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261 Cards in this Set

  • Front
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Which benzodiazepine hypnotic compound is metabolized by the liver by slow replacement of a C-2 sulfur with an oxygen to form an intermediate active metabolite (2-oxy?)? There is probably little or no REM rebound insomnia following the abrupt discontinuation of its chronic, long-term use because of the slow "wash-out" of a long T1/2 active terminal metabolite.
a. temazepam (Restoril)
b. triazolam (Halcion)
c. estazolam (ProSom)
d. quazepam (Doral)
e. zolpidem (Ambien)

2006 quiz 2 q1
d. quazepam (Doral)
A recently approved nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic compound which has a short duration of action and little dependence potential, and which appears to be much more selective for the alpha1 subunit of the GABA-a receptor complex:
a. temazepam (Restoril)
b. estazolam (ProSom)
c. eszopidone (Lunesta)
d. quazepam (Doral)
e. flumazenil (Romazicon)

2006 quiz 2 q2
c. eszopidone (Lunesta)
A benzodiazepine compound labeled for the treatment of anxiety which may be safer in an elderly (>80 years old) person because its C-3 hydroxyl group is rapidly conjugated by the liver and the conjugate is then excreted by the kidneys:
a. temazepam (Restoril)
b. oxazepam (Serax)
c. alprazolam (Xanax)
d. chlorazepate (Tranxene)
e. flumazenil (Romazicon)

2006 quiz 2 q3
b. oxazepam (Serax)
Which protein subunit of the GABAa receptor complex is thought to mediate the anti-anxiety efficacy of drugs which act on the GABAa receptor complex?
a. alpha1
b. alpha2
c. alpha4
d. beta2
e. gamma2

2006 quiz 2 q4
b. alpha2
This compound labeled for the treatment of anxiety probably acts on serotonin receptors in the brain, rather than GABAa receptors, and it may take two weeks for its efficacy to be established:
a. hydroxyzine (Atarax)
b. diazepam (Valium)
c. buspirone (Buspar)
d. propranolol (Inderal)
e. alprazolam (Xanax)

2006 quiz 2 q5
c. buspirone
Most of the currently available hypnotics and anti-anxiety drugs act to modulate:
a. GABAa receptors in the brain
b. GABAb receptors in the brain
c. GABAc receptors in the brain
d. serotonin (5-HT1) receptors in the brain
e. none of the above -- the currently available hypnotic and anti-anxiety drugs do not act on any kind of receptor in the brain.

2006 quiz 2 q6
a. GABA-a receptors in the brain
This compound has a short T1/2, is metabolized by "ring-opening" to largely inactive metabolites which are most likely conjugated and excreted, and can cause memory impairment:
a. flurazepam (Dalmane)
b. halazepam (Paxipam)
c. triazolam (Halcion)
d. buspirone (Buspar)
e. oxazepam (Serax)

2006 quiz 2 q7
c. triazolam (Halcion)
This drug use for the treatment of skeletal muscle spasticity acts directly on skeletal muscle to reduce muscle contraction strength:
a. cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
b. baclofen (Lioresal)
c. dantrolene (Dantrium)
d. tizanidine (Zanaflex)
e. zaleplon (Sonata)


2006 quiz 2 q8
c. dantrolene (Dantrium)
This chemical probably acts on brain stem mechanisms (rather than spinal cord mechanisms) which are involved with skeletal muscle contraction; it is used for self-limiting muscle spasms, but may cause anticholinergic (atropine-like) side effects:
a. cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
b. methocarbamol (Robaxin)
c. dantrolene (Dantrium)
d. tizanidine (Zanaflex)
e. zaleplon (Sonata)


2006 quiz 2 q9
a. cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
A nonbenzodiazepine drug labeled for the treatment of sleep problems:
a. halazepam (Paxipam)
b. tizanidine (Zanaflex)
c. zolpidem (Ambien)
d. buspirone (Buspar)
e. quazepam (Doral)


2/7/03 quiz q1
c. zolpidem (Ambien)
This is a prodrug labeled for the treatment of acute and chronic anxiety reactions; converted to diazepam with the subsequent production of the active, long elimination half-life metabolite; N-DMDZ or nordiazepam; decarboxylated by stomach acid:
a. alprazolam (Xanax)
b. clordiazepoxide (Librium)
c. halazepam (Paxipam)
d. clorazepate (Tranxene)
e. lorazepam (Ativan)


2/7/03 quiz q2
d. clorazepate (Tranxene)
This benzodiazepine drug labeled for the treatment of acute and chronic anxiety reactions is a very useful drug to treat anxiety/depression, and panic reactions:
a. alprazolam (Xanax)
b. clordiazepoxide (Librium)
c. halazepam (Paxipam)
d. clorazepate (Tranxene)
e. lorazepam (Ativan)


2/7/03 quiz q3
a. alprazolam (Xanax)
The primary or chief side effects of benzodiazepine drugs are:
a. sedation, drowsiness and memory impairment
b. many and minor CNS effects
c. many and minor GI effects
d. psychological and behavioral effects

2/7/03 quiz q4
a. sedation, drowsiness and memory impairment
The primary side effect limiting the effectiveness of this anti-spasticity drug is a decrease in blood pressure:
a. phenytoin (Dilantin)
b. dantrolene (Dantrium)
c. baclofen (Lioresal)
d. tizanidine (Zanaflex)
e. buspirone (Buspar)

2/7/03 quiz q5
d. tizanidine (Zanaflex)
This drug probably acts as an agonist at serotonin (5-HT1a) receptors; takes days to weeks for anti-anxiety effect to be experienced:
a. phenytoin (Dilantin)
b. dantrolene (Dantrium)
c. baclofen (Lioresal)
d. tizanidine (Zanaflex)
e. buspirone (Buspar)


2/7/03 quiz q6
e. buspirone (Buspar)
A centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant that is thought to act primarily in the brains stem to decrease reflex motor activity; produces significant sedation:
a. carisoprodol (Rela)
b. chlorzoxazone (Paraflex)
c. metaxalone (Skelaxin)
d. methocarbamol (Robaxin)
e. cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)


2/7/03 quiz q7
e. cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
Anti-spasticity drug that acts as an agonist at GABAb receptors in the brain and spinal cord:
a. diazepam (Valium)
b. dantrolene (Dantrium)
c. baclofen (Lioresal)
d. tizanidine (Zanaflex)
e. buspirone (Buspar)

2/7/03 quiz q8
c. baclofen (Lioresal)
This first treatment goal for the drug treatment of seizures and epilepsy is:
a. the use of two or more drugs to treat the seizures
b. the complete withdrawal of all anti-seizure medication
c. reduction to zero in the number of seizures the patient experiences
d. treatment of the psychological and behavioral problems of epilepsy

2/7/03 quiz q9
c. reduction to zero in the number of seizures the patient experiences
Most likely treats seizures by promoting the inactivated state of Na+ channels in the brain:
a. tizanidine (Zanaflex)
b. phenytoin (Dilantin)
c. buspirone (Buspar)
d. phenobarbital
e. alprazolam (Xanax)

2/7/03 quiz q10
b. phenytoin (Dilantin)
This drug would not be expected to lead to rebound insomnia when it is discontinued after chronic use (two or three weeks of nightly use) to treat a sleep problem because of the slow “wash-out” of an active long elimination half-life metabolite which probably accumulates during chronic use.
a. Zolpidem (Ambien)
b. Flurazepam (Dalmane; generics)
c. Lorazepam (Ativan; generics)
d. Triazolam (Halcion)
e. Zaleplon (Sonata)

2007 exam 1 q27
b. Flurazepam (Dalmane; generics)
Select the drug that might be useful as an agonist of a melatonin receptor in the suprachiasmic nucleus of the brain:
a. Zolpidem (Ambien)
b. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
c. Buspirone (BuSpar)
d. Eszopidone (Lunesta)
e. Rozerem (Ramelteon)

2007 exam 1 q28
e. Rozerem (Ramelteon)
Which non-barbiturate sedative/hypnotic drug will interact with a tricyclic antidepressant drug to lead to a delirium-like reaction?
a. Meprobamate (Equanil and others)
b. Ethchlorvynol (Placidyl)
c. Zaleplon (Sonata)
d. Paraldehyde
e. Flumazenil (Romazicon)

2007 exam 1 q29
b. Ethchlorvynol (Placidyl)
Labeled for sleep problems (like insomnia); May be “safer” in elderly people because of its metabolism
a. Zolpidem (Ambien)
b. Chlorazepate (Tranxene; generics)
c. Temazepam (Restoril; generics)
d. Eszopidone (Lunesta)
e. Ethyl alcohol

2007 exam 1 q30
c. Temazepam (Restoril; generics)
A non-benzodiazepine compound (an imidazopyridine) that is thought to act on the GABAA receptor complex:
a. Zolpidem (Ambien)
b. Chlorazepate (Tranxene; generics)
c. Temazepam (Restoril; generics)
d. Eszopidone (Lunesta)
e. Ethyl alcohol

2007 exam 1 q31
a. Zolpidem (Ambien)
Its long-term chronic use may cause brain damage and cardiomyopathy (a serious heart problem):
a. Zolpidem (Ambien)
b. Chlorazepate (Tranxene; generics)
c. Temazepam (Restoril; generics)
d. Eszopidone (Lunesta)
e. Ethyl alcohol

2007 exam 1 q32
e. Ethyl alcohol
Labeled for the treatment of anxiety; A pro-drug that is decarboxylated in the stomach to form the active chemical:
a. Zolpidem (Ambien)
b. Chlorazepate (Tranxene; generics)
c. Temazepam (Restoril; generics)
d. Eszopidone (Lunesta)
e. Ethyl alcohol

2007 exam 1 q33
b. Chlorazepate (Tranxene; generics)
A “new” non-benzodiazepine (a cyclopyrolone) drug for the treatment of sleep; It is the S-isomer of a compound used in Europe; May be more selective for the 1 subunit of the GABA-a receptor complex.
a. Zolpidem (Ambien)
b. Chlorazepate (Tranxene; generics)
c. Temazepam (Restoril; generics)
d. Eszopidone (Lunesta)
e. Ethyl alcohol

2007 exam 1 q34
d. Eszopidone (Lunesta)
The mechanism of action of ethyl alcohol which underlies its ability to cause CNS depression in large ingested amounts may be:
a. competitive antagonism of the NMDA receptor
b. an increase in GABA-mediated inhibition
c. a non-selective effect to decrease the excitability of neurons
d. a decrease in the presynaptic release of an inhibitory neurotransmitter such as GABA
e. Both b and c are correct

2007 exam 1 q35
e. Both b and c are correct
Which dug would be the best choice to treat the inability of a truck driver to fall asleep because of it has a short duration of action, it lacks active metabolites, and it apparently has no effect to suppress REM sleep:
a. Flurazepam (Dalmane; generics)
b. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
c. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
d. Zolpidem (Ambien)
e. Quazepam (Doral)

