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149 Cards in this Set

  • Front
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Say the word "skeletal"
wrong.

It's Skah-LEE-tul
2 types of incomplete fractures
Buckle (torus)
Greenstick
Buckle (torus) fracture – buckling of one cortex due to excessive compressive forces applied to the bone, usually at the m_______
metaphysis
Greenstick fractures – angular force applied to the bone – fracture of one cortex with b________ of the opposite cortex
bending
In children, angulation of a long bone may cause the bone to break only on the _____ side.
a) concave
b) convex
convex
On the ____ side, the periosteum and cortex remain intact (similar to the bark on a young, flexible twig

a) concave
b) convex
concave
Incomplete fractures are seen in what people?
children only
type of fracture where Both cortices are disrupted
Complete Fracture
N______ fractures – limited contact with a solid object, soft tissue injury is minimal as multiple fragments are rare
Nightstick
____ velocity injuries – minimal soft tissue damage
Minimal bony fragmentation
Low
____ velocity injuries – significant bony fragmentation
Extensive soft tissue damage as fragments become secondarily penetrating objects
High
______ injury – results in multiple bony fragments with resultant significant soft tissue injury
Crush
Spiral Fracture
- R_______ forces applied to a bone
- Common in abuse situations
Rotational
Compression Fractures
- A______ loading
- Fracture pattern can vary based on additional rotational forces that may be concomitantly applied
axial
A_______ Fractures
- tendons/ligaments are maximally stretched, disrupting insertion sites
Avulsion
Spiral Fracture
Compression Fractures
Avulsion Fractures

are all types of ______ trauma
Indirect Trauma
type of spinal Fracture sustained by building jumpers and gymnastics
compression
No associated disruption of the overlying skin - a _______ fracture
Closed Fractures
OPEN FRACTURES:
- Variable soft tissue injury with disruption of the overlying skin
- warrant further management including:
- antibiotic coverage (what kind?)
- t_____ prophylaxis
- consider irrigation (usually managed in the operating room)
(first generation cephalosporin +/- gentamycin)

tetanus
___________tion – articular surface of a joint is completely disrupted
Dislocation
Subluxation – articular surface is ________ disrupted
- spontaneous relocation is relatively common
partially
Immediate Management of Fractures (Highlighted bullets)

C_________ Syndrome
Neurologic dysfunction
Vascular abnormalities
_____(color) extremities
_____(temp of) extremities
Compartment Syndrome
Neurologic dysfunction
Vascular abnormalities
Pale extremities
Cold extremities
If a fracture is causing neurovascular deficits, immediate __________ should be performed
reduction and splinting
Open fractures should be covered with ______
gauze soaked with sterile saline
Compartment Syndrome considered in the acute setting
Seen with ______ fractures
closed
Compartment Syndrome considered in the acute setting
Seen with closed fractures
__________ tissue overlying the fracture
Tense soft
Classical Findings of Compartment Syndrome
5 Ps
Pallor
Pulselessness
Pain
Paresthesias
Pikilothermia
Decreased or absent pulses are a late finding in compartment syndrome.
What if you find a pulse in the injured extremity?
The presence of a pulse does not exclude compartment syndrome
Due to alteration of normal mental status, delays in recognition of compartment syn are more likely to occur in what pts?
sedated patients or those with head injuries
Diagnosis of compart. syn. can be confirmed by measuring intra-compartmental pressures with a ______ needle or with a needle connected to an arterial line pressure monitor
Stryker
Stryker needle pressure Levels above 30 mm Hg are

