important and influential personal attribute variable
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activity hisotry
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__ is the most reliable predictor of current participation in supervised exercise programs
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past program participation
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gathering activty history information fro a client helps personal trainers in teh __ of a clients program and gives the trainer an idea of __ that the client may facing in __
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development, challenges, adhereing to a program
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general tenencies that people have in their personality or psychological makeup
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psychological traits
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account for individual differences among people and are often difficult to define and measure
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psychological traits
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reflective of ones ability to set goals, monitor progress, and self-reinforce
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self-motivation
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has a positive relationship with physcial activity adherence
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self-motivation
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those who perviece their health to be porr are __ to __
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unlikely, start or adhere to an activity program
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a belief in personal control over health ourcomes
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locus of control
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a consistent predictor of unsupervised exercise activity among healthy adults
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locus of control
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consistently demonstrate a negative relationship with physcial acitivyt program adherence
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percieved barriers
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access to facilites most frequently refers to __
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facility location
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when fitness facilites are conveniently located near a persons home or work he or she is __ to adhere to the program
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more likely
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personal trainers should understand teh __ for each client to reach teh facility
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convience
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the most common excuse for not exercising and for dropping out of an exercise program
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percieved lack of time
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percieved lack of time is likely due to: (2)
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not being interested in or enjoying the activty, not being committed to teh activty program
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__ from family and friens is an inoportant predictor of physical activity behavior
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social support
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__ is an important and reliable predicor of program adherence
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support from a spouse
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personal trainers must be __ in creating and estabilisheing a support systemf or a client
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proactive
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the drop out rate for vigorous intesnity exercise is__ as high as in moderate ainstensity activity programs
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twice
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most poeple choose to start __ intesntiy programs rathran thatn __ intensity programs
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moderate, vigorous
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people will choose moderate over vigorous intensity acitivty programs regardless of whther the intesnity is meaturesed __ or __
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physiologically or psychologically
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approximatly __ of all people who engage in high intesntiy activities are injured each year
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half
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injuries that occur as a result of program participation are directly related to __
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program dropout
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__ are able to participate in modifed exercise programs
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injured exerciseres
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injured exercisers often report engaging in significantly more__ than non-inured exercisers
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walking
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being physcially active because a person truly enjoys it
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intrinsic motivation
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intrinsic motivation is associated with __ __ and -_ when faced with barrieres
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positive attitudes and emotions, maximal effort, and persistence
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__ adults are complely intrinsically motivated
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few
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personal trainers hsould __ enjoyment and engagement but not expect clients to always demonstracte intrinsic motivation
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maximize
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the engagement in exercise for any benefit other than for the joy of participation
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extrinsic motivation
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being phycially active because of some external factor
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extrininsc motivation
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associated with feelings of tension, guilt, or pressure related to participation
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extrinsic motivation
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what is the order and levesl of the stages of client tariner relationships?