2007 exam 1 q36
d. Zolpidem (Ambien)
Although this benzodiazepine drug is efficacious for a panic reaction (a severe kind of anxiety) and certain kinds of depression, it may not be useful for a student because it might interfere with classes and examinations:
a. Flurazepam (Dalmane; generics)
b. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
c. Alprazolam (Xanax)
d. Baclofen (Lioresal)
e. Propranolol (Inderal and others)

2007 exam 1 q37
c. Alprazolam (Xanax)
Select the correct drug labeled for the treatment of anxiety reactions; May be “safer” in people with depressed liver function since it is metabolized by conjugation because of its C-3 hydroxyl:
a. Halazepam (Paxipam)
b. Flurazepam (Dalmane; generics)
c. Oxazepam (Serax; generics)
d. Diazepam (Valium)
e. Alprazolam (Xanax)

2007 exam 1 q38
c. Oxazepam (Serax; generics)
Select the chemical that is efficacious to treat depression because it may be more selective for the alpha2 or alpha3 subunit of the GABA-a receptor complex.
a. Buspirone (BuSpar and others)
b. Eszopidone (Lunesta)
c. Zolpidem (Ambien)
d. Hydroxyzine (Atarax)
e. Lorazepam (Ativan; generics)

2007 exam 1 q39
e. Lorazepam (Ativan; generics)
The major adverse reaction to the long-term chronic use of a benzodiazepine chemical used to treat a sleep problem or an anxiety reaction is:
a. CNS excitation
b. a seizure and the possible diagnosis of epilepsy
c. skeletal muscle spasticity
d. the possibility of sedation and drowsiness
e. a large decrease in systemic blood pressure or cardiac output

2007 exam 1 q40
d. the possibility of sedation and drowsiness
Select the benzodiazepine compound that is labeled for sleep problems and is metabolized by gradual side chain breakdown to several active metabolites; Some metabolites are more active that the parent compound; The terminal metabolite of the compound is active and has a half-time of elimination of 50 – 100 hours:
a. Triazolam (Halcion)
b. Estazolam (ProSom)
c. Zaleplon (Sonata)
d. Flurazepam (Dalmane; generics)
e. Oxazepam (Serax; generics)

2007 exam 1 q41
d. Flurazepam (Dalmane; generics)
Because this drug is an -2 receptor agonist, its upper dose when it is used to treat skeletal muscle spastcity is often limited by the development of hypotension
a. Baclofen (Lioresal)
b. Tizanidine (Zanaflex)
c. Dantrolene (Dantrium)
d. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
e. Diazepam (Valium)

2007 exam 1 q42
b. Tizanidine (Zanaflex)
Select the correct statement regarding the use of a benzodiazepine compound to treat an anxiety reaction:
a. Accumulation in the blood and brain of the parent compound or active metabolites is not desirable.
b. The doses should be great enough to cause daytime sedation and drowsiness.
c. What the person does (i.e., occupation) or age are not considerations in the choice of a benzodiazepine drug.
d. Limbic system structures (i.e., the amygdala) appear to be about two-times more sensitive than the brain stem to the effects of a benzodiazepine to positively modulate the GABA-a receptor.
e. The benzodiazepine compound must have at least one active metabolite

2007 exam 1 q43
d. Limbic system structures (i.e., the amygdala) appear to be about two-times more sensitive than the brain stem to the effects of a benzodiazepine to positively modulate the GABA-a receptor.
Correctly select the compound which is a GABA-b receptor agonist, and likely decreases the release of excitatory neurotransmitters in the spinal cord:
a. Baclofen (Lioresal)
b. Tizanidine (Zanaflex)
c. Dantrolene (Dantrium)
d. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
e. Diazepam (Valium)

2007 exam 1 q44
a. Baclofen (Lioresal)
Which chemical would not pharmacodynamically interact with a concurrently taken CNS depressant?
a. Diazepam (Valium)
b. Ethyl alcohol
c. Baclofen (Lioresal)
d. Secobarbital (Seconal; generics)
e. All of the above (a-d) might pharmacodynamically interact with a concurrently taken CNS depressant

2007 exam 1 q45
e. All of the above (a-d) might pharmacodynamically interact with a concurrently taken CNS depressant
Blocks glycine receptors on the glutamic acid receptor (NMDA) complex:
a. Felbamate (Felbatol)
b. Gabapentin (Neurotin)
c. Tiagabine (Gabitril)
d. Zonisamide (Zonegram)
e. gamma-Vinyl GABA; Vigabatrin (Sabril)

2007 exam 1 q46
a. Felbamate (Felbatol)
Inhibits GABA metabolism; Irreversible inhibitor of GABA-T (GABA transaminase) in the brain:
a. Felbamate (Felbatol)
b. Gabapentin (Neurotin)
c. Tiagabine (Gabitril)
d. Zonisamide (Zonegram)
e. gamma-Vinyl GABA; Vigabatrin (Sabril)

2007 exam 1 q47
e. gamma-Vinyl GABA; Vigabatrin (Sabril)
May increase the release of GABA from GABAergic neurons in the brain; May bind to an
amino acid transporter
a. Felbamate (Felbatol)
b. Gabapentin (Neurotin)
c. Tiagabine (Gabitril)
d. Zonisamide (Zonegram)
e. gamma-Vinyl GABA; Vigabatrin (Sabril)

2007 exam 1 q48
b. Gabapentin (Neurotin)
Probably blocks the reuptake of GABA into GABAergic neurons by inhibiting a GABA transporter.
a. Felbamate (Felbatol)
b. Gabapentin (Neurotin)
c. Tiagabine (Gabitril)
d. Zonisamide (Zonegram)
e. gamma-Vinyl GABA; Vigabatrin (Sabril)

2007 exam 1 q49
c. Tiagabine (Gabitril)
Likely blocks sodium channels, and may act on calcium channels to decrease Ca++ influx into neurons:
a. Felbamate (Felbatol)
b. Gabapentin (Neurotin)
c. Tiagabine (Gabitril)
d. Zonisamide (Zonegram)
e. gamma-Vinyl GABA; Vigabatrin (Sabril)

2007 exam 1 q50
d. Zonisamide (Zonegram)
The use of this drug to control seizures is complicated by its saturable and variable nonlinear metabolism making dose prediction often difficult.
a. Phenobarbital
b. Primidone (Mysoline)
c. Ethosuximide (Zarontin)
d. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
e. Clonazepam (Klonopin)

2007 exam 1 q51
d. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
Correctly select the compound that is not effective for absence seizures (and may even make them worse).
a. Valproic acid (Depakene and others)
b. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
c. Carbamazepine (Tegretol and others)
d. Ethosuximide (Zarontin)
e. Trimethadione (Tridione)

2007 exam 1 q52
b. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
This newer antiepileptic drug (approved in 2000) is very similar in mechanism of action to an “older” drug, but it may be “safer” because it is not metabolized to an active epoxide metabolite which may cause adverse reactions.
a. Oxcarbazepine (Trileptal)
b. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
c. Felbamate (Felbatol)
d. Gabapentin (Neurotin)
e. Topiramate (Topamax)

2007 exam 1 q53
a. Oxcarbazepine (Trileptal)
Autoinduction of metabolism may complicate the dosing of this antiepileptic drug which likely blocks sodium (Na+) channels to inhibit Na+ influx into CNS neurons during sustained, repetitive
high-frequency neuronal discharge.
a. Valproic acid (Depakene and others)
b. Ethosuximide (Zarontin)
c. Clonazepam (Klonopin)
d. Carbamazepine (Tegretol and others)
e. Gabapentin (Neurotin)

2007 exam 1 q54
d. Carbamazepine (Tegretol and others)
This compound may result in acute dose-related side effects such as drowsiness, concentration-dependent side effects such as lateral nystagmus and long-term or chronic side effects (used for two or three months or longer)
such as gum hyperplasia and vitamin deficiencies; It probably inhibits Na+ channels during sustained, repetitive
high-frequency neuronal discharge.
a. Ethosuximide (Zarontin)
b. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
c. Tiagabine (Gabitril)
d. Gabapentin (Neurotin)
e. Felbamate (Felbatol)

2007 exam 1 q55
b. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
Select the broad spectrum antiepileptic drug that is definitely teratogenic; A 10-20% increase in
the risk of spina bifida is the biggest problem.
a. Valproic acid (Depakene and others)
b. Ethosuximide (Zarontin)
c. Phenobarbital
d. Oxcarbazepine (Trileptal)
e. Pregabalin (Lyrica)

2007 exam 1 q56
a. Valproic acid (Depakene and others)
The effectiveness of _________ for most types of seizures (partial, absence and other generalized seizures) is because its mechanism of action likely relates to Na+ channels, GABA inhibition, and Ca++ channels in the thalamus.
a. valproic acid (Depakene and others)
b. ethosuximide (Zarontin)
c. clonazepam (Klonopin)
d. carbamazepine (Tegretol and others)
e. gabapentin (Neurontin)

2007 exam 1 q57
a. valproic acid (Depakene and others)
Correctly select the largest advantage of Gabapentin (Neurontin) over “older” (pre-1978) antiepileptic drugs (when it was approved in 1994) that made it much easier to add it to existing antiepileptic drug therapy.
a. It is not metabolized to any extent.
b. It had a unique mechanism of action not related to an effect on Na+ channels, GABA inhibition, or Ca++ channels in the thalamus (T-current).
c. It could be used safely in people with severely depressed renal function.
d. It did not cause a marked elevation in systemic blood pressure.

