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100 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Why is epiglottitis MC in adults
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Hib vaccine
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Clinical findings of epiglottitis
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severe sore throat& minimal findings
May see drooling, head held in slight flexion May elicit pain when moving thyroid cartilage Lateral neck x-ray – swollen epiglottis that appears “thumb” shaped |
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IN ER setting, what do you do for epiglottitis pt?
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get ready: Surgical airway tray & intubation tray at bedside
Stat ENT & Anesthesia consult Direct laryngoscope in the OR by ENT & anesthesia for possible intubation or tracheostomy Treat for H. Influenza |
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Complications of pertussis
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from cough (Hernia, rectal prolapse ruptured diaphragm)
- Neurologic Sequelae from hypoxia & Cerebral hemorrhages—encephalopathy, seizures - Secondary bacterial infections Death secondary to bacterial pneumonia |
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Treatment: of pertussis
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erythromycin, bactrim
Chemoprophylaxis for all exposed |
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Preciptants of Asthma/ Reactive airway disease
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Precipitants: URI
Allergic Respiratory irritants Cold Exercise GERD Beta-blockers Cholinergic stimuli |
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Cliniacal Effects of Asthma/ Reactive airway disease
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Clinical Effects: 1. Increase airway resistance
2. Decrease flow rate 3. Air trapping 4. Hypercarbia, hypoxemia 5. Pulsus paradoxus(decrease in BP >10 with inspiration 6. Muscle fatigue/respiratory failure |
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Pulse oximetry's role in Asthma outcome
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none
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Severe Asthma signs
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Severe Asthma:
Absence of wheezing* (bad sign - not moving enough air to wheeze) Inability to speak Pulsus paradoxus >20 Normal to elevated CO2 Hypoxemia PEFR <50% of predicted or pt’s baseline<80L/min CHF, FB, obstruction, infection – ALL may wheeze |
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Before PEFR, ER docs used to used FEV1/FVC. What should the normal value be?
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0.75
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If the difference between inspiratory and expiratory SBP is >__ mm Hg, the PP is abnormally high
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If the difference between inspiratory and expiratory SBP is >12 mm Hg, the PP is abnormally high
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Tamponade produces PP of __-__ mm Hg
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Tamponade produces PP of 20-30 mm Hg
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Risk Factors for Increased Mortality from asthma
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Past Hx of sudden severe attacks
2 or more hospitalizations in past 12 months Prior intubation or ICU admission 3 or more ED visits in 12 months Asthma emergency within past month Use of 2 or more adrenergic canisters per month Current use of systemic steroids or recent withdrawal Co morbidities Illicit drug use Low socioeconomic class |
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Major cause of bronchitis?
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Majority are viral
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Bacterial causes of bronchitis
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Pertussis, mycoplasma, chlymadia, strep
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Sputum color of brochitis
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Sputum may be clear or colored (color does not indicate bacterial vs. viral)
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Dx of bronchitis
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cough for 1 week, no lung disease, normal O2 saturation and normal lung exam
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Tx of bronchitis
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Nine RCT reveal that there is NO benefit to antibiotic therapy (unless underlying COPD)
Bronchoodilators may be of benefit (consider steroids?) |
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Chronic Bronchitis – excess mucous secretion in the bronchial tree with chronic productive cough occurring on most days for at least _ months in the year for _ consecutive years
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Chronic Bronchitis – excess mucous secretion in the bronchial tree with chronic productive cough occurring on most days for at least 3 months in the year for 2 consecutive years
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Pulses paradoxus above __ mm Hg indicates severe air trapping leading to auto-PEEP
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Pulses paradoxus above 20 mm Hg indicates severe air trapping leading to auto-PEEP
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Signs of hypercapnea include:
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confusion, tremor, plethora, stupor, hypopnea and apnea
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High risk for respiratory failure with COPD include
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attacks lasting for several days, dependence on steroids, prior attacks requiring intubation
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CXR_ of COPD may show...