a) normal
b) abnormal
abnormal

think compartment syndrome
Treatment Compartment Syndrome
Initially immobilization & elevation
cooling and removal of any constricting bandages or splints
Intra-compartmental pressures greater than 30mm Hg generally require immediate intervention with f___________
Procedure usually performed by surgeon if possible
fasciotomy
We should look up the Salter classifications
system for classifying fractures, fracture-separations, and separations of the physis into five types.
Salter type I—a separation line through the epiphyseal plate only;
Salter type II—a partial separation of the epiphyseal plate and fracture into the metaphyseal bone;
Salter type III—a partial separation of the epiphyseal plate and a fracture through the epiphysis;
Salter type IV—a fracture through the metaphysis, across the epiphyseal plate and through the epiphysis;
Salter type V—a crushing or compression injury to the epiphyseal plate.
_______ – cartilaginous end(s) of a bone
Epiphysis
_______ – cartilaginous zone between epiphysis & calcified cartilage(metaphysis)
(AKA epiphyseal plate or growth plate
After it closes – referred to as epiphyseal line)
Physis
_______ – ossified portion of an epiphysis
Metaphysis
_________ – shaft of a tubular bone
Diaphysis
Stage I, II, III, and IV of bone healing
* 1. Reactive Phase
i. Fracture and inflammatory phase
ii. Granulation tissue formation
* 2. Reparative Phase
iii. Callus formation
iv. Lamellar bone deposition
* 3. Remodeling Phase
v. Remodeling to original bone contour
Acromioclavicular Separations
Mechanism: ________
fall to an outstretched or an adducted arm(FOOSH)
Acromioclavicular Separations Presentation:
pain over the AC joint
- more extensive injuries will have an obvious deformity over the AC joint
Acromioclavicular Separations Diagnosis:
X-rays should be taken of the shoulder and both clavicles
- stress views are no longer recommended

Severity – Types I-IV
Type I AC Separation:
Partial tear of the acromioclavicular ligament (AC)
_________ ligament remains intact (CC)
Coracoclavicular
Type I AC Separation:

Partial tear of the AC joint
Coracoclavicular lig remains intact
AC joint itself maintains normal alignment
X-rays are _____
Treatment: is symptomatic
- analagesic and sling use as needed(prn)
normal
Type II AC Separation:
___ tear of the AC ligament
Intact CC ligament
Normal anatomic alignment of the AC joint is maintained
Slight displacement of the clavicle may be visualized on x-rays
Treatment is the same as for Type I
Full
Type III AC Separation:
Full tear of the AC ligament
Full tear of the CC ligament
An obvious deformity is present
The distal clavicle is displaced _______ both on physical examination and on X-ray
Treatment is controversial
- some cases managed operatively and some managed non-operatively
superiorly
Type IV-VI AC Separation:
Complete tear of the AC & CC ligaments
Clavicular displacement varying with the type of injury
All of these cases are managed _____
operatively
Sternoclavicular Dislocations
Mechanism: direct trauma to ___ joint
Falls to outstretched extremity
SC
Sternoclavicular Dislocations Presentation: pain over the joint
- pain with motion of the affected extremity
- high degree of suspicion must be maintained, as ___________ dislocations can be life threatening due to joint proximity to the mediastinum(& great vessels)
posterior ********
Sternoclavicular Dislocations Diagnosis: PE subtle deformity, pain at site, slight decreased ROM
X-ray: plain CXR (PA & lateral)
- Sternal views
- if X-rays negative – CT Scan
Treatment: _______ dislocations – surgical emergency proximity to great vessels
- Anterior Dislocations – analgesics & sling
Posterior
95% all shoulder dislocations:
a) anterior
b) posterior
c) inferior
d) superior
Anterior Dislocation
Anterior dislocation:
Affected extremity position – abducted & ____ rotated
*********

externally
Types of anterior dislocations
: 1. Subcoracoid
2. Subglenoid
3. Intrathoracic
4. Subclavicular
Light bulb sign = what dislocation?
posterior
Posterior dislocation:
Occur after s______ or lightening strikes, psychiatric
seizures
Posterior dislocation:
Affected extremity position – adducted, _______ rotated
internally
Name some nonsurgical treatments for should dislocation
Traction – countertraction
Scapular manipulation
Stimson – prone,patients extremity dangling off stretcher
Most common of the previous question
Stimson
When do you get a Orthopedic surgery consult with a dislocation?
:
1. Any dislocation involving a fracture
2. A nerve injury
3. An inability to reduce the dislocation
Complications of Dislocation/Reduction