2007 exam 1 q58
a. It is not metabolized to any extent.
Correctly select the adverse reaction to many antiepileptic drugs (“old” and “new”) that usually appears during the long-term use of an antiepileptic drug which is a common use of most of these drugs:
a. Blood dyscrasias
b. Increased alertness or arousal and difficulty falling asleep
c. An anxiety reaction
d. Alopecia
e. Gum hyperplasia

2007 exam 1 q59
a. Blood dyscrasias
Although this drug (approved in 1994) is efficacious for refractory partial seizures, it may cause a skin rash
(delayed hypersensitivity reaction), especially in younger adults or children (<16 years old).
a. Dantrolene (Dantrium)
b. Etomidate (Amidate)
c. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
d. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
e. Zaleplon (Sonata)

2007 exam 1 q60
c. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
This compound effects both “normal” skeletal muscle and skeletal muscle in spasm.
a. Dantrolene (Dantrium)
b. Etomidate (Amidate)
c. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
d. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
e. Zaleplon (Sonata)

2007 exam 1 q61
a. Dantrolene (Dantrium)
This drug may be more selective for the alpha1 subunit of the GABA-a receptor complex in the brain compared to other subunits of the GABA-a receptor complex.
a. Dantrolene (Dantrium)
b. Etomidate (Amidate)
c. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
d. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
e. Zaleplon (Sonata)

2007 exam 1 q62
e. Zaleplon (Sonata)
This compound is a useful short duration intravenous general anesthetic and may act on GABA receptors in the brain.
a. Dantrolene (Dantrium)
b. Etomidate (Amidate)
c. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
d. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
e. Zaleplon (Sonata)

2007 exam 1 q63
b. Etomidate (Amidate)
This compound has the greatest potential (of the five) to interact with many OTC or prescription-only compounds.
a. Dantrolene (Dantrium)
b. Etomidate (Amidate)
c. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
d. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
e. Zaleplon (Sonata)

2007 exam 1 q64
d. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
allosteric receptor modulator:
a. glutamate
b. glycine
c. NO
d. BDNF
e. NMDA

2007 exam 1 q1
b. glycine
Neuromodulator:
a. glutamate
b. glycine
c. NO
d. BDNF
e. NMDA

2007 exam 1 q2
c. NO
Neurotransmitter:
a. glutamate
b. glycine
c. NO
d. BDNF
e. NMDA

2007 exam 1 q3
a. glutamate
pharmacological experimental tool:
a. glutamate
b. glycine
c. NO
d. BDNF
e. NMDA

2007 exam 1 q4
e. NMDA
T/F: Pre- or postsynaptic receptors may be coupled to G-proteins or ion channels

2007 exam 1 q5
true
T/F: GPCRs may be coupled to second messenger systems or to ion channels

2007 exam 1 q6
true
T/F: Neurotransmitters that act postsynaptically are excitatory while neurotransmitters that act presynaptically are inhibitory.

2007 exam 1 q7
false
T/F: The action potential is comprised of excitatory and inhibitory postsynaptic potentials.

2007 exam 1 q8
false
T/F: While generation of EPSPs and IPSPs is ligand-dependent, propagation of action potentials is ligand-independent.

2007 exam 1 q9
true
T/F: While all monoamine neurotransmitter receptors are 7 transmembrane spanning proteins, all monoamine transmitter reuptake transporters are 12 transmembrane spanning proteins.

2007 exam 1 q10
true
T/F: While all norepinephrine and dopamine receptors are GPCRs, all serotonin receptors are ion channels.

2007 exam 1 q11
false
Drugs that block the NMDA receptor associated ion channel include:
a. Phencyclidine
b. Dextromethorphan
c. Memantine
d. a and b
e. All of the above

2007 exam 1 q12
e. All of the above
Induction of LTP requires activation of all of the following receptors EXCEPT:
a. NMDA
b. Kainate
c. Glutamate metabotropic
d. AMPA

2007 exam 1 q13
b. Kainate
Glycine is classified as an inhibitory amino acid because it:
a. Opens chloride channels leading to neuronal hyperpolarization
b. Dampens motor neuron activity in the spinal cord
c. Facilitates the activity of glutamate on the NMDA receptor associated ion channel
d. a and b
e. All of the above

2007 exam 1 q14
d. a and b
The mechanism of action of depressant general anesthetics (gases or volatile liquids), although not known for sure, is related to:
a. an increase in GABA-induced inhibition in the brain because of positive modulation of GABAA receptors.
b. increased norepinephrine (NE) in the brain stem
c. lipid solubility (oil:water partition) in nerve cell membranes.
d. decreased norepinephrine (NE) in the brain stem.
e. decreased GABA levels in the brain.

2007 exam 1 q15
c. lipid solubility (oil:water partition) in nerve cell membranes.
An intravenous general anesthetic chemical that is used primarily in children or young adults for short procedures such as changing burn dressings, etc.; Probably a non-competitive inhibitor of the NMDA receptor
a. Propofol (Diprivan)
b. Sevoflurane (Ultane)
c. Halothane (Fluthane)
d. Methoxyflurane (Penthrane)
e. Ketamine (Ketalar)

2007 exam 1 q16
e. Ketamine (Ketalar)
An intravenous general anesthetic chemical that is available in a special formulation because of solubility issues, and is especially useful for things like ambulatory procedures because it has a very short duration of action.
a. Propofol (Diprivan)
b. Sevoflurane (Ultane)
c. Halothane (Fluthane)
d. Methoxyflurane (Penthrane)
e. Ketamine (Ketalar)

2007 exam 1 q17
a. Propofol (Diprivan)
Type I and II hepatotoxicity to this general anesthetic volatile liquid may be allergic in nature (repeated
exposures are important) and are rare, but may result in lethality.
a. Propofol (Diprivan)
b. Sevoflurane (Ultane)
c. Halothane (Fluthane)
d. Methoxyflurane (Penthrane)
e. Ketamine (Ketalar)

2007 exam 1 q18
c. Halothane (Fluthane)
A “newer” depressant general anesthetic that is more expensive, but it has the advantage of a short induction of general anesthesia and short recovery from general anesthesia.
a. Propofol (Diprivan)
b. Sevoflurane (Ultane)
c. Halothane (Fluthane)
d. Methoxyflurane (Penthrane)
e. Ketamine (Ketalar)

2007 exam 1 q19
b. Sevoflurane (Ultane)
This general anesthetic is used only for short procedures, such as obstetrical procedures, because it is metabolized by the liver to release fluoride ion (Fl-) which may be toxic to the kidneys.
a. Propofol (Diprivan)
b. Sevoflurane (Ultane)
c. Halothane (Fluthane)
d. Methoxyflurane (Penthrane)
e. Ketamine (Ketalar)

2007 exam 1 q20
d. Methoxyflurane (Penthrane)
All of the following are requirements for the state of general anesthesia EXCEPT:
a. analgesia due to depression of spinothalamic nerve tracts
b. anterograde amnesia due to hippocampal or cortical depression
c. a lack of response to simple commands
d. reduction or abolition of reflexes such as gagging, choking, etc
e. brain stem depression which involves depression of cardiovascular and respiratory control

2007 exam 1 q21
e. brain stem depression which involves depression of cardiovascular and respiratory control
The mechanism of action of barbiturate chemicals which underlies general CNS depression with no ceiling is:
a. competitive antagonism of the NMDA receptor
b. an increase in GABA-mediated inhibition
c. a non-selective effect to decrease the excitability of neurons (release of excitatory chemicals)
d. an increase in the presynaptic release of gamma-amino butyric acid (GABA)
e. a decrease in norepinephrine (NE) release in all brain regions

2007 exam 1 q22
c. a non-selective effect to decrease the excitability of neurons (release of excitatory chemicals)
A hypnotic effect most correctly refers to the dose-related ability of a drug to:
a. facilitate the onset or maintenance of sleep
b. calm a person down in terms of motor and/or mental activity
c. relieve painful flexor spasms of a skeletal muscle
d. decrease the incidence of absence seizures
e. relieve or terminate a panic reaction

2007 exam 1 q23
a. facilitate the onset or maintenance of sleep
The major adverse reaction to long-term chronic use of a barbiturate chemical (two to three weeks of nightly use) used to treat a sleep problem is:
a. the restless leg syndrome
b. a seizure and the possible diagnosis of epilepsy
c. profound CNS depression and death
d. the possibility of day-time sedation and drowsiness
e. a large increase in systemic blood pressure

2007 exam 1 q24
d. the possibility of day-time sedation and drowsiness
Which of the following barbiturate compounds has the greatest lipid solubility; It has a short onset and duration of action after intravenous administration because of rapid penetration to the brain and rapid redistribution to organs or tissues other than the brain, respectively.
a. Phenobarbital (Luminal; generics)
b. Secobarbital (Seconal; generics)
c. Thiopental (Sodium pentothal)
d. Etomidate (Amidate)
e. Pentobarbital (Nembutal; generics)

2007 exam 1 q25
c. Thiopental (Sodium pentothal)
Select the drug that may lead to physical or psychological dependence during its long-term, continued, chronic use.
a. Secobarbital (Seconal; generics)
b. Quazepam (Doral)
c. Zolpidem (Ambien)
d. Oxazepam (Serax)
e. All of the above (a-d) are correct selections

2007 exam 1 q26
e. All of the above (a-d) are correct selections
The most selective (“least promiscuous”) neuronal monoamine neurotransmitter transporter is the:
a. NE transporter
b. DA transporter
c. 5HT transporter

2006 exam 1 q1
c. 5HT transporter
Which of the following is a true ion channel blocker?
a. PCP
b. Mg++
c. Verapamil
d. a and b
e. all of the above

2006 exam 1 q2
d. a and b
All of the following GPCRs are coupled to second messenger systems EXCEPT for ___ which is coupled to an ion channel:
a. B2
b. 5HT3
c. M1
d. D2
e. a and b

2006 exam 1 q3
b. 5HT3
While the onset of the pharmacological effects of antidepressant drugs is rapid (1-2 hours) the onset of the therapeutic effect is often delayed for:
a. one day
b. Two days
c. two weeks
d. three months
e. six months

2006 exam 1 q4
c. two weeks
All of the following are classified as psychotomimetics agents EXCEPT:
a. phencyclidine
b. mescaline
c. marihuana
d. peyote
e. c and d

2006 exam 1 q5
c. marihuana
The amino acid modulator of the NMDA receptor is:
a. glutamate
b. lysine
c. kynurenate
d. glycine
e. kainate

2006 exam 1 q6
d. glycine
This drug is metabolized to a PCP-like agent and is often abused by teenagers:
a. diphenhydramine
b. dextromethorphan
c. amphetamine
d. a and b
e. all of the above

2006 exam 1 q7
b. dextromethorphan
In the process of learning and memory it is thought that vigorous activation of this receptor is responsible for laying down memory traces.
a. AMPA
b. NMDA
c. glutamate metabotropic
d. a and b
e. b and c

2006 exam 1 q8
e. b and c
There are how many subtypes of DA receptors?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 14
e. 21

2006 exam 1 q9
c. 5
Which of the following is not a requirement for the state of general anesthesia?
a. Analgesia due to depression of spinothalamic nerve tracts
b. Anterograde amnesia due to hippocampal depression
c. Complete coma and loss of consciousness because of brain stem depression
d. A motionless condition in response to a surgical procedure
e. Reduction or abolition of reflexes such as gagging, choking, etc.

2006 exam 1 q11
c. Complete coma and loss of consciousness because of brain stem depression
The mechanism of action of depressant general anesthetics (gases or volatile liquids) is likely related to:
a. an increase in GABA-induced inhibition in the brain because of a positive modulation of GABAA receptors.
b. increased norepinephrine (NE) in the brain.
c. lipid solubility (oil:water partition) in nerve cell membranes.
d. decreased norepinephrine (NE) in the brain.
e. increased GABA levels in the brain.

