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124 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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RDS
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Respiratory distress syndrome; single most important cause of illness and death in preterm infants.
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What is the single most important cause of illness and death in preterm infants?
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Respiratory distress syndrome
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ECMO
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Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation; it is a cardiopulmonary bypass system to allow lungs to develop without stressors
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What are the requirements for ECMO?
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34 wks of gestational age, weight more than 2000g, no intracranial bleeding and have reversible lung damage.
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BPD
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Bronchopulmonary dysplasia; Chronic pulmonary condition caused by incomplete or abnormal repair of lung tissue during neonatal period.
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What are the pathophysiological features of BPD?
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immature lung tissue, barotraumas, and volutrauma from mechanical ventilation.
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PVL
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Periventricular Leukomalacia; predominant form of brain injury and leading cause of CP
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Which motor tracts are most likely to be damaged by PVL?
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Lower extremity
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GM-IVH
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Germinal Matrix Intraventricular Hemorrhage; Is the most common type of neonatal intracranial hemorrhage, they occur in neonates younger than 32 weeks who weigh less than 1500g.
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How many grades of IVH are there?
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There are four, with I being the least severe and IV being the most severe.
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NEC
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Necrotizing Enterocolitis; acute inflammatory disese of the bowel
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When does NEC occur most frequently?
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In premature infants who weigh less than 2000g and during their first 6 weeks of life.
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ROP
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Retinopathy of prematurity; It is a proliferation of abnormal blood vessels in the newborn retina.
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What is the treatment for ROP?
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Retinal cryotherapy and surgical intervention for retinal detachment.
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SGA
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Small for gestational age
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What are the time out signs?
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Covering eyes, hiccoughs, sneezing, coughing, putting stop signs out, gaze avaidance, yawning, change in color, shilding eyes, modeling in skin color.
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OI
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Osteogenesis imperfecta; brittle bone disease
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AMC
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Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita; non-progressive neuromuscular syndrome present at birth.
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What are the characteristics of AMC?
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Severe joint contractures, muscle weakness, and fibrosis.
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DMD
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Duchenne's muscular dystrophy;
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How does DMD normally present?
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Weakness of neck flexory, abdominals, interscapular, and hip extensor musculatures.
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SMA
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Spinal Muscular Atrophy; abnormality of the large anterior horn cells in the spinal cord.
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What disease has a progressive degeneration of anterior horn cells?
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Spinal Muscular Atrophy
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How many types of SMA are there?
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There are three: type I, type II, and type III.
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T or F
The HIV virus is more aggressive in children than in adults |
True
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What is the rule of 3's?
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With botox, the effects start to show after 3 days, hit their max effects at 3 weeks, and begin to fade at 3 months.
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How is Botox used?
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given to a spastic muscle, the amount of botox allowable depends on the weight of the child.
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When is botox use indicated?
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popliteal angles <40-45 degrees, upper extremity contractures, and dynamic equinus contractures.
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Why is the baclofen pump better than oral baclofen?
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Oral baclofen requires 100x the amount than does intrathecal baclofen to produce the same results. Intrathecal can also be more site specific.
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What is a selective dorsal rhizotomy?
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Selective cutting of the posterior/dorsal nerve roots coming out of the spine to help control spasticity.
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When is selective dorsal rhizotomy indicated?
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To treat severe spasticity of the lower extremities ta interferes with mobility or positioning
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What are the muscle lengthening methods for a plantar flexion contracture?
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Gastrocnemius recession and Z-lengthening of the achilles if both gastroc and soleus.
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What are the muscle lengthening methods for hamstring lengthening?
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Lengthen the medial and lateral hamstrings.
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What is the muscle lengthening method for the adductors?
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Dividingg the adductor longus and brevis
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What are the common side-effects of GI medications?
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Vertigo, hypotension, headache, dizziness, and constipation/diarrhea
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What do bronchodilators do?
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Relax constricted muscles in the airways
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What do mast cell stabilizers do?