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rapport=>investigation=>planning=>action
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begins with first impressions
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rapport stage
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during teh __ stage, personal trainers review any client data
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investigation
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in the __ stage, the trainer designs an exercise program in partnership with the client
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planning
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clients are ready to begin working out, signalling the beginning of the __ stage
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action
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during teh __ stage, teh personal trainer sets the scene for establishing understanding and trust
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rapport
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rapport develops through __ and __ communication
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verbal, nonnverbal
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apperance, facial expressions, body language, tone of voice
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verbal communication
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an individuals characteristics, thoughts, feelings, attitudes, behaviors, and coping mechanisms
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personaltiy style
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low sociablitiy and high dominence is a __ personaltiy
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director
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low sociability and low dominance is a __ personality
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deliberator
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high sociability and low dominence is a __ personaltiy
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collaborator
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high socialability and high dominance is a __ personality
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expressor
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more cognitive, less affective, aske oriented, methodical, fabor logic, objectivity analysis, and accuracy, oproblem solvers, working alone or in small groups, careful planners, appear rigid, formal, and cautious, ghilghly creative but thourough and detail oriented, emotionally reserved initialy opening up once strong relationships are forged, appear distant and uninterested in social interaction
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deliverators (low S, Low D)
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more cognitive less affective, action oriented, competitive, takes charge, dominant personalties. resourceful and tell oriented, favoring teamwork where they can define problems, identify solutions, appear insensitive, impatinet, direct, and unafraid to voice opinions. poor listeners, as they proactively think ahead to problem solving. appear unapproachable, unyeilding, inflexible, and blunt, emitionally reserved, valuing time over relationships
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directors (low S, high D)
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more affective, less cognitive. emotionally open, relationhsip oreinted, favor relationships over results. amiable, warm, trusting,a nd honest, sociable, easy going, supportive and non-dominant. avoid unnecessary risks, slow to decide, nonconfrontational, and sometimes exploited. team and ask oreinted gather information to reach consensus over conflict
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collaborators (High S, low D)
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more affective les cognitive. strong communicators, highly motivationslal and persuasive, but impatient. overly ambitious, more risk driven, favor incentives and rewards. impulsive and lack disciploine in completing projects, dominant, tell oriented visionaries who thrive on excitement, challenge and creativity
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expressors (high S, high D)
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something a client does, such as completes a certain number of workouts per week
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process goal
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something achieved, like weight loss
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product goal
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clients typically achieve __ goals before __ goals
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process, product
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the process of acquireing and improving motor skills
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motor learning
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illustrates a good way to introduce a new skill
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tell, show, do
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the three stages of motor learning
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cognitive, associative, autonomous
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the stage of motor learning in which: clients try to understand a new skill, movements are often uncoordinated and jerky, perosnal trainers should use the tell show do technique and provide ample opportunity for practice
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cognitive
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the stage of motor learning in which: clients begin to master the basics and are ready for specific feedback. personal trainers msut find teh balance between giving appropriate feedbacka nd giving too much feedback
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associative
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the stage of motor learning in which: clients are performing motor skills effectively and naturally. The personal trainer is doing less teaching and more monitoring
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autonomous
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explanations of behavior change (3)
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examinations of peoples beleifs about their health, examinations of peoples beliefs about their ability to change, a persons readiness to make change
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predicts that people engage in a health behavior based on the perveived threat that they feel regarding a health problem
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health belie model
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factors influencing percieved threat (3)
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perveibed seriousness of health problem, perceived susceptibility to the health problem, cues to actoin
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teh more likely people are __ about a potential health problem, the more liekly they are to take action and engage in health behavior
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reminded
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stages of change
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precontemplation, contemplation, prepatation, action, maintenance
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the stage of change where: people are sedentary and are not considering an activity program
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precontemplation stage
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the stage of change where: people are still sedentary. however, they are starting to consider activity as important
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contemplation stage
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the stage of change where: is marked by some physical activity, as individuals are mentally and physically preparing to adopt activity programs, people are readyt o adopt and live active lifestyles
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preparation stage
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the stage of change where: people engage in regular physcial activity but have been doing so for less than 6 months
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action stage
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the stage of change where: marke by regular physcial activity for longer than 6 months
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maintenance
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the belief in ones own capabilities to successfully achieve a task
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self efficacy
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there is a __ reltaionship between self efficacy and behavior change
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circular
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__ asks as both a determinant and an outcome of behavior change
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self efficacy
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to develop an understanding of a clients self efficacy, a trainer should __
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ask questions about the sources of self-efficacy information
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specifcally through conversation a trainer should gain knowledge about a clients: (4)
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previous experience with exercise, feelings and emotions associated with starting a new program, expectations and apprehensions related to program invovlement, potential barriers for program adherence
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refers to making adjustments to the enviorment to increase the likeihood of healthy behaviors
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stimulus control
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effective stimulus strategies include: (4)
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1. choosing a gym that is in the direct route between home and work, 2. keeping a gym bag in teh car that contains all teh required items for a workout, 3. having workout clothes, socks, and shoes laid out for early morning workouts, 4. writing down workout times as part of a weekly schedule
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exercise and physcial activity are associated with some __
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inherent risks
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the purposes of the pre-participation screening include: (5)
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1. idenifying the presence or absence of known disease 2. identifying individuals with medical contridictions who should be excluded from exercise or physical activity. 3. detecting at risk individuals who should first undergo medical eval and clinical exercise testing before initiationg an exefcise program. 4. identifying those individuals with medical conditoins who should participate in medically supervised programs 5. identifyng pre-existing conditoins and or injuries that make certain exercises or movments contradicted
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what is the goal of the precontemplation phase?