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hyperaeration(increase AP diameter, flattened diaphragms, parenchymal lucency, attenuation of arterial vascular shadows
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EKG in mod to severe COPD
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EKG: in moderate to severe pulmonary disease
- Right ventricular strain - Abnormal p waves - NSST (non-specific ST-T changes) - MAT (multifocal atrial tachycardia) |
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Acute treatment of COPD
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Acute Treatment
- O2 with caution, maintain O2 saturation >90 - bronchodilators (same as asthma) - Antibiotics recommended - Steroids for severe cases - Mechanical ventilation for respiratory muscle fatigue, hypoxia refractory to treatment, worsening respiratory acidosis) - Avoid sedatives |
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Venous thromboembolic disease represent a continuum of disease from deep venous thrombosis(DVT) to __________ _________(___)
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Venous thromboembolic disease represent a continuum of disease from deep venous thrombosis(DVT) to pulmonary embolus(PE)
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Tx of PE
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unfractionated or low molecular weight heparin
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Dx of PE
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History and PE findings for PE or DVT are neither sensitive nor specific
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Risk factors for PE
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Stasis – immobilization, obesity,venous insufficiency,CHF
Endothelial Damage: trauma,Post-op, tobacco Hypercoagulable: Cancer, clotting abnormality, pregnancy, tobacco, oral contraceptives |
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How long after pregnancy is pt hypercoaguable?
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30 days
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Symptoms of PE
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- Dyspnea(80-90%)
- Pleuritic Chest Pain (80-90%) - Cough (50%) - Shock (10-35%) - Syncope (10-35%) |
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Signs of PE
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- Tachycardia (80-90%)
- Tachypnea (80-90%) - Fever (50%) - DVT (50%) - Wheezing - Rales |
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Pulmonary Embolism Risk Factors (long list)
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Prior history PE or DVT
Recent pregnancy or surgery Prolonged immobilization Malignancy especially peritoneal Hypercoaguable state Deficiency antithrombin III, protein C or S Presence circulating lupus anticoagulant Use of oral contraceptives Obesity(>120% ideal body weight) Presence central line Orthopedic trauma especially long bones, pelvis Polycythemia and thrombocytosis |
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ABG in PE
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ABG: hypoxemia with increase A-a gradient(>20 mm Hg)
<10% have normal A-a gradient |
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EKG in PE
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EKG: NSTT changes and or sinus tachycardia are the most common EKG findings
- sign of right heart strain(new RBBB, tall R in aVR) - S1Q3T3 - right axis deviation - p-pulmonale (peaked P wave in lead II) |
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CXR of PE
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CXR:
- cardiomegaly most common finding - elevated hemidiaphragm most common - atelectasis, infiltrates, pleural effusion -* Hampton’s hump – pleural based wedge shape density -* Westermark’s sign – dilated pulmonary vasculature proximal to embolus and oligemia distally - Hypoxemia with apparently normal CXR should raise your suspicion |
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V/Q scan of PE?
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V/Q Scan:
- normal virtually rules out PE - low, medium, indeterminate, need to interpret in light of clinical suspicion, may require further testing (doppler, CTPA) - high probability has >80% chance of PE |
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Doppler of PE?
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Doppler
- most >90% of PE arise from legs - less invasive - more sensitive for thigh DVT |
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D-Dimer of PE?
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D-Dimer (ELISA)(Normally elevated in thromboembolic disease)
- highly sensitive but not specific - high negative predictive value - may be useful to exclude PE if low clinical suspicion |
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CTPA of PE?
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CTPA
- accurate for proximal PE - may miss small peripheral PE - may identify other diagnosis |
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Tx for PE?
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Oxygen
Hemodynamic support Heparin or LMWH Long term warfarin Thrombolytics for massive PE/hemodynamic compromise IVC filter (if large PE or contraindication to anticoagulation) Embolectomy rarely done |
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2 types of pleural effusions
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Transudative
Exudative |
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cause of transudative
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caused by increased hydrostatic pressure or decreased intravascular oncotic pressure
- CHF more common on right - Cirrhosis - Nephrotic syndrome |
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Causes of exudative
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- Neoplastic
- Inflammatory (SLE, pancreatitis, Rheumatoid arthritis) - Infectious (pneumonia, empyema, abscess, TB) |
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the most common cause of pleural effusions in western countries is___, followed by malignancy, bacterial pneumonia, pulmonary embolism
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the most common cause of pleural effusions in western countries is CHF, followed by malignancy, bacterial pneumonia, pulmonary embolism
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in developing countries __ remains leading cause of pleural effusions
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in developing countries TB remains leading cause of pleural effusions
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Can you clear a c-spine with a n x-ray
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no
must be cleared clinically with Nexus criteria |
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3 questions when assessing airway
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Is the patient breathing?