2006 exam 1 q17
c. lipid solubility (oil:water partition) in nerve cell membranes.
The mechanism of action of barbiturate chemicals which underlies general CNS depression is:
a. competitive antagonism of the NMDA receptor ( a “ceiling” to CNS depressant effects).
b. an increase in GABA-mediated inhibition (a “ceiling” effect).
c. a non-selective effect to decrease the excitability of neurons (no “ceiling” effect).
d. an increase in the presynaptic release of an inhibitory neurotransmitter (no “ceiling” effect).
e. Both b and c are correct

2006 exam 1 q18
e. Both b and c are correct
The major adverse reaction to the short-term (single dose use) or long-term chronic use (single dose use) of a barbiturate chemical used to treat a sleep problem is:
a. the restless leg syndrome.
b. a seizure and the possible diagnosis of epilepsy.
c. profound CNS depression and death.
d. the possibility of day-time sedation and drowsiness.
e. a large increase in systemic blood pressure.

2006 exam 1 q20
d. the possibility of day-time sedation and drowsiness.
Which of the following barbiturate compounds has the greatest lipid solubility; It has a short onset and duration of action after intravenous administration because of rapid penetration to the brain and rapid redistribution to organs or tissues other than the brain, respectively?
a. Phenobarbital (Luminal; generics)
b. Secobarbital (Seconal; generics)
c. Thiopental (Sodium pentothal)
d. Etomidate (Amidate)
e. Pentobarbital (Nembutal; generics)

2006 exam 1 q21
c. Thiopental (Sodium pentothal)
Select the drug that may lead to physical or psychological dependence during its long-term, continued, chronic use.
a. Secobarbital (Seconal; generics)
b. Quazepam (Doral)
c. Zolpidem (Ambien)
d. Oxazepam (Serax)
e. All of the above (a-d) are correct selections

2006 exam 1 q22
e. All of the above (a-d) are correct selections
This drug would not be expected to lead to rebound insomnia when it is discontinued after chronic use (two or three weeks of nightly use) to treat a sleep problem because of the slow “wash-out” of an active long elimination half-life metabolite which probably accumulates during chronic use.
a. Zolpidem (Ambien)
b. Flurazepam (Dalmane; generics)
c. Lorazepam (Ativan; generics)
d. Triazolam (Halcion)
e. Zaleplon (Sonata)

2006 exam 1 q23
b. Flurazepam (Dalmane; generics)
Select the drug that might be useful as an antagonist of the benzodiazepine receptor on the GABAA receptor complex.
a. Zolpidem (Ambien)
b. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
c. Buspirone (BuSpar)
d. Eszopidone(Lunesta)
e. Rozerem (Ramelteon)

2006 exam 1 q24
b. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
Which non-barbiturate sedative/hypnotic drug will interact with a tricyclic antidepressant drug to lead to a delirium-like reaction?
a. Meprobamate (Equanil and others)
b. Ethchlorvynol (Placidyl)
c. Zaleplon (Sonata)
d. Paraldehyde
e. Flumazenil (Romazicon)

2006 exam 1 q25
b. Ethchlorvynol (Placidyl)
The mechanism of action of ethyl alcohol which underlies its ability to cause CNS depression in large ingested amounts is:
a. competitive antagonism of the NMDA receptor.
b. an increase in GABA-mediated inhibition.
c. a non-selective effect to decrease the excitability of neurons.
d. an increase in the presynaptic release of an inhibitory neurotransmitter.
e. Both b and c are correct

2006 exam 1 q26
e. Both b and c are correct
Labeled for sleep problems (like insomnia); May be “safer” in elderly people because of its metabolism.
a. Zolpidem (Ambien)
b. Chlorazepate (Tranxene; generics)
c. Temazepam (Restoril; generics)
d. Eszopidone (Lunesta)
e. Ethyl alcohol

2006 exam 1 q27
c. Temazepam (Restoril; generics)
A non-benzodiazepine compound (an imidazopyridine) that is thought to act on the GABA-a receptor complex.
a. Zolpidem (Ambien)
b. Chlorazepate (Tranxene; generics)
c. Temazepam (Restoril; generics)
d. Eszopidone (Lunesta)
e. Ethyl alcohol

2006 exam 1 q28
a. Zolpidem (Ambien)
Its long-term chronic use may cause brain damage and cardiomyopathy (a serious heart problem).
a. Zolpidem (Ambien)
b. Chlorazepate (Tranxene; generics)
c. Temazepam (Restoril; generics)
d. Eszopidone (Lunesta)
e. Ethyl alcohol

2006 exam 1 q29
e. Ethyl alcohol
Labeled for the treatment of anxiety; A pro-drug that is decarboxylated in the stomach to form the active chemical.
a. Zolpidem (Ambien)
b. Chlorazepate (Tranxene; generics)
c. Temazepam (Restoril; generics)
d. Eszopidone (Lunesta)
e. Ethyl alcohol

2006 exam 1 q30
b. Chlorazepate (Tranxene; generics)
A “new” non-benzodiazepine (a cyclopyrolone) drug for the treatment of sleep; It is the S-isomer of a compound used in Europe; May be more selective for the alpha1 subunit of the GABA-a receptor complex.
a. Zolpidem (Ambien)
b. Chlorazepate (Tranxene; generics)
c. Temazepam (Restoril; generics)
d. Eszopidone (Lunesta)
e. Ethyl alcohol

2006 exam 1 q31
d. Eszopidone (Lunesta)
Of the following drugs, which one would be the best choice to treat the inability of a truck driver to fall asleep because of it has a short duration of action, it lacks active metabolites, and it apparently has no effect to suppress REM sleep.
a. Flurazepam (Dalmane; generics)
b. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
c. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
d. Zolpidem (Ambien)
e. Quazepam (Doral)

2006 exam 1 q32
d. Zolpidem (Ambien)
Although this benzodiazepine drug is efficacious for a panic reaction (a severe kind of anxiety) and certain kinds
of depression, it may not be useful for a student because it might interfere with classes and examinations.
a. Flurazepam (Dalmane; generics)
b. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
c. Alprazolam (Xanax)
d. Baclofen (Lioresal)
e. Propranolol (Inderal and others)

2006 exam 1 q33
c. Alprazolam (Xanax)
Select the correct drug labeled for the treatment of anxiety reactions; May be “safer” in people with depressed liver function since it is metabolized by conjugation because of its C-3 hydroxyl..
a. Halazepam (Paxipam)
b. Flurazepam (Dalmane; generics)
c. Oxazepam (Serax; generics)
d. Diazepam (Valium)
e. Alprazolam (Xanax)

2006 exam 1 q34
c. Oxazepam (Serax; generics)
Select the chemical that is efficacious to treat depression because it may be more selective for the alpha2 or alpha3 subunit of the GABA-a receptor complex.
a. Buspirone (BuSpar and others)
b. Eszopidone (Lunesta)
c. Zolpidem (Ambien)
d. Hydroxyzine (Atarax)
e. Lorazepam (Ativan; generics)

2006 exam 1 q35
e. Lorazepam (Ativan; generics)
The major adverse reaction to the long-term chronic use of a benzodiazepine chemical used to treat a sleep problem or an anxiety reaction is:
a. CNS excitation.
b. a seizure and the possible diagnosis of epilepsy.
c. skeletal muscle spasticity.
d. the possibility of sedation and drowsiness.
e. a large decrease in systemic blood pressure or cardiac output.

2006 exam 1 q36
d. the possibility of sedation and drowsiness.
Select the benzodiazepine compound that is labeled for sleep problems and is metabolized by gradual side chain breakdown to several active metabolites; Some metabolites are more active that the parent compound; The terminal metabolite of the compound is active and has a half-time of elimination of 50 – 100 hours.
a. Triazolam (Halcion)
b. Estazolam (ProSom)
c. Zaleplon (Sonata)
d. Flurazepam (Dalmane; generics)
e. Oxazepam (Serax; generics)

2006 exam 1 q37
d. Flurazepam (Dalmane; generics)
Because this drug is an alpha-2 receptor agonist, its upper dose when it is used to treat skeletal muscle spasticity is often limited by the development of hypotension.
a. Baclofen (Lioresal)
b. Tizanidine (Zanaflex)
c. Dantrolene (Dantrium)
d. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
e. Diazepam (Valium)

2006 exam 1 q38
b. Tizanidine (Zanaflex)
Select the correct statement regarding the use of a benzodiazepine compound to treat an anxiety reaction.
a. Accumulation in the blood and brain of the parent compound or active metabolites is not desirable.
b. The doses should be great enough to cause daytime sedation and drowsiness.
c. What the person does (i.e., occupation) or age are not considerations in the choice of a benzodiazepine drug.
d. Limbic system structures (i.e., the amygdale) appear to be about two-times more sensitive than the brain stem to the effects of a benzodiazepine to positively modulate the GABA-a receptor.
e. The benzodiazepine compound must have at least one active metabolite.

2006 exam 1 q39
d. Limbic system structures (i.e., the amygdale) appear to be about two-times more sensitive than the brain stem to the effects of a benzodiazepine to positively modulate the GABA-a receptor.
Correctly select the compound which is a GABA-b receptor agonist, and likely decreases the release of excitatory neurotransmitters in the spinal cord.
a. Baclofen (Lioresal)
b. Tizanidine (Zanaflex
c. Dantrolene (Dantrium)
d. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
e. Diazepam (Valium)

2006 exam 1 q40
a. Baclofen (Lioresal)
Which chemical would not pharmacodynamically interact with a concurrently taken CNS depressant.
a. Diazepam (Valium)
b. Ethyl alcohol
c. Baclofen (Lioresal)
d. Secobarbital (Seconal; generics)
e. All of the above (a-d) might pharmacodynamically interact with a concurrently taken CNS depressant.