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make inactiviy a relevant issue and start thinkiking about being active
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what is the goal of the contemplation phase?
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to get involved in some type of activity
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what is the goal of the preparation phase?
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reguar physical participation
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what is the goal of the action phase?
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maintain regular physcial activity
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what is the goal of the maintenance phase?
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prevent relapse and maintain continued activity
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refers to teh prcess of using reinforments to gradually achieve a target behavior
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shaping
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what does smart goals stand for?
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specific, measuragle, attainable, relevant, and time bound
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a __ must be performed for all new participatnst
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pre participation screening
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with self directed exercies, a __ is ocmpleted by teh individual with little to no feedback from teh fitness professionals
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standard questionaire (physical activity readiness questionnaire (PAR-Q)
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what is the purpose for performing a rist stratification prior to engaging in physical activity program? (3)
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1. the presnesce or absence of known cardiovascular, pulmonary, and or metabolic disease, 2. the presnese or absence of cardiobascualr risk factors, 3. the presnece or absence of signs or symptoms suggestive of cardiovascular, pulmonary and or metabolic disease
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client risk is stratified as __
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low moderate or high
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moderate intensity exercise is equivalent to __% VO2 max, __ METs , or an intesntiy well within an indiviuals capacity that can be comfortably sustained for ~__ min
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40-60, 3-6, 45
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vigorous intesnisty activity is equivalent to __& VO2 max, __ METs, or a level of intensity sufficient enough to represnet a substantial cardiorespratory challenge
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>60, >6
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asymptomatic, <1 total risk factor
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low risk
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asymptomatic, >2 total risk factors
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moderate risk
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symptomatic or known cardiac, pulmonary, or metabolic disease
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high risk
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Low risk: referral necessary: moderate exercise __, vigorous exercise __
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no, no
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moderate risk: referral necessary: moderate exercise __, vigorous exercise __
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no, yes
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high risk: referral necessary: moderate exercise __, vigorous exercise __
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yes, yes
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Low risk: doctor supervision of exercise test necessary: moderate exercise __, vigorous exercise __
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no, no
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medium risk: doctor supervision of exercise test necessary: moderate exercise __, vigorous exercise __
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no, yes
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high risk: doctor supervision of exercise test necessary: moderate exercise __, vigorous exercise __
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yes, yes
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__ are also included in risk straification, but must only be interpreted by a qualified licensed professional
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sings and sypmtoms of disease
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pain, dysnpnea, orthopnea, ankle edema, palpiations, intermittenet claudication, heart murmur, unusual fatigue or difficulty breathing, dizziness or syncope
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signs and sypmtoms of disease
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a form saying teh exerciser is acknowledgin having een specifically infomred about the risks associated with activity
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informed consent/assumption of risk form
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informed consent/assumption of risk forms are used __ to asseessments and provide evidence of discolsure of the purposes, procedures, risks, and benefits associated with teh asessments
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prior
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are informed consent forms a liability waiver and provide legal immunity?
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NO
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intended to communicate the dangers of teh exercise program or test procedure
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informed consent
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represnets a clients voluntary abadnonment of teh right to file suit
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aggrement/liability release waiver
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used to release a perosonal trainer from liability for injuries reslting from a supervised exercise program
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aggrement/liability release waiver
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does an aggrement/liability release waiver protect a trainer from negligence lawsuits?