Is there obstruction? Is the airway at risk? |
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Before you touch the patient insure that the _______ is immobilized!
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Before you touch the patient insure that the C-spine is immobilized!
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Indications for Surgical Airway
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Failure to intubate
Apneic with suspected C-spine injury Facial trauma with suspected C-spine injury Severe facial + Neck trauma = altered anatomy |
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State in which spontaneous respirations are inadequate for sustenance of life
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Acute Respiratory Failure
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Respiratory rate of acute respiratory failure
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RR >30 breaths/min or <6/min
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Normal A-a gradient =
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Normal A-a gradient = 10 mm Hg + (0.3 X patients age)
Normal = Age/4 + 4 |
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Formal calculation of A-a
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713(FI02) – PaCO2/.8 – PaO2
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A-a formula that is easy and should be memorized
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150 –(paO2 + PCO2/.8)
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Generally ARF is imminent when PO2 <__ mmHG or PCO2 >__mm HG
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Generally ARF is imminent when PO2 <60 mmHG or PCO2 >45mm HG
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For resp failure:
CXR: can generate differential diagnosis by classifying the radiograph as black or white |
Black: radiolucent film
- normal film - pulmonary embolism - asthma - COPD - pneumothorax White: radiopaque film - bacterial pneumonia - aspiration pneumonia - pulmonary edema / contusion - pleural effusion |
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Tx of Resp failure
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Treatment: 2 fold
Manage the airway with intubation and mechanical ventilation + supplemental oxygen Indications for intubation Treat underlying cause of acute respiratory failure |
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Criteria for Intubation
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Whenever the patient cannot maintain adequate ventilation on their own
When they cannot protect their airway from secretions & foreign matter Intubate when there is risk to the airway such as an airway burn Intubate if the patient likely will have ongoing respiratory distress i.e.. COPD with pulmonary contusion Intubate if the patient has a head injury with a GCS <8 |
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Examples of Inadequate Respirations
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Cardiac Arrest
Respiratory Arrest (i.e.. Narcotic overdose) Respiratory failure (i.e.. Status asthmaticus) Severe lung disease (i.e.. Pulmonary contusion) Traumatic Respiratory Distress Neurologic Injury(CVA, Herniation, Post. Fossa lesion) |
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Examples of Protection
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Prolonged unconsciousness
Inadequate gag reflex (i.e.. Drug overdose) Airway encroachment (burn/bleeding) Status epilepticus Transfer of patients from institution to institution – concern of stability of airway en route |
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Difficult ventilation:
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inability of a trained anesthetist to maintain the oxygen saturation >90% using a face mask for ventilation & 100% inspired oxygen, provided that the pre-ventilation oxygen saturation level was within the normal range
the need for more than three intubation attempts or attempts at intubation that last >10 min clinical factors that complicate either ventilation administered by face mask or intubation performed by experienced and skilled clinicians |
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TIming of adverse intubation sequellae in oxygenated vs .non oxygenated pts.