2006 exam 1 q41
e. All of the above (a-d) might pharmacodynamically interact with a concurrently taken CNS depressant.
Blocks glycine receptors on the glutamic acid receptor complex:
a. Felbamate (Felbatol)
b. Gabapentin (Neurotin)
c. Tiagabine (Gabitril)
d. Zonisamide (Zonegram)
e. gamma-Vinyl GABA; Vigabatrin (Sabril)

2006 exam 1 q42
a. Felbamate (Felbatol)
Inhibits GABA metabolism; Irreversible inhibitor of GABA-T (GABA transaminase) in the brain:
a. Felbamate (Felbatol)
b. Gabapentin (Neurotin)
c. Tiagabine (Gabitril)
d. Zonisamide (Zonegram)
e. gamma-Vinyl GABA; Vigabatrin (Sabril)

2006 exam 1 q43
e. gamma-Vinyl GABA; Vigabatrin (Sabril)
May increase the release of GABA from GABAergic neurons in the brain; May bind to an amino acid transporter:
a. Felbamate (Felbatol)
b. Gabapentin (Neurotin)
c. Tiagabine (Gabitril)
d. Zonisamide (Zonegram)
e. gamma-Vinyl GABA; Vigabatrin (Sabril)

2006 exam 1 q44
b. Gabapentin (Neurotin)
Probably blocks the reuptake of GABA into GABAergic neurons by inhibiting a GABA transporter:
a. Felbamate (Felbatol)
b. Gabapentin (Neurotin)
c. Tiagabine (Gabitril)
d. Zonisamide (Zonegram)
e. gamma-Vinyl GABA; Vigabatrin (Sabril)

2006 exam 1 q45
c. Tiagabine (Gabitril)
Likely blocks sodium channels, and may act on calcium channels to decrease Ca++ influx into neurons:
a. Felbamate (Felbatol)
b. Gabapentin (Neurotin)
c. Tiagabine (Gabitril)
d. Zonisamide (Zonegram)
e. gamma-Vinyl GABA; Vigabatrin (Sabril)

2006 exam 1 q46
d. Zonisamide (Zonegram)
The use of this drug to control seizures is complicated by its saturable and variable nonlinear metabolism making dose prediction often difficult.
a. Phenobarbital
b. Primidone (Mysoline)
c. Ethosuximide (Zarontin)
d. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
e. Clonazepam (Klonopin)

2006 exam 1 q47
d. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
Correctly select the compound that is not effective for absence seizures (and may even make them worse).
a. Valproic acid (Depakene and others)
b. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
c. Ethosuximide (Zarontin)
d. Trimethadione (Tridione)
e. a, b, and c

2006 exam 1 q48 (slightly modified)
b. phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
This newer antiepileptic drug (approved in 2000) is very similar in mechanism of action to an “older” drug, but it may be “safer” because it is not metabolized to an active epoxide metabolite which may cause adverse reactions.
a. Oxcarbazepine (Trileptal)
b. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
c. Felbamate (Felbatol)
d. Gabapentin (Neurotin)
e. Toperamate (Topamax)

2006 exam 1 q49
a. Oxcarbazepine (Trileptal)
Autoinduction of metabolism may complicate the dosing of this antiepileptic drug which likely blocks sodium (Na+) channels to inhibit Na+ influx into CNS neurons during sustained, repetitive high-frequency neuronal discharge.
a. Valproic acid (Depakene and others)
b. Ethosuximide (Zarontin)
c. Clonazepam (Klonopin)
d. Carbamazepine (Tegretol and others)
e. Gabapentin (Neurotin)

2006 exam 1 q50
d. Carbamazepine (Tegretol and others)
This compound may result in acute dose-related side effects such as drowsiness, concentration-dependent side effects such as lateral nystagmus, and long-term or chronic side effects (used for two or three months or longer) such as gum hyperplasia and vitamin deficiencies; It probably inhibits Na+ channels during sustained, repetitive high-frequency neuronal discharge.
a. Ethosuximide (Zarontin)
b. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
c. Tiagabine (Gabitril)
d. Gabapentin (Neurotin)
e. Felbamate (Felbatol)

2006 exam 1 q51
b. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
Select the broad spectrum antiepileptic drug that is definitely teratogenic; A 10-20% increase in the risk of spina bifida is the biggest problem.
a. Valproic acid (Depakene and others)
b. Ethosuximide (Zarontin)
c. Phenobarbital
d. Oxcarbazepine (Trileptal)
e. Pregabalin (Lyrica)

2006 exam 1 q52
a. Valproic acid (Depakene and others)
The effectiveness of _________ for most types of seizures (partial, absence and other generalized seizures) is because its mechanism of action likely relates to Na+ channels, GABA inhibition, and Ca++ channels in the thalamus.
a. valproic acid (Depakene and others)
b. ethosuximide (Zarontin)
c. clonazepam (Klonopin)
d. carbamazepine (Tegretol and others)
e. gabapentin (Neurontin)

2006 exam 1 q53
a. valproic acid (Depakene and others)
Correctly select the largest advantage of Gabapentin (Neurontin) over “older” antiepileptic drugs (when it was approved in 1994) that made it much easier to add it to existing antiepileptic drug therapy.
a. It is not metabolized to any extent.
b. It had a unique mechanism of action not related to an effect on Na+ channels, GABA inhibition, or Ca++ channels in the thalamus (T-current).
c. It could be used safely in people with severely depressed renal function.
d. It did not cause a marked elevation in systemic blood pressure.

2006 exam 1 q54
a. It is not metabolized to any extent.
Correctly select the adverse reaction to many antiepileptic drugs (“old” and “new”) that usually appears during the long-term use of an antiepileptic drug which is a common use of most of these drugs.
a. Blood toxicities (blood dyscrasias)
b. Increased alertness or arousal and difficulty falling asleep
c. An anxiety reaction
d. Head hair loss
e. Gum hyperplasia (i.e., gum overgrowth)

2006 exam 1 q55
a. Blood toxicities (blood dyscrasias)
Although this drug (approved in 1994) is efficacious for refractory partial seizures, it may cause a skin rash (delayed hypersensitivity reaction), especially in younger adults or children (<16 years old):
a. Dantrolene (Dantrium)
b. Etomidate (Amidate)
c. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
d. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
e. Zaleplon (Sonata)

2006 exam 1 q56
c. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
This compound effects both “normal” skeletal muscle and skeletal muscle in spasm:
a. Dantrolene (Dantrium)
b. Etomidate (Amidate)
c. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
d. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
e. Zaleplon (Sonata)

2006 exam 1 q57
a. Dantrolene (Dantrium)
This drug may be more selective for the alpha1 subunit of the GABA-a receptor complex in the brain compared to other subunits of the GABA-a receptor complex.
a. Dantrolene (Dantrium)
b. Etomidate (Amidate)
c. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
d. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
e. Zaleplon (Sonata)

2006 exam 1 q58
e. Zaleplon (Sonata)
This compound is a useful short duration intravenous general anesthetic and may act on GABA receptors in the brain:
a. Dantrolene (Dantrium)
b. Etomidate (Amidate)
c. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
d. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
e. Zaleplon (Sonata)

2006 exam 1 q59
b. Etomidate (Amidate)
This compound has the greatest potential (of the five) to interact with many OTC or prescription-only compounds:
a. Dantrolene (Dantrium)
b. Etomidate (Amidate)
c. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
d. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
e. Zaleplon (Sonata)

2006 exam 1 q60
d. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
Long-term potentiation is thought to be the basis of:
a. memory
b. stroke related brain damage
c. neurodegenerative diseases
d. schizophrenia
e. clinical depression

2005 exam 1 q3
a. memory
All of the following are receptors for ligand-gated ion channels EXCEPT:
a. GABA-a
b. GABA-b
c. Nicotinic
d. NMDA
e. Glycine

2005 exam 1 q5
b. GABA-b
The second enzyme in the synthesis of dopamine is ______ and its product is _____.
a. dopamine beta-hydroxylase/dopamine
b. tyrosine hydroxylase/dopa
c. dopa decarboxylase/dopamine
d. phenylethanolamine N-methyl-transferase/dopa

2005 exam 1 q6
c. dopa decarboxylase/dopamine
The following are inhibitory neurotransmitters:
a. glutamate
b. glycine
c. aspartate
d. a and b
e. all of the above

2005 exam 1 q7
b. glycine
Dopamine receptors are:
a. positively coupled to cAMP
b. positively coupled to IP3/DAG
c. negatively coupled to cAMP
d. a and b
e. all of the above

2005exam 1 q8
e. all of the above
The glycine receptor:
a. is a metabotropic receptor (GPCR)
b. allosterically modulates NMDA receptors
c. is positively coupled to Cl channels
d. a and b
e. b and c

2005 exam 1 q9
e. b and c
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for the drug-induced state of general anesthesia?
a. Amnesia (lack of memory)
b. Unconsciousness
c. Immobile in response to “painful” stimuli
d. Reduced or abolished reflexes
e. Analgesia

2005 exam 1 q12
b. Unconsciousness
This general anesthetic, administered by inhalation, may cause a seizure in a person with epilepsy.
a. Ketamine (Ketalar)
b. Enflurane (Ethrane)
c. Levetiracetam (Keppra)
d. Sevoflurane (Ultane)
e. Halothane (Fluothane)

2005 exam 1 q13
b. Enflurane (Ethrane)
The mechanism of action of depressant general anesthetics like Desflurane (Suprane) is likely due to their ability to:
a. antagonize benzodiazepine receptors in the brain.
b. dissolve in nerve membranes because of their lipid solubility.
c. stimulate GABAA receptor complexes in the brain.
d. non-competively inhibit NMDA receptors in the brain.
e. promote the formation of acetaldehyde in the liver.

2005 exam 1 q14
b. dissolve in nerve membranes because of their lipid solubility.
This short acting intravenous general anesthetic probably interacts in some way with GABA receptors in the brain (The drug may be a GABA receptor agonist).
a. Ketamine (Ketalar)
b. Sufentanil (Sufenta)
c. Propofol (Diprivan)
d. Methoxyflurane (Penthrane)
e. Inovar

2005 exam 1 q15
c. Propofol (Diprivan)
All of the following are correct about barbiturates EXCEPT:
a. they interact with GABA-a receptor complexes in the brain to enhance inhibition.
b. they most likely disrupt nerve membrane function in a dose-dependent fashion.
c. they cannot be used alone to achieve a successful suicide – they need another CNS depressant for this.
d. they are used to facilitate sleep in some people.
e. they probably decrease the release of excitatory neurotransmitters.

2005 exam 1 q16
c. they cannot be used alone to achieve a successful suicide – they need another CNS depressant for this.
The duration of the effects of drugs that act in the brain are often due to (exemplified by thiopental):
a. hepatic metabolism of the drug.
b. renal excretion of the drug.
c. fecal excretion of the drug.
d. redistribution of the drug to other body tissues.
e. extensive binding of the drug to plasma proteins.

2005 exam 1 q17
d. redistribution of the drug to other body tissues.
Which of the following drugs would be the most useful to orally help a 45 year old truck driver with an every-day sleep problem?
a. Pentobarbital (Nembutal)
b. Zolpidem (Ambien)
c. Flurazepam (Dalmane and others)
d. Quazepam (Doral)
e. Etomidate (Amidate)

2005 exam 1 q18
b. Zolpidem (Ambien)
Ethyl alcohol:
a. has no effect on a developing human embryo or fetus.
b. is metabolized by the liver.
c. is a central nervous system (CNS) stimulant because it can result in euphoria.
d. can stimulate the stomach to secrete hydrochloric acid.
e. will not interact with any other CNS-active drug.