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NO
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an __ or __ is a protrusionof teh abdominal contents into the groin or trough the abdominal wall
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inguinal, abdominal hernia
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done during an activity involving increasd abdominal pressure
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inguinal/abdominal hernia
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what injury makes it important to teach breathing techniques during lifting activities?
|
inguinal/abdominal hernia
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beta blockers cause __ on resting HR, __ on exercising HR, __ on maximal exercising HR
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decrease, decrease, decrease
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diuretics cause __ on resting HR, __ on exercising HR, __ on maximal exercising HR
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none, none, none
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block beta adrenergic receotpors and limit sympathetic nervous stimulation
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beta blockers
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block teh effects of catecholamines and reduce resting exercise and maximal exercise HR
|
beta blockers
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what would be a good way of determining exercise intesity with someone on beta blockers?
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percieved exertion
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act directly on the blood vessels to stimulate vasoconstriction
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decongestants
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causes constrictin of teh blood vessels in teh upper airways that reduces teh volume of swollen tissues and results in more air space
|
decongestants
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decongestants may cuase raised __ due to vasoconstriction in the peripheral vessels
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BP and HR
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block histamine receptors
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antihistaines
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antihistamines have __ effect on HR and BP
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no direct
|
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produce a drying effect in the upper airways and may cuase drowiness
|
antihistmaines
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most cold medicaitions are a combination of __ and __
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decongestant and antihistmines
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cold medications in low does usually have __ effect on exercise
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minimal
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a trainer should choose tests that will provide __ results without causing undue __ on teh client
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valid, stress
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the foundation of the ACE IFT model is built on__
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rapport
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a trainer should establish__ prior to collecting health-history information
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initial rapport
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what are the two prinicap training components of the ACE IFT model?
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functinal movment and resistance training, cardiorespiratory training
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according to the ACE IFT model, what increases risk for inury? (3)
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weak core muscles, muscle imbalances, postural deviation
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in the ACE IFT, functinoal movement and resistance training begins in phase __
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1
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in the ACE IFT aessessementsand training for postural and joint stabilitya and mobility are introduced in phase:
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1
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in the ACE IFT phase __ is focused on basic movment patters
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2
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in the ACE IFT, in pahse __, the focus is on applying external reistance or loads to functional movement patterns
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3
|
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in the ACE IFT, clients who have performeace oriented goasl can move onto training for performance in phase:
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4
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pahse 1 of functional movment and resistance training of the ACE IFT
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stabilty and mobility training
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pahse 2 of functional movment and resistance training of the ACE IFT
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movement training
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pahse 3 of functional movment and resistance training of the ACE IFT
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load training
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pahse 4 of functional movment and resistance training of the ACE IFT
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performance training
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pahse 1 of cardiorespiratory training of the ACE IFT
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aerobic base traiing
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phase 2 of cardiorespiratory training of the ACE IFT
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aerobic efficiency training
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phase 3 of cardiorespiratory training of the ACE IFT
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anaerobic endurance training
|
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phase 4 of cardiorespiratory training of the ACE IFT
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anaerobic power training
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what is the principal goal of phase 1 of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent?
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develop postural stability without compromising mobility
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the training focus of phase 1 of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent is the introduciton of __ exercise programs to improve teh clients __
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low intensity, posture
|
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exercise selection of the phase 1 of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent focuses on __
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core and balance exercises
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assesssments of phase 1 of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent should be over __ (40
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posture, balance, movment, ROM
|
|
the primary focus of phase 2 of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent is __
|
training movment patters
|
|
what are the five primary movments of exercise that are focused on in phase 2 of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent?
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bend and lift, single leg, pushing, pulling, rotational
|
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in phase 2 of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent exercise rpograms emphasize the proper seqencing of movments and control of teh body's __
|
center of gravity
|
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in phase 2 of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent, what kind of movment patters that ultilize gravityas reistance are emphasized?