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oxy - 10 mins tolerated
non-ox - less |
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complications occur in up to __% of patients requiring emergent intubation
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complications occur in up to 78% of patients requiring emergent intubation
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Incidence of esophageal intubation & aspiration ranges from 8 to __%, and 4-__% respectively
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Incidence of esophageal intubation & aspiration ranges from 8 to 18%, and 4-15% respectively
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Mallampatic class is devised by having patients sit up, open their mouth, and pose in the “________ position”(i.e.. Neck flexed with atlantoaxial extension) with the tongue voluntarily protruded maximally while the physician observes posterior pharyngeal structures
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Mallampatic class is devised by having patients sit up, open their mouth, and pose in the “sniffing position”(i.e.. Neck flexed with atlantoaxial extension) with the tongue voluntarily protruded maximally while the physician observes posterior pharyngeal structures
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Mallampati classes
ranks tongue size relative to mouth size based on Faucial Pillars Soft Palate Uvula |
I: uvula fully visualized
II: uvula view partially obstructed III: top of uvula visible IV: uvula view obstructed |
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Factors Predicting Difficult Intubation
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Mouth opening <7cm (three fingertips)
A cervical range of motion of <35 degrees of atlanto-occipital extension A thyromental distance of <7cm (three fingerbreadths) Large incisor length A short, thick neck Poor mandibular translation Narrow palate(three finger breadths) In the ED nearly 70% of patients undergoing RSI have either altered mental status or cervical spine collars in place that prevent the assessment of these predictive factors |
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the 9 P's of Rapid sequence intubation
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seeslide 70
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Critically ill patients who require emergent intubation experience hypoxia, hypercarbia, & acidosis, which induce an extreme sympathetic outflow that is associated with tachycardia, labile BP, and increased myocardial contractility, and/or vasodilation, which result in postintubation hypotension
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Critically ill patients who require emergent intubation experience hypoxia, hypercarbia, & acidosis, which induce an extreme sympathetic outflow that is associated with tachycardia, labile BP, and increased myocardial contractility, and/or vasodilation, which result in postintubation hypotension
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ETT can provoke bronchospasm & coughing aggravating asthma, intraocular hypertension, and ICP
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ETT can provoke bronchospasm & coughing aggravating asthma, intraocular hypertension, and ICP
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For resp failure:
CXR: can generate differential diagnosis by classifying the radiograph as black or white |
Black: radiolucent film
- normal film - pulmonary embolism - asthma - COPD - pneumothorax White: radiopaque film - bacterial pneumonia - aspiration pneumonia - pulmonary edema / contusion - pleural effusion |
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Tx of Resp failure
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Treatment: 2 fold
Manage the airway with intubation and mechanical ventilation + supplemental oxygen Indications for intubation Treat underlying cause of acute respiratory failure |
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Criteria for Intubation
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Whenever the patient cannot maintain adequate ventilation on their own
When they cannot protect their airway from secretions & foreign matter Intubate when there is risk to the airway such as an airway burn Intubate if the patient likely will have ongoing respiratory distress i.e.. COPD with pulmonary contusion Intubate if the patient has a head injury with a GCS <8 |
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Examples of Inadequate Respirations
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Cardiac Arrest
Respiratory Arrest (i.e.. Narcotic overdose) Respiratory failure (i.e.. Status asthmaticus) Severe lung disease (i.e.. Pulmonary contusion) Traumatic Respiratory Distress Neurologic Injury(CVA, Herniation, Post. Fossa lesion) |
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Examples of Protection
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Prolonged unconsciousness
Inadequate gag reflex (i.e.. Drug overdose) Airway encroachment (burn/bleeding) Status epilepticus Transfer of patients from institution to institution – concern of stability of airway en route |
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Difficult ventilation:
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inability of a trained anesthetist to maintain the oxygen saturation >90% using a face mask for ventilation & 100% inspired oxygen, provided that the pre-ventilation oxygen saturation level was within the normal range
the need for more than three intubation attempts or attempts at intubation that last >10 min clinical factors that complicate either ventilation administered by face mask or intubation performed by experienced and skilled clinicians |
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TIming of adverse intubation sequellae in oxygenated vs .non oxygenated pts.