2005 exam 1 q19
b. is metabolized by the liver.
This chemical may be responsible for some of the intoxication-like and/or reinforcing effects of ethyl alcohol.
a. Alcohol dehydrogenase
b. Acetic acid
c. Glutamic acid
d. Acetaldehyde
e. NAD+

2005 exam 1 q20
d. Acetaldehyde
This non-barbiturate sedative-hypnotic compound will interact with tricyclic antidepressants to result in a “delirium-like” reaction.
a. Paraldehyde
b. Zaleplon (Sonata)
c. Ethchorvynol (Placidyl)
d. Meprobamate (Equanil and others)
e. Secobarbital (Seconal)

2005 exam 1 q21
c. Ethchorvynol (Placidyl)
This drug was originally developed as a centrally-acting drug to treat hypertension so it’s upper dose when it is used to treat spastic skeletal muscles is limited by hypotension.
a. Diazepam (Valium and others)
b. Dantrolene (Dantrium)
c. Metaxalone (Skelaxin)
d. Tizanidine (Zanaflex)
e. Methocarbamol (Robaxin)

2005 exam 1 q22
d. Tizanidine (Zanaflex)
A comparatively recent volatile liquid general anesthetic with a short induction and recovery:
a. Lamotrigine (Lamictal )
b. Pentobarbital (Nembutal and others)
c. Triazolam (Halcion)
d. Sevoflurane (Ultane)
e. Dantrolene (Dantrium)

2005 exam 1 q23
d. Sevoflurane (Ultane)
Labeled for seizures (epilepsy) and is primarily an “add-on” drug.
a. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
b. Pentobarbital (Nembutal and others)
c. Triazolam (Halcion)
d. Sevoflurane (Ultane)
e. Dantrolene (Dantrium)

2005 exam 1 q24
a. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
Labeled for sleep problems; Will definitely cause a memory deficit in oral doses greater than 0.5 mg:
a. Lamotrigine (Lamictal )
b. Pentobarbital (Nembutal and others)
c. Triazolam (Halcion)
d. Sevoflurane (Ultane)
e. Dantrolene (Dantrium)

2005 exam 1 q25
c. Triazolam (Halcion)
Used to treat spasticity; May cause “muscle weakness” in ambulatory patients because of it’s mechanism of action.
a. Lamotrigine (Lamictal )
b. Pentobarbital (Nembutal and others)
c. Triazolam (Halcion)
d. Sevoflurane (Ultane)
e. Dantrolene (Dantrium)

2005 exam 1 q26
e. Dantrolene (Dantrium)
A comparatively dangerous drug; No “ceiling” to CNS effects because of it’s mechanism of action:
a. Lamotrigine (Lamictal )
b. Pentobarbital (Nembutal and others)
c. Triazolam (Halcion)
d. Sevoflurane (Ultane)
e. Dantrolene (Dantrium)

2005 exam 1 q27
b. Pentobarbital (Nembutal and others)
This subunit of the GABA-a receptor complex may be responsible for the sedating effects of benzodiazepine compounds.
a. Alpha-1 subunit
b. Alpha-2 subunit
c. Beta –1 subunit
d. Beta-2 subunit
e. Gamma-2 subunit

2005 exam 1 q28
a. Alpha-1 subunit
A drug used to treat a sleep problem that is a nonbenzodiazepine compound and it is probably a partial agonist at benzodiazepine receptors on GABAA receptor complexes.
a. Flurazepam (Dalmane and others)
b. Quazepam (Doral)
c. Zolpidem (Ambien)
d. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
e. Oxazepam (Serax and others)

2005 exam 1 q29
c. Zolpidem (Ambien)
A positive modulator of GABA-a receptors:
a. Buspirone (BuSpar and others)
b. Baclofen (Lioresal)
c. Methocarbamol (Robaxin)
d. Lorazepam (Ativan and others)
e. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

2005 exam 1 q30
d. Lorazepam (Ativan and others)
A partial agonist at 5-HT1A receptors in the brain:
a. Buspirone (BuSpar and others)
b. Baclofen (Lioresal)
c. Methocarbamol (Robaxin)
d. Lorazepam (Ativan and others)
e. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

2005 exam 1 q31
a. Buspirone (BuSpar and others)
A GABA-b receptor agonist.
a. Buspirone (BuSpar and others)
b. Baclofen (Lioresal)
c. Methocarbamol (Robaxin)
d. Lorazepam (Ativan and others)
e. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

2005 exam 1 q32
b. Baclofen (Lioresal)
Probably promotes the inactivated state of Na+ channels:
a. Buspirone (BuSpar and others)
b. Baclofen (Lioresal)
c. Methocarbamol (Robaxin)
d. Lorazepam (Ativan and others)
e. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

2005 exam 1 q33
e. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Inhibits (at least partially) motor interneurons in the spinal cord:
a. Buspirone (BuSpar and others)
b. Baclofen (Lioresal)
c. Methocarbamol (Robaxin)
d. Lorazepam (Ativan and others)
e. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

2005 exam 1 q34
c. Methocarbamol (Robaxin)
This drug will result in little or no REM rebound insomnia when discontinued after its use for eleven (11)
consecutive nights because an active, long half-life terminal metabolite is “washed” out of the body slowly.
a. Triazolam (Halcion)
b. Temazepam (Restoril and others)
c. Estazolam (ProSom)
d. Flurazepam (Dalmane and others)
e. Lorazepam (Ativan and others)

2005 exam 1 q35
d. Flurazepam (Dalmane and others)
The terminal, active, long half-life metabolite of this drug is not selective for the benzodiazepine-1 (BZ-1;
thought to be responsible for sleep-inducing effects) receptors although the parent drug is advertised to be more selective for the BZ-1 receptor versus the BZ-2 receptor.
a. Flurazepam (Dalmane and others)
b. Zolpidem (Ambien)
c. Diazepam (Valium and others)
d. Temazepam (Restoril and others)
e. Quazepam (Doral)

2005 exam 1 q36
e. Quazepam (Doral)
This drug labeled for sleep problems is hepatically metabolized by ring opening and usually has a short half-life of elimination (<5 hours).
a. Triazolam (Halcion)
b. Temazepam (Restoril and others)
c. Zolpidem (Ambien)
d. Flurazepam (Dalmane and others)
e. Lorazepam (Ativan and others)

2005 exam 1 q37
a. Triazolam (Halcion)
This drug labeled for the treatment of anxiety is especially efficacious for panic reactions.
a. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium and others)
b. Alprazolam (Xanax)
c. Lorazepam (Ativan and others)
d. Oxazepam (Serax and others)
e. Diazepam (valium and others)

2005 exam 1 q38
b. Alprazolam (Xanax)
All of the following benzodiazepines labeled for the treatment of anxiety are hepatically metabolized to the
active, long half-life, terminal metabolite N-desmethyldiazepam (nordiazepam) EXCEPT:
a. diazepam (Valium and others).
b. halazepam (Paxipam).
c. chlorazepate (Tranxene and others)
d. chlordiazepoxide (Librium and others)
e. lorazepam (Ativan and others)

2005 exam 1 q39
e. lorazepam (Ativan and others)
Which of the following drugs probably “works” in some way on the GABA-a receptor complex?
a. Phenobarbital
b. Quazepam (Doral)
c. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
d. a and b are both correct
e. All of the above are correct

2005 exam 1 q40
d. a and b are both correct
This drug might be “safer” to treat anxiety in a 92 year old women who drinks vodka daily, because the drug has a C-3 hydroxyl group.
a. Quazepam (Doral)
b. Tizanidine (Zanaflex)
c. Oxazepam (Serax and others)
d. Lamotrigine (Lamictal )
e. Chlorazepate (Tranxene and others)

2005 exam 1 q41
c. Oxazepam (Serax and others)
Kidney (renal) “stones’ might be a problem, especially in those using Ca++ supplements or who might be chronically dehydrated:
a. Ketamine (Ketalar)
b. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
c. Topiramate (Topamax)
d. Amobarbital (Amytal and others)
e. Valproic acid (Depakene)

2005 exam 1 q42
c. Topiramate (Topamax)
Produces fatal demyelination of peripheral nerves in those patients with acute intermittent porphyria:
a. Ketamine (Ketalar)
b. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
c. Topiramate (Topamax)
d. Amobarbital (Amytal and others)
e. Valproic acid (Depakene)

2005 exam 1 q43
d. Amobarbital (Amytal and others)
Long-term (chronic) use often (in about 50% of patients) leads to gingival hyperplasia:
a. Ketamine (Ketalar)
b. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
c. Topiramate (Topamax)
d. Amobarbital (Amytal and others)
e. Valproic acid (Depakene)

2005 exam 1 q44
b. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
May produce hallucinations in adults during recovery:
a. Ketamine (Ketalar)
b. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
c. Topiramate (Topamax)
d. Amobarbital (Amytal and others)
e. Valproic acid (Depakene)

2005 exam 1 q45
a. Ketamine (Ketalar)
May produce potentially fatal liver toxicity, especially in very young children taking other drugs for a similar purpose:
a. Ketamine (Ketalar)
b. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
c. Topiramate (Topamax)
d. Amobarbital (Amytal and others)
e. Valproic acid (Depakene)

2005 exam 1 q46
e. Valproic acid (Depakene)
The daily efficacious dose of phenytoin is complicated in different patients because phenytoin:
a. promotes the inactivated state of Na+ channels in the brain.
b. is metabolized by the liver to two (2) active metabolites.
c. of hepatic metabolism that becomes saturated leading to non-linear elimination.
d. is only about 10% bound to plasma proteins.
e. enhances GABA transmission in the brain.

2005 exam 1 q47
c. of hepatic metabolism that becomes saturated leading to non-linear elimination.
This drug is metabolized to two (2) active metabolites, one of which may be responsible for the drug’s antiepileptic efficacy during chronic use:
a. Primidone (Mysoline)
b. Phenobarbital
c. Zonisamide (Zonegran)
d. Trimethadione (Tridione)
e. Gabapentin (Neurontin)

2005 exam 1 q48
a. Primidone (Mysoline)
Ethosuximde (Zarontin) is efficacious for absence (petit mal) seizures because it likely:
a. promotes the inactive state of Na+ channels in nerve cells of the brain.
b. enhances the effectiveness of GABA in the brain.
c. increases inhibition in nerve membranes.
d. inhibits a “T-current” (Ca++ mediated) in the thalamus.
e. inhibits Na+ entry into nerve cells during high-frequency discharge.