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whole body
|
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the general timeline for phase 2 of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent is __
|
2-8 weeks
|
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in phase 3 of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent what is added to the exercise program?
|
external force
|
|
at phase 3 of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent clients will stay at tehis phase for __
|
many years
|
|
phase 4 of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent emphasizes specific trianinig to improve __, __, __, __, and __
|
speed, agility, quickness, reactivity, and power
|
|
many clients will not progress to this phase of the functinoal movement and resistance training compenent
|
phase 4 (performance training)
|
|
power traing can also be affective at helping clients improve __
|
body composition
|
|
cardiorespiratory programs have traditionally focused on __
|
stead state trainng
|
|
what do internvals traditionally focus on? (2)
|
reducing boredom, training at or near lactate threshold to improve speed
|
|
phase 1 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent focuses on deleoping an initial __ in clients who have been __ or __
|
aerobic base, sedentary, near sedentary
|
|
durign phase 1 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent, exercise should be performed at __ intensities in the __ intesnity range
|
steady state, low to moderate
|
|
during phase 3 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent the primary focus is to improve __
|
performance
|
|
during phase 3 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent, assessment of teh clinets cardioresipratory capacity at the __ threshold is appropriate
|
2nd ventilatroy threshold
|
|
during phase 3 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent __ intervals that develop anaerobic endurance are introduced
|
higher intensity
|
|
during phase 2 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent, the primatry focus is __
|
enhancing anerobic effiency
|
|
when are aerobic intervals introduced?
|
phase 2 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent
|
|
progressing the program thorugh increased duratin of sessions, increasing teh frequency to f sessions when possible, and introducing aerobic intervals are ways to enhance a clients aerobic efficiency training in phase __
|
2
|
|
the gaol of introducing intervals is to improve __ and __
|
aerobic endurance by raising the intesntiy of exercise, the clients ability to utilize fat as a fuel source
|
|
trainers can conduct teh ___ test to determine HR at teh first ventilatory threshold
|
submaximal talk
|
|
you are in zone 1 of phase 3 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent if you are __, __% of training time
|
<VT1, 70-80%
|
|
you are in zone 2 of phase 3 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent if you are __, __% of training time
|
VT1 to ,VT2, <10%
|
|
you are in zone 3 of phase 3 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent if you are __, __% of training time
|
>VT2, 10-20%
|
|
the primary focus of phase 4 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent is building on __ while introducing __ for anaerobic power
|
previous training, new intervals
|
|
duirng phase 4 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent, intervals are __, __, and __
|
shortduration, high intestiy, very taxing
|
|
clients working in this phase are training for competition or have specific goals that relate to short duratin, high intesnity efforts during lnger endurance events
|
phase 4 of the cardiorespiratory training compenent
|
|
the most important goal for special population clinetle is to provide them with __ that promote __ through comfotably achieved intitial success
|
intial positive exeriences, adherence
|
|
Deviation 1 is __
|
ankle pronation/supination
|
|
both feet face forward in parallel or with slight (8-10 degrees) external rotaion
|
normal ankle position
|
|
in normal ankle position, toes should be alingned in teh same direction of the __
|
feet
|
|
the body is one __
|
continuous kinetic chain
|
|
barring structural differences in teh skeletal system, a pronated ankle typically forces __ of the tibia and faster, greater __ of the femur causeing __ of teh ankle
|
internal rotation, internal rotation, eversion
|
|
barring structural differences in teh skeletal system, a supinated ankle typically forces __ of the tibia and faster, greater __ of the femur causeing __ of teh ankle
|
external rotation, external rotation, inversion
|
|
deviation 2 is __
|
hip adduction
|
|
a lateral tilt of the pelvis that elevates one hip higher than the other
|
hip adduction
|
|
if a person raises the right hip, the line of gravity following the spine tilts toward the __ following the spine
|
left
|
|
this position progressively legthens and weakens the hip abductors, which are unable to hold teh hip level
|
hip adduction
|
|
sleeping on one's side can produce this deviation
|
hip adduction
|
|
anterior tiliting of teh pelvis frequently occurs in individuals with __
|
tight hip flexors
|
|
a __ pelvic tilt that rotates the superior anterior portion of the pelvis foward and downward
|
anterior
|
|
a __ pelvic tilt rotates the superoir posterior portion of the pelvis backward and downward
|
posteior
|
|
an anterior pelvic tilt wil increase __ in the lumbar spine whereas a posterior pelvic tilt will reduce the amount of it in teh lumbar spine
|
lordosis
|
|
tight __ are generally coupled with tight __ muscles producing an anterior pelvic tilt
|
hip flexors, erector spinae
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tight __ are generally coupled with tight __ producing a posterior pelvic tilt
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rectus abdominis, hamstrings
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the coupoing relationship between tight hip flexors and erector spinae is defined as teh __
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lower cross syndrome
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with ankle pronation and acompanying internal femoral rotaion, the pelvis may tilt __ to acomodate the head of teh femur
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anteriorly
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what are the the 4 techniques to evaluate pelvic tilt?