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Reduce inflammation in airways, reduce chances of severe asthma attack
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What do corticosteroids do for asthma?
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Reduce swelling in nasal passages during an asthmatic reaction
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What do leukotriene modifiers do?
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Prevents inflammation in the airways halting processes that lead to asthma attacks.
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What are the common medications used for Autism?
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Stimulants, anti-anxiety, anti-hypertensive, anti-psychotic, and anti-epileptic
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What are the common medications used for ADHD?
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Stimulants are the first line of treatment, anti-depressants, and anti-hypertensives.
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What is GMFCS Level I?
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Walks without limitations
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What is GMFCS level II?
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Walks with limitations
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What is GMFCS level III?
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Walks using a hand-held mobility device
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What is GMFCS level IV?
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Self-mobility with limitations; may use powered mobility
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What is GMFCS level V?
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Transported in a manual wheelchair.
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DCD
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Developmental coordination disorder
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What is Developmental Coordination Disorder?
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Performance in daily activities that require motor coordination is substantially below that expected, given the persons chronologic age and measured intelligence.
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How does DCD manifest itself?
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Marked delays in achieving motor milestones, dropping things, clumsiness, poor performance in sports, and poor handwriting?
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What disorder manifests itself with marked delays in achieving motor milestones, clumsiness, dropping things, poor performance in sports and poor handwriting?
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Developmental Coordination Disorder
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What are activity limitations for children with DCD?
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Skills that must be taught, self care, and academic.
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What are common participation restrictions for children with DCD?
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reduced interest in physical activities, avoidance of sports activities, do not understand rules of games, isolated from peer group.
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What is congenital scoliosis?
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You are born with it and it usually refers to vertebral anomalies and the curve of the spine is usually inflexible.
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What is acquired scoliosis?
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Usually caused by muscle imbalance and the curve is flexible until maturity is reached.
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What is hydrocephalus and with what population does it manifest most often?
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It is excessive accumulation of CSF in the ventricles of the brain. Seen often in myelomenigocele.
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What is a cocktail party personality?
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Somebody who speaks with verbose language but uses phrases inappropriately. Associated with hydrocephalus.
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What are the three possible causes of upper limb dyscoordination?
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Cerebellar Ataxia due to arnold-chiari type 2 malformation, motor cortex damage secondary to hydrocephalus, and motor learning deficits from using upper extremities for balance rather than manipulation and learning.
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What does the cobb method refer to?
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Measuring the angle of the scoliosis curve.
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What is idiopathic scoliosis?
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Most common form of scoliosis in children, it is a lateral curve of the spine of unknown cause.
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What are the three types of idiopathic scoliosis and which is the most prevelant?
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Infant (shortly after birth), juvenile (between 3-9), and adolescent (most common, about 80%)
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What denotes progressive curve scoliosis?
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Sustained increase of 5 degrees or more on two consecutive examinations occurring at 4-6 month intervals.
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What is Scheumann's disease?
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Rigid form of postural kyphosis, most common form of kyphosis in adolescent populations.
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What is spondylolisthesis?
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A defect in the pars interarticularis that allows for forward slippage of one vertebrae over another.
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Internal tibial torsion is represented by what kind of value?
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negative value
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external tibial torsion is represented by what kind of value?
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Positive
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What is metatarsus adductus?
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foot can dorsiflex, has the shape of a kidney with the heel in a valgus position
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What condition presents with a foot that can dorsiflex, has the shape of a kidney and the heel is in a valgus position.
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Metatarsus adductus.
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What is Clubfoot?
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Foot cannot dorsiflex, has the shape of a kidney, and the heel is in a varus position
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What condition presents with a foot that cannot dorsiflex, has the shape of a kidney and the heel is in a varus position?
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Clubfoot
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What is developmental dysplasia of the hip?
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Abnormal development or growth of the hip joint
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What disease occurs because of abnormal development or growth of the hip joint?