Name some nerve problems****
Axillary nerve damage(loss of sensation over deltoid)
Musculocutaneous Nerve injury (loss of sensation along dorsal forearm)
Complication of dislocation reduction :
Bony injury – Hill Sachs Fracture – fracture of the posterior aspect of the humerus as it abuts the glenoid during the process of _________ dislocation
anterior

****Board question
Complication of reduction of dislocated shoulder:

Reverse Hill Sachs Fracture – fracture of the anterior aspect of the humeral head as it hits the glenoid during posterior dislocations is seen with ________ dislocations
posterior
Pts with cervical disc problem have high chance of what other MS problem?
shoulder
Rotator Cuff Injuries:
Seen after fall onto the shoulder, heavy lifting, after forceful _______ of the extremity
Presentation: weak ________, anterior shoulder pain
abduction
Rotator Cuff Injuries:
Chronic Tears: significantly more common, particularly after age 40, due to chronic impingement
Presentation: pain is more gradual in onset
- pain may be exacerbated by attempts at _________ and rotation of the shoulder
abduction
Rotator Cuff Injuries:
Diagnosis: PE – i_______ each the cuff muscles for strength testing
X-rays: are not necessary
isolation
Rotator Cuff Injuries:
Treatment: Analgesics, sling for comfort, attention to gentle ROM exercises prevent _________ capsulitis
- Chronic – periscapular strengthening/physical therapy
- possible surgical repair
adhesive
What are the SSIT muscles?
Subscapularis
Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Teres minor
Scapular Fractures:
Commonly associated with high velocity trauma(blunt trauma)
Injuries are often picked up during ATLS protocols
Subsequent __________ injury should be ruled out with imaging
Usually managed non-operatively with analgesics and sling
lung and abdominal
Proximal Humeral Fractures:
Commonly seen in the _______ who has tripped & fallen on FOOSH
Presentation: pain around shoulder, decreased ROM
Fracture is defined based on injury to following anatomic parts: - anatomic neck
- surgical neck
- greater tuberosity
- lesser tuberosity
elderly
Proximal Humeral Fractures:
Classification: one part fracture – one area affected & not displaced
Two part fractures –displacement of one fragment
Three part fractures – two displaced fragments
Four part fractures – _____ parts displaced
three
Proximal Humeral Fractures:
Treatment
Analgesics/sling
1,2,3 part fractures managed non operatively
4 part fracture – operative fixation(sometimes hemi-arthroplasty)
Rule out _______ n injury
Effect of gravity on slinged arm will reduce fracture
axillary ********
Humeral Shaft Fractures:
Occur with a FOOSH
May occur as pathologic fractures, particularly in ________ patients
breast cancer
Humeral Shaft Fractures:
If an associated _______ nerve injury (wrist drop) has been ruled out these patients can be placed in a coaptation sling & followed up with orthopedics
_______ nerve injury mandates ORIF
radial
Elbow Fractures (Proximal Ulna, Radial Head):
difficult to directly visualize on x-ray
Presence of a ________ fat pad sign on the lateral x-ray highly suspicious
Anterior fat pad sign may be seen on N x rays
posterior
Elbow Fractures (Proximal Ulna, Radial Head):
Anterior humeral line can be used to detect fractures (line drawn along the anterior border of the humerus on lateral x-ray, should transect the c________
capitellum
Elbow Fractures (Proximal Ulna, Radial Head):
Radial ______ fracture – should be suspected if the patient notes pain with pronation/supination
Assuming a N neurovascular exam, patients with occult fractures should be placed in a sling for comfort(non-displaced fractures) or a splint (displaced fractures) + ortho follow-up
head
Elbow Dislocations:
more common with anterior dislocations
- _________ nerves commonly injured
- any neuro deficit warrants immediate reduction
Once reduced patient should be splinted in flexion & ortho follow up
ulnar & median
Forearm Fractures:
M________ Fractures – fractures of mid-ulna with proximal radial dislocation
- radial nerve injury common
- necessitating ORIF
Monteggia
Forearm Fractures:
G______ Fractures – distal radial fractures with associated disruption of the distal radioulnar joint
- due to this joint instability ORIF required
Galeazzi
MUGER?
?
Hand & Wrist:
____ Fractures: most common carpal fracture
The MC mechanism –FOOSH
Scaphoid
Hand & Wrist:
X-ray – majority _____ (n or p?)
Management – neg x-rays & high clinical suspicion do not change management
Patients placed in a thumb-spica splint
Repeat x-rays in 10-14 days
negative
hand and Wrist:
Complications – prone to non-union & avascular necrosis due to tenuous blood supply
Most fractures thru the proximal aspect of scaphoid while the blood supply enters ________, thus making healing difficult