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oxy - 10 mins tolerated
non-ox - less |
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complications occur in up to __% of patients requiring emergent intubation
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complications occur in up to 78% of patients requiring emergent intubation
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Incidence of esophageal intubation & aspiration ranges from 8 to __%, and 4-__% respectively
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Incidence of esophageal intubation & aspiration ranges from 8 to 18%, and 4-15% respectively
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Mallampatic class is devised by having patients sit up, open their mouth, and pose in the “________ position”(i.e.. Neck flexed with atlantoaxial extension) with the tongue voluntarily protruded maximally while the physician observes posterior pharyngeal structures
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Mallampatic class is devised by having patients sit up, open their mouth, and pose in the “sniffing position”(i.e.. Neck flexed with atlantoaxial extension) with the tongue voluntarily protruded maximally while the physician observes posterior pharyngeal structures
|
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Mallampati classes
ranks tongue size relative to mouth size based on Faucial Pillars Soft Palate Uvula |
I: uvula fully visualized
II: uvula view partially obstructed III: top of uvula visible IV: uvula view obstructed |
|
Factors Predicting Difficult Intubation
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Mouth opening <7cm (three fingertips)
A cervical range of motion of <35 degrees of atlanto-occipital extension A thyromental distance of <7cm (three fingerbreadths) Large incisor length A short, thick neck Poor mandibular translation Narrow palate(three finger breadths) In the ED nearly 70% of patients undergoing RSI have either altered mental status or cervical spine collars in place that prevent the assessment of these predictive factors |
|
the 9 P's of Rapid sequence intubation
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seeslide 70
|
|
Critically ill patients who require emergent intubation experience hypoxia, hypercarbia, & acidosis, which induce an extreme sympathetic outflow that is associated with tachycardia, labile BP, and increased myocardial contractility, and/or vasodilation, which result in postintubation hypotension
|
Critically ill patients who require emergent intubation experience hypoxia, hypercarbia, & acidosis, which induce an extreme sympathetic outflow that is associated with tachycardia, labile BP, and increased myocardial contractility, and/or vasodilation, which result in postintubation hypotension
|
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ETT can provoke bronchospasm & coughing aggravating asthma, intraocular hypertension, and ICP
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ETT can provoke bronchospasm & coughing aggravating asthma, intraocular hypertension, and ICP
|
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Patients at risk for adverse events from airway manipulation benefit from the use of pre-induction drugs
Includes: |
Opioids
Lidocaine B-adrenergic antagonists Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers |
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What opioid blunts the hypertensive response to intubation (40% incidence of hypertensive response compared with 80% in control subjects)
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Fentanyl
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Derivatives of fentanyl, _______ and ________ are more effective than fentanyl at blunting both the tachycardic and hypertensive responses to intubation
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Derivatives of fentanyl, sufentanil and alfentanil are more effective than fentanyl at blunting both the tachycardic and hypertensive responses to intubation
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A class 1B antiarrhythmic drug, has been used to diminish the hypertensive response, to reduce airway reactivity, to prevent intracranial hypertension and to decrease the incidence of dysrrhythmias during intubation
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lidocaine
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a rapid-onset short acting, cardioselective B-adrenergic receptor-site blocker that effectively mitigates the tachycardic response to intubation with an inconsistent effect on the hypertensive response
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Etomidate
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The combined use of ________(2mg/kg) and ________(2ug/kg) has a synergistic effect for reducing both the tachycardia and hypertension associated with tracheal intubation
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The combined use of esmolol(2mg/kg) and fentanyl(2ug/kg) has a synergistic effect for reducing both the tachycardia and hypertension associated with tracheal intubation
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Caution is needed with _______ in trauma victims who are at risk for hypovolemia and may require a tachycardic response to maintain BP
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Caution is needed with esmolol in trauma victims who are at risk for hypovolemia and may require a tachycardic response to maintain BP
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Induction agents
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Etomidate, Propofol, Thiopental, Ketamine
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Induction agent that does not affect BP
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Etomidate
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Adverse effects of etomidate include
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nausea, vomiting, myoclonic movements, lowering seizure threshold, adrenal suppression
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Where anatomically do Neuromuscular blocking agents work
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motor end plate
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These drug classes differ in that depolarizing agents ________ the acetylcholine receptor, whereas non-depolarizing agents ___________ ___________ the acetylcholine receptor
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These drug classes differ in that depolarizing agents activate the acetylcholine receptor, whereas non-depolarizing agents competitively inhibit the acetylcholine receptor
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Do neuroblocking agents affect BP?
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not directly
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The effects of succinylcholine on __________ balance and cardiac rhythm represent its major complications
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The effects of succinylcholine on potassium balance and cardiac rhythm represent its major complications
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