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98 Cards in this Set

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Q. If discharge is purulent what type of infection?
Bacterial infxn
Q. If discharge is watery what type of infection?
Viral Infection
Q. Aniridia is etiology for?
Wilm’s tumor
Q. Leukocoria has etiology for what 6 things?
retinoblastoma, retinopathy of prematurity, pupillary membrane, cataract, vitreous opacities, retinal detachment, and retinal dysplasia.
Q. Usually bacterial, may be viral, fungal or allergic. Diffuse injection of conjunctiva, moderate to heavy d/c, clear corneal transparency is characteristic of what disease?
Acute Conjunctivitis
Q. Good treatment for acute conjunctivitis?
Breastmilk
Q. Uncommon, purple-red/circumcorneal injection, visual acuity is decreased, cornea may be hazy is characteristic of what condition?
Acute Iritis
Q. SXM of periorbital cellulitis include what?
fever, erythema, tenderness and swelling of the eyelid. Also known as “Preseptal Cellulitis”, b/c the infxn is anterior to the orbital septum.
Q. SXM of orbital cellulitis include what?
Same sx as periorbital, but also has proptosis, edema of the conjunctiva, opthalmoplegia, or decreased visual acuity.
Q. Stages of visual acuity?
Newborn?
6 Wks?
3 Mos?
6 Mos?
Newborn: eyelid response to bright light is adequate
6 WKS: eye-to-eye contact with slow following movements
3 MOS: fixing and following ocular movements for objects at a distance of 2-3 feet
6 MOS: interest in movement across the room is nml.
Q. Hallmark sign of shaken baby syndrome?
Retinal Hemmorage
Q. Hives which can occur w/intro of NEW FOOD (or dyes), and may not show up until 2 DAYS after?
Erythema multiforme
Q. Usually from meds, rash more generalized. The major form has 2 or more mucous membranes affected?
Stevens-Johnson syndrome (AKA Erythema Multiforme)
Q. Reiter's syndrome can be related to what STD?
Chlamydia
Q. How long do people with Kawasakis disease have a fever?
5 Days
Q. When should an ECG or ECHO be taken when the patient has Kawasakis disease?
ECG and ECHO during and 2-3 mos. post!
Q. Adenovirus can look like Kawasaki Dz the kidney has higher what 5 things?
1. WBC, 2. ESR, 3. Platelets, 4. ALT, 5. pyuria
Q. Name the disease: Aggravated: allergies, 2nd hand smoke, reclined bottle feeding, pacifier use (should d/c use by 10-18mos ideally) dehydration, dry pharynx
S/Sx: Pain, irritability, hearing loss, decreased appetite.
Otitis Media
Q. How long should Otitis media be waited on before treating with antibiotics?
2-3 days
Q. Xylitol administered only during what infxn was ineffective in preventing AOM?
ACUTE
Q. What does otitis media effusion commonly cause in children?
Temporary acquired hearing loss
Q. Best natural treatment for otitis externa?
1. Rubbing alcohol 2. white vinegar (1:1)
Q. This condition Presents like OM BUT may present with more pain?
Bullous Myringitis
Q. Labrynthitis is a hospital refferal? T or F.
True
Q. Post auricular pain / fever, swelling, redness. 9% mastoiditis cases >>>meningitis?
Mastoiditis
Q. The presence of a greasy-looking mass in the ear with debris?
Cholesteatoma
Q. Foreign BODY in the nose will lead to what 3 things?
Discharge, malodorous, pain
Q. Patients who have taken steroids and had Eczema then Asthma, probably have this condition?
Allergic Rhinitis
Q. Nasolacrimal duct cases usually resolve in 1 year? T or F?
True
Q. When is surgery not helpful in Nasolacrimal duct cases?
After 13 months
Q. Children with this condition may have feeding issues, or “clicking” when feeding?
Cleft Palate
Q. Is there any way to treat glomerulonephritis?
No
Q. Name the condition:
Neck mass, Fever, sore throat.