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Developmental dysplaysia of the hip.
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An x-linked disorder which causes progressive muscle weakness caused by destructions of myfofibrils
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Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy
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What is Duchennes Muscular dystromphy?
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An x-linked disorder which causes progressive muscle weakness caused by destructions of myfofibrils
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A disorder caused by a lesion of the basal ganglia producing wide writhing type movements
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Athetoid Cerebral Palsy
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What is Athetoid Cerebral Palsy?
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A disorder caused by a lesion of the basal ganglia producing wide writhing type movements
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A non-progressive neuromuscular syndrome that is present at birth and is charactherized by severe joint contractures, muscle weakness and fibrosis
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Arthrogryposis Multiplex Con Genita
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What is Arthrogryposis Mulitplex Con Genita?
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A non-progressive neuromuscular syndrome that is preent at birth and is charactherized by severe joint contractures, muscle weakness and fibrosis
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The presence of head and facial asymmetry
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Plagiocephaly
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What is plagiocephaly?
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asymmetry of head and face, commonly associated with torticollis.
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The presence of function in more caudal segments of the spinal cord despite the presence of nonfunctional segments above
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Skip lesions
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What are skip lesions?
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The presence of function in more caudal segments of the spinal cord despite the presence of nonfunctional segments above
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A forward position of the femoral head resulting in interal rotation of the femur
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Femoral anteversion
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What is femoral anteversion?
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A forward position of the femoral head resulting in interal rotation of the femur
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T or F: The key muscle groups to be included in early exercise for duchenne muscular dystrophy are abdominals, hip extensors and abductors and knee extensors
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True
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T or F: The direction of a scoliotoic curve is defined by the side of the concavity
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False
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T or F: A child diagnosed with PDDNOS has the most severe type of autism
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False
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T or F: A GMFCS classification I means that eh child can walk at home, school, outdoors, and in the community
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True, level I is the highest functioning group
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T or F: An RGO is a type of orthoses made to transmit floor reaction forces proximallyand limit the amount of tibial advancement (dorsiflexion) that occurs during stance
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False, it provides reciprocating steps. This is a description of a crouch control orthosis, or CCO.
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T or F: To allow tissue to properly heal, ROM exercises should not be initiated after a brachial plexus injury until 4-6 weeks of time has passed
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False, it is 7-10 days
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T or F: Hands to mouth movements are one of the common signs referred to as a “time out” sign in the NICU
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False, hands to mouth is a good sign, that they are learning to self calm. Arching saluting, shilding eyes, turning head away, coughing, hiccupping, yawning, glazed eyes, modeling of the skin are all time out signs.
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T or F: A risk with muscle lengthening of both the medialand lateral hamstrings is knee hyperextension
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True
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Stimulant medications are typically used to treat ADHD. Which of the following side effects is not usually seen with this medication? Appetite reduction, growth reduction, hypotension, vocal and motor ticks
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Hypotension
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When assessing the strength of an infant, functional motor skills are often used to give necessary information. Which of the following activities would give the best information about an infants shoulder girdle strength? How the infant pulls to stand, how the infant gets up from supine, how the infant transitions in and out of sitting, how the infant maintains a quadruped position, none of the above would provide info about he shoulder girdle.
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How the infant maintains a quadruped position
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The principle ischemic lesion of the premature baby where there is decreased cerebral blood flow to periventricular area is known as: PVL, BPD- bronchopulmonary, retinopathy of prematurity, interventricular hemorrhage, necrotizing enterocolitis
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PVL: periventricular leukomalacia
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All of the following are accurate statements about recommended positing in children with torticollis except: when the child is in side-lying on the side of the tight SCMM, a firm pillow made from a hand towel can be placed under the child’s head to help provides a stretch, After the child is asleep, the head can be positioned in rotation toward the side opposite of the tight SCMM, During bottle or breast feeding, the infant can begin in a relaxed position but then be slowly encouraged to move into a position that they might normally resist
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After the child is asleep, the head can be positioned in rotation toward the side opposite of the tight SCMM
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List one factor related to increased abandonment of AD’s
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burdensome to move, not user friendly, if the family or the patient were not involved in the decision, ease of procurement, change in the users need, failure of the equipment or not reliable
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What is Legg-Calve-Perthe's disease?