a) distally
b) proximally
distally
Smith vs. Colles Fractures:

Distal _____ fractures
Mechanism: FOOSH
radius
Smith vs. Colles Fractures:

Resultant dorsal angulation of the distal fragment – ______ fracture(displaced posteriorly)
_______ nerve injuries common associated with this fracture
Immediate attempts at closed reduction should be attempted once adequate x-rays & analgesia obtained
Colles

Median
Smith vs. Colles Fractures:

_______ fracture: FOOSH
Resultant volar angulation (displaced ________)
Median nerve injuries are not as common as with Colles
Immediate attempts at closed reduction after x-ray/analgesia
a) anteriorly
b) posteriorly
Smith’s


anteriorly
Injection Injuries to Hand:
True orthopedic emergency
Typically inflicted by _____ guns
paint
Injection Injuries to Hand:

Injury is far more extensive than surface lesions indicate
Fluid travels along the tendon s______
Nature of the substance injected must be considered
Toxic/necrotizing substances may cause further damage
sheath
Injection Injuries to Hand:

Management: affected body part splinted, transport to OR for definitive RX
Analgesics, broad spectrum antibiotics
T______
Tetanus
Extensor Tendon Injuries:
M_______ Finger: disruption of the extensor tendon from the DIP
Mallet
Extensor Tendon Injuries:
Affected joint should be splinted in extension for minimum __ weeks
Imperative not to remove splint for any reason
6
Extensor Tendon Injuries:
Failure to properly treat mallet finger may lead to __ deformity(persistent mallet finger with hyperextension of PIP)
swan neck
Boutonniere Deformity:
Opposite of the ______ finger
mallet
Boutonniere Deformity
Flexion of the PIP with hyperextension of the ____
DIP
Boutonniere Deformity:

This injury typically results from a ruptured central slip at the PIP
If this injury is found in ED the extremity should be splinted in extension X 6 weeks
Definitive operative repair is _______
a) optional
b) required
c) depends on details
required
DeQuervain’s Tenosynovitis:

An inflammation of the first _____ compartment of the hand
dorsal
DeQuervain’s Tenosynovitis:

Abductor pollicus _____ and extensor pollicus _____ are contained in this anatomic area
longus

brevis
DeQuervain’s Tenosynovitis:

Mechanism: injury frequently develops from _____ of the thumb/wrist
overuse
DeQuervain’s Tenosynovitis:

Diagnosis: F________ test – flexion of the thumb across the volar palm followed by ulnar deviation recreates symptomatology
Management:Thumb-Spica splint
Finkelstein’
Pelvic Fractures:
Mechanism/Classification: _______ trauma(MVA, pedestrian,crush, falls)
high velocity
Pelvic Fractures:
Classification – Kane modification system – based on the ______ of disruption to pelvic ring
Tile classification: based on the _______ of the applied force
number

direction
Pelvic Fractures:
Management: Standard ATLS protocols
Suspect pelvic fracture if blood is found at ________
_______ tenderness another clue
*******Potential for significant blood loss (up to 5L) – FAST US
urethral meatus