Usually only in <4yo, b/c retropharyngeal nodes atrophy after that…
Exam: child unable to look up at ceiling
Retropharyngeal Abscess
Q. Name the Condition: 1. Similar presentation as Retropharyngeal Abscess
2. Trismus: inability to open mouth, so talks through teeth
Tonsilar/Peritonsilar Abscess
Q. Name the condition: Can Mimick Strep Pharyngitis. Papular/vesicular/ulcerative lesions on the pharynx, tonsils
Herpangina
Q. 1. Natal Teeth?
2. Neonatal teeth?
1. Erupt w/in 1st 30 days postnatally.
2. Present at birth
Q. Name the condition: Possibly related to lithium exposure, possibly related to psoriasis?
Geographic Tongue
Q. IMPORTANT: Average WBC count for 1mo-1yr?
7,000-17,000
Q. IMPORTANT: Average WBC count for >1yr?
4,000-12,000
Q. What stage do patients with measels get Koplik Spots?
2nd stage: Prodromal or Catharal
Q. What illness accounts for 60% of deaths from measles?
Pneumonia
Q. 1. What supplement helped measels infections?
2. What immunoglobulin increased in these patients?
1. Vitamin A
2. IgG
Q. Name the condition: Mild prodromal phase, catarrh, LA at retroauricular, post. cervical, and occipital (x~24hrs). Then rash on face, head, neck and quickly spreads to rest of the body.
Rubella
Q. What is a complication commonly seend in patients with rubella?
congenital rubella deafness
Q. starts as non-specific viral prodrome followed by rash. Rash may occur anywhere
Maculopapular>>> maculovesicular>>>Ruptures>>>scabs. Intense Itch.
Varicella (Chicken Pox)
Q. What are 2 complications of chicken pox?
1. DEAFNESS, deep ear pain, facail paralysis)
2. enceph
Q. Concern if mom contracts varicella how many days 1. pre-birth to how many days 2. post-birth?
1. Pre-Birth: 4d .
2. Post Birth: 2d
Q. Name the condition: This baby has Aversion to
being held, high pitch shrill cry Nuchal rigidity? 1. Whats the condition? 2. What to screen for?
1. Menningitis
2. Hearing Loss
Q. Name the condition: May come on quick or slow. Initial sx may be nonspecific or flu-like. Inflammation of the brain?
Encephalitis
Q. Name the condition: Causes: Strep, Staph, Listeria, Neisseria, Salmonella. SXM LOW CAPILLARY REFILL, FEVER, AND PETECHIAE?
Septicemia
Q. Rhinorrhea, cough, fever, petechiae/purpura, tachypnea are common in Meningococcemia. What age age group will you see an increased risk in?
4 Year olds
Q. Name the condition: 3-4 d. of high fever followed by recession of fever>>> immediate maculopapular rash on trunk>>> neck and arms>>> fades within 24 hrs?
Roseola infantum
Q. Acute painful swelling of the salivary glands, most often the parotids. 1. Name the condition? 2. What is the complication?
1. Mumps
2. Orchitis
Q. Treatment for mumps?
Phytolacca. .5ml Max Daily
Q. Parvovirus B19
S/Sx: "slapped cheek" appearance, followed by maculopapular rash on trunk. Measure IgG levels to Parvo: If NEG?
Erythema infectiosum
Q. Name the condition: abd pain, H/A, strawberry tongue, "SANDPAPER RASH”. Rash initially in groin, axilla, neck?
Scarlett Fever
Q. What is the diagnostic test for Rheumatic fever?
No diagnostic tests, EXCEPT for EKG…
Q. Name the condition: 1. Carditis-mitral insufficiency murmur
2) Polyarthritis
3) Sydenham's chorea-emotional instability
4)Erythema marginatum
5) SubQ nodules—(severe), over joints, scalp and spine. Up to 1 in, NT and movable.
Rheumatic Fever
Q. Name the condition: Coxsackie viruses A5, A10, A16. Vesicles and/or red papules found on hands, feet, and mouth?
Hand Foot Mouth Disease
Q. Name the condition:
Rash—non-blanchable papules on thighs, lower legs and buttocks. Fever and polyarthralgia.
Henoch-schonlein purpura
Q. Vesicular / papular rash that weeps, honey-colored, crusting, erythematous border is Impetigo. IMPORTANT: What is the cause?
S.Aureus, maybe S. Pyogenes
Q. Caused by pox virus, can resolve on its own or may be removed by the same methods as warts. 1. Name the condition? 2. What is the treatment?
1. Molluscum Contagiosum
2. Chaparral Salve or Vinegar
Q. Scabies is a condition of extreme itching, wavy dark lines which indicate burrows of scabies bug. Where is this condition found on the body?
Located mainly at finger webs, flexor surface of the wrists, elbows, axilla, beltline.
Q. Rocky mountain spotted fever commonly shows on the patient on what days?
Day 3 & 4
Q. Where on the body does Rocky Mountain Spotted fever begin and then spread?
Begins on ankles / wrists / palms / soles, and then trunk in next 6-18 hrs.
Q. The periodic fever is usu. the main complaint. What syndrome is usually present?
PFAPA Syndrome
Q. What is the best treatment for infections?
Vit A (Keratinization). Also increase T-Lymphocytes.