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1. relationship between ASIS and PSIS 2. appearance of lordosis 3. alighnment of pubic bone to ASIS 4. degree of flexion or hyperextension in knees
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what is deviation 3?
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hip tilting
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what is deviation 4?
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shoulder position and thoracic spine
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limiations and compensations to movement at teh shoulder occur frequently due to the complex nature of the __
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shoulder girdle
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obsercation of teh __ in all three planes proides good insight into the quality of movement a clinet has at teh shoulders
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scapulae
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if the knuckles or the backs of the clients hands are visible when teh hands are positioned at the sides, this generally indicates __ of teh humerus or __
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internal rotation, scapular protraction
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if the vertebral/inferior angles of teh scapulae protrude outward, it indicates an inability of the __ to hold teh scapulae in place
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scapulae stabilizers
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if the shoulders are not level, the __, __, and __ may be tight
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upper trapezius, levator scapula, rhomboids
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if there is asymmetry to the midline of the shoulder the __ may be tight
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lateral trunk flexors
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if the scapulae are protracted, the __, __ and __ may be tight
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serratus anterior, scapulohumeral muscles, upper trapezius
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if teh humerus is medially rotated, the __, __ and __ may be tight
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pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, subscapularis
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if there is kyphosis and a depressed chest, the __, __, __, __ may be tight
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shoulder adductors, pectoralis minor, rectus abdominis
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what is deviation 5?
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head position
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with good posture, the earlobe should align approximatly over teh __
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acromion process
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what head position is very common?
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forward head position
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if there s forward head position, teh __, __, and __ may be tight
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cervical spine extensors, upper trapezius, levator scapulae
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the objective is to examine symmetrical lower extremity movility and stability and upper extremity stabilty during a bend and lift movement
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bend and lift screen
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what should you observe on teh first repitition of teh bend and lift screen? (frontal)
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stabilty of the foot
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what should you observe on the 2nd repitition of the bend and lift screen? (frontal)
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alignment of knees over the line
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what should you observe on the 3rd repitition of the bend and lift screen? (frontal)
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overall symmetry over base of support
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what should you observe on the 1rst repitition of the bend and lift screen? (sagital)
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heels remain on contact of floor
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what should you observe on the 2nd repitition of the bend and lift screen? (sagital)
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glute/knee dominance
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what should you observe on the 3rd repitition of the bend and lift screen? (sagital)
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parallel position betweeen teh tivia and torso
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what should you observe on the 4th repitition of the bend and lift screen? (sagital)
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lordosis
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what should you observe on the 5th repitition of the bend and lift screen? (sagital)
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changes in head position
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if there is a lack of foot stability: the ankles collapse inward/feet turn outward then the __ are suspected to be weak or tight
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gastrocnemius
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if the knees move inward during a bend and lift screen, the __ may be tight and teh __ may be weak
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hip adductors, glut med and max
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if the heels cannot stay in contact with the floor during teh bend and lift scren what mesucles are suspected to be tight?