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Ischemic necrosis of the center of ossification of the femoral head that results in muscle weakness, ROM limitations and gait deviations.
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What disease causes muscle weakness, ROM limitations and gait deviations.
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Legg-Calve-Perthe's disease
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What is idiopathic toe-walking?
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Toe walking that persists past the time when children first learn to walk.
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What is congenital muscular torticollis?
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Unilateral shortening of the SCM muscle that causes the head to tilt toward the side of the affected SCM and rotate away from that side.
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What disease causes infants to be at risk for deformational plagiocephaly?
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Torticollis
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What does a DOC band do?
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It redirects growth of the cranium by applying immediate holding pressure to the anterior and posterior portions of the cranium where growth is not desired.
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What are the three types of Brachial Plexus Injury?
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Erb's Palsy
Erb-Klumpke Palsy Klumpke's Palse |
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What is Erb's Palsy?
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A brachial plexus injury to C5-6, presents with shoulder in extension, IR, Adduction, and elbow extended, forearm pronated, and wrist and fingers flexed.
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What presents with presents with shoulder in extension, IR, Adduction, and elbow extended, forearm pronated, and wrist and fingers flexed.
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Erb's Palsy
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What is Erb-Klumpke Palsy?
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Injury to the brachial plexus at C5-T1 resulting in total arm paralysis and loss of sensation?
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What injury presents with total arm paralysis and loss of sensation?
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Erb-Klumpke Palsy
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What is Klumpke's Palsy?
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Brachial plexus injury to C7-T1, shoulder and elbow movements are not impaired but there is paralysis of wrist flexor and extensor muscles as well as hand intrinsics.
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What injury presents with shoulder and elbow movements that are not impaired but there is paralysis of wrist flexor and extensor muscles as well as hand intrinsics.
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Klumpke's Palsy
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What is the most common clotting factor missing in someone who has hemophilia?
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VIII
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T or F: Hemophilia is an X-linked disease?
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True
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What is PPV?
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Positive Pressure Ventilation, air pumped into the body from outside source through tracheotomy or something like that.
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What is NPV?
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using the body to create the negative pressure needed to fill the lungs with air, like an Iron lung used for polio patients.
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How does Cystic fibrosis work?
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It affects chloride conductunce, cause a hyperviscous secretion to obstruct the mucus-secreting exocrine glands.
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T or F: Cystic Fibrosis is hereditary?
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T, it is an autosomal recessive disorder.
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What is tetralogy of Fallot?
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Four defects: ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and aortic override.
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What is transposition of the great arteries?
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The pulmonary artery arises from the morphologic left ventricle and the aorta arises from the right ventricle. The baby can survive this defect.
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What heart defect is characterized by having the The pulmonary artery that arises from the morphologic left ventricle and the aorta that arises from the right ventricle.
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Transposition of the great arteries.
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What is Tricuspid atresia?
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Failure of development of the tricuspid valve resulting in a lack of communication between the right atrium and the right ventricle.
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What heart defect presents as follows:Failure of development of the tricuspid valve resulting in a lack of communication between the right atrium and the right ventricle.
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Tricuspid atresia
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What is pulmonary atresia?
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The pulmonary valve fails to develop
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What heart defect is caused by the pulmonary valve failing to develop
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Pulmonary atresia
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What is Truncus Arteriosus?
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The aorta and the pulmonary artery fail to separate in utero and form a common trunk arising from both ventricles.
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What heart defect is caused by the aorta and the pulmonary artery failing to separate in utero causing a common trunk to form arising from the ventricles.
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Truncus arteriousus.
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