Q. Larch does what for the immune response to bacterial infection? What does it stimulate?
Enhancing immune response to bacterial infection:
Stimulation of phagocytosis.
Competitive binding of bacterial fimbriae, or bacterial opsonization.
Q. What is a major side effect of Echinacea?
Hayfever
Q. When performing a pulmonary exam, what 3 things do you inspect for?
1. RETRACTIONS between ribs and at suprasternal notch
2. DIAPHRAGM PULLING against the chest wall
3. CLUBBING
Q. When performing a pulmonary exam, what 4 things do you palpate for?
1. CHEST EXPANSION: check for asymmetry.
2. TRACHEAL DEVIATION is shown with mediastinum shift
3. FREMITUS should be assessed if pleural effusion is suspected.
4. PALPABLE VIBRATION
Q. Percussion:
Dullness?
Hyperresonance?
In children where should the diaphragm be?
1. consolidation (PNEUMONIA).
2. Asthma or rarely in an infant, emphysema.
3. At the bottom of the scapula
Q. Auscultation:
1. Crackles /wheezes?
2. Rubs?
3. Absence of breath sounds?
1. abnormal.
2. Creaking sounds during both insp/exp
3. Consolidation or collapse.
Q. Name the condition:
barking cough, then stridor.
Retractions, air hunger and cyanosis in severe cases?
Viral Croup
Q. What is a key X-Ray finding of croup?
"Steeple sign"
Q. Epiglottis seems toxic, anxious and remarkably still.
Considered a medical emergency! True or False?
True
Q. Name the condition: expiratory wheezing, and resp distress (nasal flaring, retractions, cyanosis)
RSV most common cause?
Bronchiolitis
Q. By what age do all children show antibodies to Bronchiolitis?
ALL children show Antibodies by 3 years old
Q. What are 3 SXM to differentiate bronchiolitis from asthma?
1. Onset of wheezing insidious
2. Fhx of asthma/allergy uncommon
3. Less responsive to inhaler
Q. What treatment do most patients respond to in Bronchiolitis?
Some MAY respond to albuterol
Q. What is a strong risk factor for death in patients with Bronchiolitis?
Tobacco use during pregnancy
Q. Name the condition: S/Sx: wheezing, exercise intolerance, SOB, cough, recurrent bronchitis/pneumonia
Resp distress signs with severe cases--nasal flaring, retractions, accessory mm use, cyanosis?
Asthma
Q. Failure to respond to what treatment is very sensitive indicator that they don’t have asthma?
Bronchodilators
Q. Breast feeding lowered rates of asthma in children? True or False?
True
Q. Asthmatic patients have a low intake of what 3 vitamins and a high intake of what?
Low intake of Vitamin A, E, & C
High Intake of Saturated Fatty Acids
Q. May show as chronic cough, persistent wheezing, or recurrent pneumonia. Cyanosis if severe?
Foreign Body Aspiration
Q. Patients with Cystic Fibrosis show what physical findings in there:
1. Lungs?
2. GI?
1. Lungs: increased AP diameter
2. GI: meconium ileus at birth
Q. Patients with Cystic Fibrosis tend to be infertile? True or False?
True
Q. What is the most contagious stage of pertussis?
Cataharral
Q. Infants are severely and sometimes fatally affected? True or False?
True
Q. Name the condition: Cough that starts off dry, then eventually becomes productive?
1. Bronchitis
Low dose Vitamin C is great at treating it
Q. Name the condition: Pleural involvement: splinting, pain, friction rub, dullness to percussion. Inspiratory crackles?
Pneumonia
Q. ZINC supplementation was seen to help what respiratory condition?
Pneumonia
Q. What type of study should be ordered to DX Pneumonia?
Frontal Chest X-Ray
Q. If recurrent Pneumonia what 5 other syndromes should be considered?
Incoordination w/ aspiration, Immune d.o., 1. CHD, 2. Asthma, 3. Pulmonary Anomalies, 4. GERD, 5. Sickle Cell
Q. Antitussives are restricted to what?
Dry coughs unless cough is completely exhausting/ preventing sleep
Q. Are Expectorants HELPFUL OR NOT helpful for coughs of pleural or pharyngeal origin?
NOT HELPFUL, THEY INCREASE RESPIRATORY FLUID SECRETION
Q. Name 4 Anti-Spasmodics?
1. Trifolium pratense: measles
2. Pleurisy root: acute bronchitis or influenza
3. Lungwort/Sticta:
4. Sundew/Drosera: Asthmatic or Croup