Rectal
Pelvic Fractures:

Attempts to stabilize pelvis – external binder, _______ tied around the pelvis –approximate SI joints
Operative fixation/embolization in angiography
sheets
If the pelvic ring is broken at its periphery or at one level, the fracture is _______

a) serious
b) stable
stable
If there is disruption at ___ levels, then there is potential for displacement and considered unstable
two
Hip Fractures:
Typical patient elderly individual tripped & fallen
Extremities held ______ & in ______ rotation typical for femoral neck fracture
abducted

external
Hip Fractures:
Patients may be ambulatory at time of presentation
Minimally displaced femoral _____ fractures occasionally treated with pinning, most require hemiarthroplasty
neck
Hip Fractures:
Extremities with marked _______ rotation more likely intertrochanteric fractures
Patient not able to ambulate
Treated with pinning and rarely hemiarthroplasty
external
Hip Dislocation:
Result of high velocity trauma
True ortho emergencies prolonged dislocations compromise vascular supply to femoral _____
head
Hip Dislocation:
Dislocations > 6 hours result in avascular ______ femoral head
Arthroplasty – hemiarthroplasty patients should be reduced ASAP to decrease muscle spasm
necrosis
Hip Dislocation:

No danger to vascular supply
________ Dislocation – more common than anterior 90:10
Posterior
Hip Dislocation:

Management: reduction technique begins with adequate conscious sedation
Affected limb is distracted _______ to disengage femoral head from the acetabulum
Once acetabulum is cleared femoral head is able to relocate into bony pelvis
inferiorly
Hip Dislocation:

Complications – ____ N injury
sciatic
Long-term, systemic (oral or intravenous) steroid use is associated with 35% of all cases of non-traumatic __________ necrosis
avascular necrosis.

However, there is no known risk of AVN associated with the limited use of steroids.
Why do steroids cause avascular necrosis?
they may interfere with the body’s ability to break down fatty substances -->
build up and clog the blood vessels, causing them to narrow, ->
bone perfusion decreases
Knee – ACL/PCL Injury

Posterior forces applied to extended knee can result in ___ disruption
ACL
Knee – ACL/PCL Injury:

Posterior forces applied to extended knee can result in ACL disruption
Significant posteriorly directed forces can result in ________ disruption as well
posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
Knee – ACL/PCL Injury:

Posterior forces applied to a flexed knee (I.e..MVA) can result in isolated ____ injury
PCL
Knee – ACL/PCL Injury:

Addition of rotatory forces can result in collateral ligament A/O ____ injury
meniscal
Knee Examination:

Affected knee will likely have an e__________
effusion(hemarthrosis)
Knee Examination:

Tenderness along the bony insertions of the affected ligament
ACL stability should be assessed with the knee in 20 degrees of flexion(_______ Test)
Lachman’s
Knee Examination:

Anterior force applied to the tibia while stabilizing the femur
Laxity relative to the unaffected knee is indicative of ____ tear
ACL
Knee Examination:

ACL stability can also be assessed via the pivot ____ test – with the patient supine and hip flexed to 45 degrees, the extended knee is picked up by the examiner
shift
Knee Examination:

The knee is then flexed and fluidity of motion assessed(a click or catch during flexion indicates ____ tear)
RX: hinged knee brace
ACL
Meniscal Injury:

Function of menisci serve as shock absorber of knee
Mechanism – injured with twisting injury combined with ______ loading
Significant trauma not needed
axial
Meniscal Injury:

Presentation – significant pain along the joint line
Small effusion +/-
Patients may note a ______ sensation when walking as torn fragment is caught between tibia & femur
clicking
Meniscal Injury:
Larger tears may cause knee to ____
lock
Meniscal Injury:

