Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
58 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
This organism is gram negative, diplococcic and coffee been shaped. |
Neisseria gonnorhoeae |
|
This organism is fastidious and requires enriched growth medium with increased concentrations of CO2 for culture. |
Neisseria gonorrhoeae |
|
Neisseria gonorrhoeae produces ________________, which makes it an aerobic organism. |
Cytochrome oxidase (oxidase positive) |
|
This organism's virulence is due to the presence of pili, variable outer membranes and IgA protease. |
Neisseria gonorrhoeae |
|
What are the maternal symptoms of gonorrhea? |
Purulent discharge from cervix, dysuria, frequency of urination |
|
Neonatal gonorrhea presents _ to _ days after birth with infection and _____________ worse than infection with chlamydia. |
2-5, edema |
|
Gonorrhea can be cultured after collection from the maternal ___________ and _____________ and the ________________ of the infected neonate. |
Urethra, cervix, conjunctiva |
|
What medium is used to culture gonorrhea? |
Thayer Martin |
|
The nucleic acid amplification test (Gen-Prove Aptima 2) is used to test for these two diseases. |
N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis |
|
What is the drug of choice for treating gonorrhea? |
Ceftriaxone |
|
What is the most common reportable sexually transmitted disease in the US? |
Chlamydia trachomatis |
|
This organism is an obligate intracellular parasite that resembles Gram negative bacteria. |
Chlamydia trachomatis |
|
What are the two forms in which C. trachomatis exists? |
Elementary body Reticulate body |
|
Which form of C. trachomatis is infectious? |
Elementary body |
|
What are the maternal symptoms of chlamydia? |
Mucopurulent cervicitis, salpingitis, PID |
|
What are the neonatal symptoms of chlamydia? |
Inclusion conjunctivitis, pneumonia |
|
Chlamydia can be cultured with isolation in ___________ cells. |
McCoy |
|
Chlamydial inclusions can be demonstrated in conjunctival scrapings via these two stains. |
Giemsa stain, DFA stain |
|
What is the systemic DOC for chlamydia? |
Azithromycin |
|
What is the topical DOC for chlamydia? |
Tetracycline |
|
What is the most common cause of sepsis and meningitis in a neonate? |
Group B Strep Disease |
|
This common colonizer of the human GI and GU tracts is a gram positive, beta hemolytic bacteria. |
Streptococcus agalactiae |
|
GBS serotypes Ia, II, III and V account for 90% of neonatal infections, but serotype ___ causes late onset diagnosis and early onste meningitis. |
III |
|
What are some risk factors associated with infant colonization with S. galactiae? |
Prematurity (<37 weeks) Heavily colonized mothers PROM >18 hours Intrapartum fever >100.4 Maternal chorioamnionitis Maternal GBS bacteruria Maternal age <20 years African american |
|
What is the most common cause of neonatal sepsis in the US? |
Early Onset GBS Disease |
|
Fever, breathing problems, apnea, cyanosis, seizures, heart rate and blood pressure anomalies are signs of ___________ in neonates. |
Group B Strep Infection |
|
The most common symptoms of early onset GBS disease are: |
Respiratory distress Apnea Signs of sepsis |
|
Risk factors for developing early onset GBS disease are: |
Colonization during labor and delivery Preterm delivery Prolonged ROM Fever during labor Previous infant with GBS Low maternal levels of anti GBS antibodies |
|
Prenatal cultures early/late in pregnancy along with _________ cultures for GBS can help predict delivery status. |
Late, urine |
|
What are the three indications for intrapartum GBS prophylaxis? |
Delivery <37 weeks gestation Amniotic membrane rupture >/= 18 hours Intrapartum temperature >100.4F (>38C) |
|
Universal screening for GBS should be done between __ and __ weeks gestation. |
35-37 |
|
What is the treatment for GBS? |
Penicillin |
|
This is an infection of the amniotic fluid, membranes and or decidua. |
Chorioamnionitis |
|
Mycoplasma, bacteroides, gardnerella, peptostreptococcus, enterococcus, GBS and E coli are common causes of ________________ |
Chorioamnionitis |
|
Chorioamnionitis occurs through the migration of ______________ __________ through the cervical canal. |
Cervicovaginal flora |
|
Pregnant mothers in this subset have the highest incidence of chorioamnionitis. |
Preterm women |
|
Chorioamnionitis is associated with _/_ of cases of preterm labor with intact membranes, __% of women with preterm premature rupture of membranes and __% of women who develop labor after admission for PPROM. |
1/3, 40%, 75% |
|
Diagnosis of chorioamnionitis requires a maternal fever of >100.4 and two of the following: |
Maternal leukocytosis >15,000wbcs/mm3 Maternal tachycardia >100bpm Fetal tachycardia >160bpm Uterine tenderness Foul odor of amniotic fluid |
|
__________ is the gold standard of diagnosing chorioamnionitis, but it takes too long to be clinically relevant. |
Culture of amniotic fluid |
|
What is the standard treatment for chorioamnionitis? |
Ampicillin-sulbactam |
|
Aside from ampicillin-sulbactam, what are two other drugs/drug combinations that can be used to treat chorioamnionitis? |
Ticarcillin-clavulanate Cefoxitin |
|
What are two long term disabilities associated with chorioamnionitis? |
Neurodevelopmental delay Cerebral palsy |
|
Perinatal death, asphysia, early onset sepsis, septic shock, pneumonia, meningitis, cerebral white matter damage and long term disability are possible adverse outcomes of _____________. |
Chorioamnionitis |
|
This refers to a positive urine culture in an asymptomatic person. |
Asymptomatic bacteruria |
|
Along with malaria, hepatitis, influenza and listeriosis, this infection is one of the more severe and problematic infections during pregnancy. |
UTI/asymptomatic bacteruria |
|
How is a UTI diagnosed in a pregnant woman? |
Quantitative culture of urine specimen |
|
___cfu/mL constitutes a positive clean catch urine specimen in a pregnant woman. |
10^5 |
|
__cfu/mL constitutes a positive catheterized urine specimen from a pregnant woman. |
10^2 |
|
When should a woman be screened for a UTI? |
12-16 weeks |
|
Smooth muscle relaxation and subsequent uretal dilation with pregnancy leads to a greater propensity for a UTI to progress to _____________. |
Pyelonephritis |
|
What are the two classes of drugs used to treat UTIs in pregnancy? |
Penicillins and celphalosporins |
|
Which STDs are screened for on the first prenatal visit? |
Chlamydia, gonorrhea, hepatitis B, HIV, syphilis |
|
Hard, red, swollen area of the breast and a fever of >38.3C are indicative of ____________. |
Lactational mastitis |
|
What are some risk factors for developing mastitis? |
Breast feeding problems Severe prolonged engorgement Poor milk drainage Nipple excoriation or cracking |
|
What are the four bugs most commonly associated with mastitis? |
S. aureus (MSSA or MRSA) S. pyogenes (GAS) S. agalactiae (GBS) E. coli |
|
What is the treatment for mastitis? |
Ibuprofen, ice packs Improve breast feeding techniques Antibiotics depending on isolated organism |
|
What antibiotic is used to treat MRSA in mastitis? |
Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole or clindamycin |
|
What antibiotic is used to treat MSSA in mastitis? |
Dicloxacillin, cephalexin |