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plantarflexors
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thomas test: back and sacrum flat, back and lowered tight does not touch the table and the knee cannot flex to 80 degrees. what is tight?
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hip flexors
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thomas: with back and sacrum flat, teh back of the lowered thigh does not touch the table, but the knee does flex to 80 degrees. what is tight?
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the iliopsoas
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thomas test: with teh back and sacrum flat, the back of teh lowered thigh does touch teh table, but the knee does not flex 80
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the rectus femoris
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involves multiple and simultaneous movements of the scapulothoracic and glenohumeral jionts in all three planes
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apley's scratch test
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apleys scratch test is completed in conjunction: (2)
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shoulder flexion test, internal/external roation test of humerus
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used to assess simultaneous movments of teh shoulder girdle
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apleys scratch test
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movments included in the apleys scratch testl
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shoulder extension and flexion, IR and ER, scapular abd and add
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what does the clients ability to touch teh medial border of teh contralateral scapula/how far down the spine they can reach means?
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shoulder flexion, external rotation
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what does the clients ability to touch teh oppostie inferior angle of the scapulae mean?
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shoulder extension and IR
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the ability to touch specific alndmarks in teh apleys scratch test means __
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good shoulder mobility
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interpretation of teh external and internal rotation test: the ability to roate the forearms 90 degrees to touch teh mat
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good mobility in rotators
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interpretation of teh external and internal rotation test: inability to reach the floor or discrepancies between limbs
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tightness in medial rotators
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interpretation of teh external and internal rotation test: inability to internally rotate forearm 70 degrees
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tightness in lateral rotators of arms
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used to assess static balance by standing with a reduced base of support while removing visual sensory information
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romberg test
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you should __ if a client : loses postural control and balance, feet move on the floor, eyes open, arms move form folded position, exceeds 60 seconds with good ps=ostural control during a romberg test
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stop time
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the inability to reach 30 seconds on the romberg test, it is indicative of inadequate __
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static balance and postural control
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with teh stork stand balance test you should __ if: hands come off hips, stance or supporting foot moves, any part of teh elevated foot loses sontact with stance leg, heel of stance leg touches the floor, loses balance
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stop timing
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excellent rating for the stork balance test for males is __, females __
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>50, >30
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good rating for the stork balance test for males is __, females __
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41-50, 25-30
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average rating for the stork balance test for males is __, females __
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31-40, 16-24
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fair rating for the stork balance test for males is __, females __
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20-30, 10-15
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poor rating for the stork balance test for males is __, females __
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<20, <10
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what sites are skinfolds taken for men?
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chest, thigh, abdomen
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what sites are skinfolds taken for women
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triceps, thigh, suprailium
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essential % body fat for men is __, women __
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2-5, 10-13
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pecent body fat for athletes: men __, women __
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6-13, 14-20
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% body fat for fitness indv.: men __, women __
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14-17, 21-24
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% body fat for average people: men __ women __
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18-25, 25-31
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% body fat for obese: men __, women __
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>25, >32
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measuring V02 max in a lab involves the collention and analysis of __ during __ exercise
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exhaled, maximal
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estimation of bodies ability to use o2 for energy at maximal exertion
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V02 max
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how fast should teh metronome be set for the step test for men?
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96 bpm
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considered suitable for low risk apparently helathy non athletic individuals between the ages of 20-59
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YMCA submaximal step test
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a test that evaluates recovery HR, this test measures exercsining HR from which VO2 max can be estimated, useful for clients wtih higher levels of aerobic fitness, individuals who are short may struggle with this
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Mcardle step test
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__ involves complex moevemtns that continually change
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core stability
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the three parts of teh McGills torso muscualr edurance test battery
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trunk flexor endurance, trunk lateral endurance, trunk extensor endurance
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for a McGills torso battery test a persons flexion:extension ration should be less than __, a persons right side bridge:leftside bridge should be no greater than __ froma balanced score of 1. side bridge extensionration to be less than __
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1, .05,1, .75
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