Diagnosis: McMurray’s Test – patient supine, hip flexed to 90 D, knee extended while rotating tibia medially & laterally in attempt to catch the meniscal fragment between tibia & femur
A palpable ____ over the joint line is positive test
clunk
Muscles of the anterior lower leg compartment. name them (4)
Tibialis anterior muscle
Extensor hallicus longus
Extensor digitorum longus
Peroneus tertius muscles
Compartments Lower Leg:
Anterior Compartment:
These structures function to dorsiflex foot & extend toes
_______ nerve supplies theses muscles as does the ______ artery
Deep peroneal

anterior tibial
Lateral Compartment of lower leg

name muscles, nerve and function
Peroneus longus muscle
Peroneus brevis muscle
Superficial peroneal nerve
Foot eversion
Posterior Compartment of lower leg

name muscles
Gastrocnemius
Soleus
Plantaris muscles
Primary plantar flexors of foot
DEEP POSTERIOR COMPARTMENT of lower leg:

name muscles and function
DEEP POSTERIOR COMPARTMENT
- Posterior Tibial muscle
- flexor hallicus longus
- flexor digitorum longus
- assist in plantar flexion of the foot
Compartment Syndrome:
Can occur acutely in any of the compartments in the leg
Occurs with significant soft tissue injury / ______ fracture
closed
Compartment Syndrome:
Key Examination Findings:
- tense compartments
- pain out of proportion to exam
- loss of sensation
- pain with passive & active motion
- late findings include _______
loss of pulses, loss of skin color
Compartment Syndrome:

Treatment: immediate ____ release, formal measurement of compartment
fascial
Compartment Syndrome:

Chronic Compartment Syndrome – can occur with ________
- patients often asymptomatic between activities, develop symptoms within 5-10 minutes of activity
regular exercise
Ankle Injuries:

Lateral Ligaments:
list in order of injury frequency!
- commonly injured when a plantar flexed foot is inverted
- anterior talofibular ligament(ATFL)
- calcaneofibular ligament
- posterior talofibular lig
Ankle Ligaments – Deltoid Ligament

Medial ligamentous complex
Particularly strong
Isolated injuries are rare
________ of the foot will cause damage to this structure(pronation)
Eversion
Ankle Ligaments – Deltoid Ligament

Syndesmotic and or fibular injuries (M_______ fractures) commonly associated with deltoid lig injury as forces are transmitted across the syndesmois
Maisonneuve
Syndesmotic Ligaments

name them
Anterior tibiofibular ligament
Posterior tibiofibular ligament
Transverse ligament
Interosseous membrane
Syndesmotic Ligaments

Injuries are particularly _____ (stable/unstable?)
Require extended non-weight bearing status & physical therapy to return to previous levels of function
unstable
Syndesmotic Ligaments:

Diagnosis: palpate the joint line
- perform the ____ test
- squeeze the tibia & fibula together at the level of the distal gastocnemius belly
- this will send forces along the interosseous membrane – if the membrane is disrupted at the syndesmosis, the patient notes syndesmotic pain
squeeze
Syndesmotic Ligaments:

Ext.rotation test – patient sitting with knee flexed to 90D, externally rotate foot, pain at syndesmosis is indicative of ______ injury
ligamentous
General Diagnosis Ankle Injuries

History – What is position at time of injury?

Determine if previous injury
patients often do not know position of foot/ankle at time injury
General Diagnosis Ankle Injuries

Exam: all bony structures should be palpated
- both m______i
- syndesmosis
- proximal fibula
- base of the 5th metatarsal
- all bones of mid & forefoot
malleoli
General Diagnosis Ankle Injuries

Anterior Drawer Test- assesses ATFL stability
Patient sitting, knee flexed to 90D,ankle in neutral position
- one hand stabilizes distal tibia, while opposite hand is placed on c_______
- anterior force is applied to c_________, laxity compared to contralateral extremity
calcaneus
Ankle – Talar Tilt Test

Assess the ATFL & ______ ligaments
calcaneofibular
Ankle – Talar Tilt Test:

Extremity is placed in a similar fashion as the anterior drawer test
Instead of applying an anterior force the examiner ____ the foot
Again, laxity should be compared to the contralateral side
inverts