2005 exam 1 q49
d. inhibits a “T-current” (Ca++ mediated) in the thalamus.
This drug cannot be used in a person with absence (petit mal) seizures.
a. Trimethadione (Tridione)
b. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
c. Ethosuximide (Zarontin)
d. Valproic acid (Depakene)
e. Clonazepam Klonopin)

2005 exam 1 q50
b. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
This is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug because it promotes the inactive state of Na+ channels, may enhance GABA-mediated inhibition and inhibits a Ca++-mediated “T” current” in the thalamus.
a. Primidone (Mysoline)
b. Valproic acid (Depakene)
c. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
d. Zonisamide (Zonegran)
e. Oxcarbazepine (Trileptal)

2005 exam 1 q51
b. Valproic acid (Depakene)
This relatively “older” antiepileptic drug inhibits Na+ channels, is efficacious for tonic-clonic (grand mal) and partial seizures, and undergoes autoinduction during chronic use to an active, epoxide metabolite.
a. Oxcarbazepoine (Trileptal)
b. The Na+ salt of valproic acid (Depakote)
c. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
d. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
e. Paramethadione (Paradione)

2005 exam 1 q52
d. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
This antiepileptic drug can result in acute side effects soon after a dose, concentration-dependent side effects (i.e., dizziness) and long-term, chronic side effects (i.e., coarse facial changes).
a. Trimethadione (Tridione)
b. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
c. Ethosuximde (Zarontin)
d. Valproic acid (Depakene)
e. Clonazepam Klonopin)

2005 exam 1 q53
b. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
The “Principles of Therapy” with antiepileptic drugs include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. an accurate diagnosis is necessary.
b. the dose must often be titrated to a possibly efficacious one.
c. patient education is valuable.
d. the proper dose of drugs (or drugs) must be used.
e. All of the above are included in the “Principles of Therapy”.

2005 exam 1 q54
e. All of the above are included in the “Principles of Therapy”.
Inhibits the agonist modulatory action of glycine on the NMDA receptor in the brain:
a. Gabapentin (Neurontin)
b. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
c. Felbamate (Felbatol)
d. Tiagabine (Gabitril)
e. gamma-vinyl GABA; Vigabatrin (Sabril)

2005 exam 1 q55
c. Felbamate (Felbatol)
May increase the release of GABA from GABAergic neurons and binds to an amino acid transportor in the brain:
a. Gabapentin (Neurontin)
b. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
c. Felbamate (Felbatol)
d. Tiagabine (Gabitril)
e. gamma-vinyl GABA; Vigabatrin (Sabril)

2005 exam 1 q56
a. Gabapentin (Neurontin)
Promotes the inactivated state of Na+ channels during sustained, high-frequency discharge of neurons:
a. Gabapentin (Neurontin)
b. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
c. Felbamate (Felbatol)
d. Tiagabine (Gabitril)
e. gamma-vinyl GABA; Vigabatrin (Sabril)

2005 exam 1 q57
b. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
Inhibits the action of GABA transaminase (GABA-T), an enzyme that metabolizes GABA:
a. Gabapentin (Neurontin)
b. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
c. Felbamate (Felbatol)
d. Tiagabine (Gabitril)
e. gamma-vinyl GABA; Vigabatrin (Sabril)

2005 exam 1 q58
e. gamma-vinyl GABA; Vigabatrin (Sabril)
Probably blocks the reuptake of GABA into GABAergic neurons:
a. Gabapentin (Neurontin)
b. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
c. Felbamate (Felbatol)
d. Tiagabine (Gabitril)
e. gamma-vinyl GABA; Vigabatrin (Sabril)

2005 exam 1 q59
d. Tiagabine (Gabitril)
This antiepileptic drug was once the drug of choice for absence (petit mal) seizures, but is seldom used now because it can cause glare sensitivity, a potentially severe skin rash, and blood toxicities (blood dyscrasias).
a. Trimethadione (Tridione)
b. Primidone (Mysoline)
c. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
d. Fosphenytoin (Cerebyxl)
e. Oxcarbazepine (Trileptil)

2005 exam 1 q60
a. Trimethadione (Tridione)
Select the volatile, liquid, general anesthetic which is relatively new (1992) and “popular”, but causes significant respiratory tract irritation:
a. Ethyl ether
b. Ketamine (Ketalar)
c. Nitrous oxide
d. Sevoflurane (Ultaine)
e. Desflurane (Suprane)

2007 quiz 1 q1
e. Desflurane (Suprane)
Acute intermittent porphyria is an absolute contraindication in the use of:
a. Halothane (Fluothane)
b. Triazolam (Halcion)
c. Propofol (Diprivan)
d. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
e. Phenobarbital

2007 quiz 1 q2
e. Phenobarbital
This volatile, liquid, general anesthetic is not used much because it may cause allergic type hepatotoxicity.
a. Ethyl ether
b. Methoxyflurane (Penthrane)
c. Halothane (Fluothane)
d. Desflurane (Suprane)
e. Enflurane (Ethrane)

2007 quiz 1 q3
c. Halothane (Fluothane)
This process is likely responsible for the duration of the CNS effects of very lipid soluble drugs like thiopental (Sodium pentothal).
a. Hepatic metabolism
b. Redistribution out of the CNS
c. Urinary excretion of unmetabolized drug
d. Binding to lean tissue like skeletal muscle
e. Urinary excretion of active metabolites

2007 quiz 1 q4
b. Redistribution out of the CNS
The chronic oral use of ethyl alcohol (ethanol) in high amounts can be toxic to the liver because of the build up or accumulation of:
a. Unmetabolized ethyl alcohol
b. Acetate
c. NAD+
d. NADP+
e. Acetaldehyde

2007 quiz 1 q5
e. Acetaldehyde
Select the benzodiazepine that is labeled for sleep problems and is metabolized by the liver to as many as seven (7) metabolites with the terminal active metabolite having a long and variable half-life of elimination
a. Estazolam (ProSom)
b. Triazolam (Halcion)
c. Flurazepam (Dalmane & generics)
d. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
e. Temazepam (Restoril & generics)

2007 quiz 1 q6
c. Flurazepam (Dalmane & generics)
Drugs that block the NMDA receptor associated ion channel include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Ketamine
b. Dextromethorphan
c. Phencyclidine
d. Lidocaine
e. Memantine

2007 quiz 1 q7
d. Lidocaine
Induction of LTP requires combined activation of:
a. NMDA receptor
b. AMPA receptor
c. Glutamate metabotropic receptor
d. a and b
e. All of the above

2007 quiz 1 q8
e. All of the above
The following monamines are metabolized by MAO and COMT to produce inactive metabolites:
a. Norepinephrine
b. Dopamine
c. Serotonin
d. Melatonin
e. a and b

2007 quiz 1 q9
e. a and b
The classification of glutaminergic ion channel associated receptors is based upon differential sensitivity to:
a. Glutamate
b. Glycine
c. Gamma amino butyric acid
d. Synthetic amino acid analogs
e. Kynurenic acid

2007 quiz 1 q10
d. Synthetic amino acid analogs
At a BAL of 0.100g% (or 100mg%) most people will experience:
a. Vomiting
b. Impaired judgment and some incoordination
c. Coma
d. Death

2007 quiz 5 q1
b. Impaired judgment and some incoordination
When a chronic alcoholic (consuming a fifth of spirits whiskey a day for 6 months) quits abruptly the withdrawal effects:
a. Are unlikely to require medical intervention
b. Could progress to a medical emergency
c. Could require high doses of a benzodiazepine for treatment
d. b and c

2007 quiz 5 q2
d. b and c
The JAMA evidence-based practice guidelines for alcohol withdrawal conclude that:
a. Beta blockers and clonidine are as effective as monotherapy
b. Benzodiazepines are the agents of choice for treating alcohol withdrawal
c. Thiamine should be administered before a glucose IV drip is started
d. Neuroleptics are suitable as monotherapy as well as adjunct therapy
e. Only b & c

2007 quiz 5 q3
e. Only b & c
Disulfuram blocks what enzyme as its primary mechanism of action:
a. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
b. Glutamic acid decarboxylase
c. Alcohol dehydrogenase
d. Choline acetyltransferase
e. Adenylyl cyclase

2007 quiz 5 q4
a. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
Which of the following are among the factors driving the current problem of opioid dependence?
a. Increased experimentation by youth, especially of prescription opioids
b. High purity heroin
c. Plentiful, cheap supply of heroin
d. All of the above
e. a and b only

2007 quiz 5 q5
d. All of the above
T/F: Marijuana smoke contains more tar and carcinogenic material than cigarette smoke

2007 quiz 5 q6
true
T/F: Since marijuana produces no physical dependence, addiction to marijuana is practically nonexistent

2007 quiz 5 q7
false
T/F: The 20% to 50% heart rate increase associated with marijuana use frequently leads to dangerously high blood pressure and cardiovascular accidents

2007 quiz 5 q8
false
T/F: Buprenorphine can substitute immediately for methadone in patients taking 80 to 100 mg of methadone

2007 quiz 5 q9
false
Neurotrophic factor:
a. glutamate
b. glycine
c. NO
d. BDNF
e. NMDA

2006 quiz1 q1
d. BDNF
Allosteric receptor modulator:
a. glutamate
b. glycine
c. NO
d. BDNF
e. NMDA

2006 quiz 1 q2
b. glycine
neurotransmitter:
a. glutamate
b. glycine
c. NO
d. BDNF
e. NMDA

2006 quiz 1 q3
a. glutamate
neuromodulator:
a. glutamate
b. glycine
c. NO
d. BDNF
e. NMDA

2006 quiz 1 q4
c. NO
pharmacological experimental tool:
a. glutamate
b. glycine
c. NO
d. BDNF
e. NMDA

2006 quiz 1 q5
e. NMDA
T/F: postsynaptic receptors may be coupled to G-proteins or ion channels.

2006 quiz 1 q6
true
T/F: GPCRs may be coupled to second messenger systems or to ion channels.

2006 quiz 1 q7
true
T/F: all postsynaptic receptors are GPCRs while all presynaptic receptors are ion channels.

2006 quiz 1 q8
false
T/F: Neurotransmitters that act postsynaptically are excitatory while neurotransmitters that act presynaptically are inhibitory.


2006 quiz 1 q9
false
T/F: the action potential is comprised of excitatory and inhibitory potentials.


2006 quiz 1 q10
false
T/F: while generation of EPSPs and IPSPs is ligand-dependent, propagation of action potentials is ligand-independent.


2006 quiz 1 q11
true
T/F: While all monoamine neurotransmitter GPCRs are 7 transmembrane spanning proteins, all monoamine transmitter reuptake transporters are 12 transmembrane spanning proteins.


2006 quiz 1 q12
true
The least sensitive part of the central nervous system to the depressant effect of an inhaled general anesthetic is(are) the:
a. spinothalamic tracts involved wtih pain perception
b. hippocampi involved with immediate or short-term memory
c. cerebral cortex
d. brain stem areas involved with cardiovascular or respiratory control


2006 quiz 1 q13
d. brain stem areas involved with cardiovascular or respiratory control
This depressant (volatile liquid) general anesthetic may result in resetting baroreceptor control of systemic blood pressure and may result in hepatic toxicity that is sometimes fatal:
a. enflurane (Ethrane)
b. halothane (Fluothane)
c. methoxyflurane (Penthrane)
d. desflurane (Suprane)
e. isoflurane (Forane)

2006 quiz 1 q14
b. halothane (Fluothane)
The main adverse effect to barbiturate compounds such as secobarbital (Seconal) is:
a. paradoxical excitement in children
b. excessive drowsiness and sleepiness, which may carry over to the daytime if the drug is used for insomnia
c. severe depression after a single dose
d. REM sleep depression after a single dose used to treat insomnia
e. hypoalgesia or a decrease in pain sensitivity and perception

2006 quiz 1 q15
b. excessive drowsiness and sleepiness, which may carry over to the daytime if the drug is used for insomnia
The big absolute contraindication for the use of a barbiturate is:
a. the presence of class II (New York Classification) heart failure
b. the presence of chronic asthma
c. depression or some other psychological problem
d. acute intermittent porphyria
e. the inability of a person to fall asleep

2006 quiz 1 q16
d. acute intermittent porphyria
A non-barbiturate sedative-hypnotic (other than a benzodiazepine) drug that might be used for sedative or hypnotic effects in an elderly patient because it causes little respiratory depression compared to other non-barbiturate drugs.
a. chloral hydrate
b. ethchlorvynal (Placidyl), as long as the person is also not taking a tricyclic antidepressant
c. paraldehyde
d. amobarbital (Amytal)
e. meprobamate (Equanil and others)

2006 quiz 1 q17
e. meprobamate (Equanil and others)
The most sensitive part of the CNS to a barbiturate to explain the ability of a barbiturate to decrease arousal and decrease sensitivity to environmental stimuli (a hypnotic effect) is(are) the:
a. spinal cord interneurons
b. brain stem reticular activating system (RAS)
c. cerebral cortex
d. spinothalamic nerve tracts
e. limbic system structures

2006 quiz 1 q18
b. brain stem reticular activating system (RAS)
Benzodiazepine drugs interact with ____ receptors to increase chloride ion (Cl-) influx across a nerve cell membrane:
a. GABA-a
b. GABA-b
c. GABA-c
d. N-methyl-d-aspartate (NMDA)
e. none of the above -- benzodiazepine drugs do not interact with any nerve cell receptor

2006 quiz 1 q19
a. GABA-a
This chemical ingested orally may cause a syndrome in infants characterized by such things as reduced body weight and/or mental retardation:
a. a benzodiazepine such as diazepam (Valium)
b. a nonbenzodiazepine such as zolpidem (Ambien)
c. a barbiturate such as pentobarbital (Nembutal)
d. ethyl alcohol
e. ketamine (Ketalar)

2006 quiz 1 q20
d. ethyl alcohol
T/F: synaptic communication is always from presynaptic to postsynaptic sites (receptor, ion channel, etc)

2003 quiz 1/22 q1
false
T/F: neurons are 'dedicated', meaning that they synthesize, store and release only one receptor ligand (transmitter) or receptor modulator.

2003 quiz 1/22 q2
false
T/F: neurons are dedicated meaning that they express receptors for only one transmitter

2003 quiz 1/22 q3
false
T/F: autoreceptors are ion channels that operate independently of a ligand (e.g., voltage-gated ion channel)

2003 quiz 1/22 q4
false
T/F: Constitutive activity of a receptor (e.g., beta2 receptor) means that it can cause formation of its second messenger (e.g., cAMP) without activation by a ligand (e.g., epinephrine)

2003 quiz 1/22 q5
true
T/F: nerve action potential depolarization and repolarization are dependent upon sodium and calcium, respectively

2003 quiz 1/22 q6
false
T/F: a nerve becomes hyperpolarized when ligand-operated potassium channels are opened during the resting state.

2003 quiz 1/22 q7
true
The transmitter of the dorsal Raphe is:
a. norepinephrine
b. dopamine
c. serotonin
d. acetylcholine
e. a and b

2003 quiz 1/22 q8
c. serotonin
The rate-limiting step in the synthesis of norepinephrine is controlled by the enzyme:
a. tyrosine hydroxylase
b. dopamine decarboxylase
c. dopamine beta hydroxylase
d. phenylethanolamine N-methyltransferase
e. catechol O-methyl-transferase

2003 quiz 1/22 q9
a. tyrosine hydroxylase
The presynaptic enzyme(s) responsible for degradation of norepinephrine is/are:
a. COMT
b. MAO
c. phenylethanolamine N-methyltransferase
d. a and b

2003 quiz 1/22 q10
b. MAO
T/F: nicotinic receptors are found only in the peripheral nervous system while muscarinic receptors are located in the peripheral and central nervous system

2003 quiz 1/22 q12
false
Dissociative general anesthetic; used primarily in children for short procedures, because it often produces hallucinations in adults during recovery; probably a noncompetitive inhibitor of NMDA-type glutamate receptors; almost always administered by intravenous injection:
a. midazolam (Versed)
b. thiopental (Pentothal)
c. ketamine (Ketalar)
d. etomidate (Amidate)
e. sevoflurane (Ultane)

2003 quiz 1 q1
c. ketamine (Ketalar)
Non-barbiturate drug for the rapid production of a general anesthetic state; intravenous injection; Useful because patients recover and become ambulatory much sooner than with other anesthetics; Oil-based formulation because it is not very water-soluble:
a. halothane
b. thiopental
c. ketamine
d. propofol
e. sevoflurane

2003 quiz 1 q2
d. propofol
Newest agent for producing the general anesthetic state; volatile liquid; rapid induction and recovery; chemically unstable when exposed to CO2 absorbents;
a. halothane
b. diethylether
c. ketamine
d. isoflurane
e. sevoflurane

2003 quiz 1 q3
e. sevoflurane
The short duration of the central nervous system depression caused by barbiturates used to treat insomnia is primarily due to:
a. rapid metabolism
b. rapid renal excretion
c. redistribution from the brain to other tissues
d. a, b and c are all correct choices

2003 quiz 1 q4
c. redistribution from the brain to other tissues
This non-barbiturate sedative hypnotic has a very simple chemical structure and is taken orally in high doses of 1-2grams to induce sleep:
a. ethylchlorvinyl (Placidyl)
b. methyprylon (Neludar)
c. chloral hydrate
d. ketamine (Ketalar)
e. pentobarbital (Nembutal)

2003 quiz 1 q5
c. chloral hydrate
Binds to a receptor on the GABA-a receptor complex; increases the frequency of chloride channel opening so that more chloride can enter the cell to intensify inhibition; definite 'ceiling' to this effect; metabolized by progressive removal of an aliphatic side chain to several active metabolites, some with more efficacy than the parent compound; active terminal metabolite (N-DAF) has an elimination half-life of 50-100 hours:
a. estazolam (ProSom)
b. flurazepam (Dalmane)
c. pentobarbital (Nembutal)
d. flumazenil (Romazicon)
e. ethyl alcohol

2003 quiz 1 q6
b. flurazepam (Dalmane)
A benzodiazepine compound labeled for sleep problems; metabolized by ring opening to active compounds; very short onset of action and short duration of action; doses above 0.5 mg can cause definite memory impairment:
a. estazolam (ProSom)
b. flurazepam (Dalmane)
c. pentobarbital (Nembutal)
d. triazolam (Halcion)
e. ethyl alcohol

2003 quiz 1 q7
d. triazolam (Halcion)
T/F: autoreceptors are receptors that operate independently of a ligand (either drug or transmitter)

2003 quiz 1 q8
false
T/F: nerve action potential depolarization and repolarization are dependent on sodium and potassium, respectively

2003 quiz 1 q9
true
T/F: a nerve becomes hyperpolarized when ligand-operated potassium channels are opened during the resting state

2003 quiz 1 q10
true
Drugs that block the NMDA receptor associated ion channel include:
a. phencyclidine
b. dextromethorphan
c. memantine
d. a & b
e. all of the above

2007 exam 2 q68
e. all of the above
The mechanism of action of barbiturate chemicals which underlies general CNS depression with no ceiling is:
a. competitive antagonism of the NMDA receptor
b. an increase in GABA-mediated inhibition
c. a non-selective effect to decrease the excitability of neurons (release of excitatory chemicals)
d. an increase in the presynaptic release of gamma-amino butyric acid (GABA)
e. a decrease in norepinephrine (NE) release in all brain regions

2007 exam 2 q69
c. a non-selective effect to decrease the excitability of neurons (release of excitatory chemicals)
Which non-barbiturate sedative/hypnotic drug will interact with a tricyclic antidepressant drug to lead to a delirium-like reaction?
a. meprobamate (equanil and others)
b. ethchlorvynol (placidyl)
c. zaleplon (sonata)
d. paraldehyde
e. flumazenil (romazicon)

2007 exam 2 q70
b. ethchlorvynol (placidyl)
The amino acid modulator of the NMDA receptor is:
a. glutamate
b. lysine
c. kynurenate
d. glycine
e. kainite

2006 exam 2 q61
d. glycine
This drug is metabolized to a PCP-like agent and is often abused by teenagers:
a. diphenhydramine
b. dextromethorphan
c. amphetamine
d. a and b
e. all of the above

2006 exam 2 q62
b. dextromethorphan
The mechanism of action of barbiturate chemicals which underlies general CNS depression is:
a. competitive antagonism of the NMDA receptor ( a “ceiling” to CNS depressant effects).
b. an increase in GABA-mediated inhibition (a “ceiling” effect).
c. a non-selective effect to decrease the excitability of neurons (no “ceiling” effect).
d. an increase in the presynaptic release of an inhibitory neurotransmitter (no “ceiling” effect).
e. Both b and c are correct

2006 exam 2 q63
e. Both b and c are correct
This drug would not be expected to lead to rebound insomnia when it is discontinued after chronic use (two or three weeks of nightly use) to treat a sleep problem because of the slow “wash-out” of an active long elimination half-life metabolite which probably accumulates during chronic use.
a. Zolpidem (Ambien)
b. Flurazepam (Dalmane; generics)
c. Lorazepam (Ativan; generics)
d. Triazolam (Halcion)
e. Zaleplon (Sonata)

2006 exam 2 q64
b. Flurazepam (Dalmane; generics)
All of the following are receptors for ligand-gated ion channels EXCEPT:
a. GABA-a
b. GABA-b
c. Nicotinic
d. NMDA
e. glycine

2005 exam 2 q60
b. GABA-b
This drug was originally developed as a centrally acting drug to treat hypertension, so when used to treat spastic skeletal muscles, its upper dose is limited by hypotension:
a. diazepam
b. dantrolene
c. metaxalone
d. tizanidine
e. methocarbamol

2005 exam 2 q62
d. tizanidine
This drug cannot be used in a person with absence (petit mal) seizures:
a. trimethadione
b. phenytoin
c. ethosuximide
d. valproic acid
e. clonazepam

2005 exam 2 q63
b. phenytoin