Pbd Exam 1

Front 1

True/False
The parasympathetic nervous system is sometimes referred to as the craniosacral division of the autonomic nervous system.

Back 1

True

Front 2

True/False
Preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system generally have longer axonal projections than those of the sympathetic nervous system.

Back 2

True

Front 3

Rods are a type of photosensitive cell in the retina. Rods contain sodium channels that are sensitive to levels of (PLC / cAMP / adenylyl cyclase / cGMP). ________________________ .

Back 3

cGMP

Front 4

There are two major driving forces that together establish the equilibrium potential for any permeant ion, these are referred to as the concentration gradient and the ______________.

Back 4

electrical gradient OR voltage gradient

Front 5

In a typical excitable cell under normal physiological conditions, which ion has a more positive equilibrium potential, Na+ or K+? _______________ .

Back 5

Na+

Front 6

In a typical excitable cell under normal physiological conditions, which ionic gradient contributes the most to the resting membrane potential, Na+ or K+?

Back 6

K+

Front 7

Which equation will predict the equilibrium potential for any single permeant ion, given the concentration gradient (Nernst / Goldman)? ______________ .

Back 7

Nernst

Front 8

True/False
Preganglionic axons running from the sacral segments of the vertebral column are sympathetic neurons.

Back 8

False. parasympathetic neurons

Front 9

True/False
Chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla release acetylcholine and epinephrine.

Back 9

False. norepinephrine and epinephrine.

Front 10

True/False
There are 13 thoracic vertebrae.

Back 10

False. There are 12 thoracic vertebrae.

Front 11

The cranial nerve that provides parasympathetic innervation to thoracic and abdominal organs is the _________________ nerve (name).

Back 11

Vagus

Front 12

Beta-adrenergic receptors are blocked by __________________.

Back 12

Propranolol

Front 13

The receptors that activate the ligand-gated ion channels found on the postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system are ___________________ cholinergic receptors.

Back 13

Nicotinic

Front 14

Cyclic AMP is synthesized from ATP by _________________.

Back 14

Adenylyl cyclase

Front 15

A kinase (adds / removes) a terminal phosphate from ATP to a specific amino acid residue, while a phosphatase (adds / removes) it.

Back 15

A kinase (adds) a terminal phosphate from ATP to a specific amino acid residue, while a phosphatase (removes) it.

Front 16

(Gs / Gq) activates PLC.

Back 16

Gq

Front 17

_____________ receptors have an extracellular ligand binding domain, a single transmembrane spanning domain, and a cytoplasmic side that can often function as a kinase or phosphatase when a ligand is bound extracellularly.

Back 17

Enzyme linked

Front 18

Voltage is created by __________ of charge.

Back 18

seperation

Front 19

The resting membrane potential of a cell is the weighted average of the ________________ of all the permeant ions.

Back 19

equilibrium potentials

Front 20

There are two main driving forces on an ion which at equilibrium are equal and opposite. These driving forces are produced by the ___________ gradient, and the _____________ gradient.

Back 20

chemical. electrical.

Front 21

In typical neurons, the concentration gradients for Na+ and K+ are such that the equilibrium potential for Na+ is much (greater than / less than) 0, while the equilibrium potential for K+ is much (greater than / less than) 0.

Back 21

In typical neurons, the concentration gradients for Na+ and K+ are such that the equilibrium potential for Na+ is much (greater than) 0, while the equilibrium potential for K+ is much (less than) 0.

Front 22

The permeability of the membrane for Na+ is higher (at rest / during the peak of an action potential), while the permeability for K+ is higher (at rest / during the peak of an action potential).

Back 22

The permeability of the membrane for Na+ is higher (during the peak of an action potential), while the permeability for K+ is higher (at rest).

Front 23

The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is sometimes also called the (thoracolumbar / craniosacral) nervous system while another name for the sympathetic division is the (thoracolumbar / craniosacral) nervous system.

Back 23

The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is sometimes also called the (craniosacral) nervous system while another name for the sympathetic division is the (thoracolumbar) nervous system.

Front 24

A compound that binds to a receptor and activates it is called a/an (agonist / antagonist / inverse agonist / competitive antagonist) _______________.

Back 24

Agonist

Front 25

Of the four major types of signalling covered in class (contact dependent / paracrine / synaptic / endocrine), which one allows rapid delivery of large concentrations of signaling molecules to very specific (and yet very distant) locations? _______________ .

Back 25

Synaptic

Front 26

A receptor that opens when bound by an external ligand, and that forms an ion selective pore through the membrane when open, is called a _________________.

Back 26

ligand gated ion channel OR ionotropic receptor

Front 27

A __________________ (G-protein/G-protein linked receptor) is typically composed of a single long polypeptide chain with 7 transmembrane domains.

Back 27

G-protein linked receptor

Front 28

1. Which of the following is a feature that IS NOT common to ALL cells?
A.Presence of a cell membrane.
B.Presence of membrane bound organelles.
C.Presence of DNA, RNA, and other proteins.
D.Ability to regulate influx and efflux of nutrients, waste produces, ions, and other materials.

Back 28

1. Which of the following is a feature that IS NOT common to ALL cells?
B.Presence of membrane bound organelles.

Front 29

True/False
2. Phospholipids are the basic building blocks of cell membranes. They have a polar tail made from carbohydrates, and a non-polar head constructed from choline, phosphate, and glycerol.

Back 29

False

Front 30

True/False
An osmotically active particle is one that interacts with water and is highly permeable to the membrane.

Back 30

False

Front 31

Which organelle contains acid hydrolases, and serves as the principal site for intracellular digestion? _____________.

Back 31

lysosomes

Front 32

If a secretory pathway requires an external signal to induce exocytosis it is referred to as a _____________.

Back 32

Regulated secretory pathway

Front 33

What type of cell to cell signalling allows for relatively slow and non-specific delivery of low concentrations of signaling molecules via the bloodstream? _____________

Back 33

endocrine

Front 34

What is the most common lethal single-gene autosomal defect in North
America? _______________

Back 34

cystic fibrosis

Front 35

The fluid that bathes the cells of the body is the _____________ fluid.

Back 35

Interstitial

Front 36

The larger of the two fluid compartments of the body is the ___________ fluid compartment.

Back 36

Intracellular

Front 37

The study of the cause of any disease or theory of its origin is referred to as ___________________.

Back 37

Etiology

Front 38

True/False
The medical term for a decrease in the number of blood platelets is thrombocytopenia.

Back 38

True

Front 39

True/False
Iatrogenic refers to the maintenance of constant conditions within the internal environment of the body.

Back 39

False. Homeostasis refers to the maintenance of constant conditions within the internal environment of the body.

Front 40

True/False
The medical term for elevated numbers of erythrocytes is polycythemia.

Back 40

True

Front 41

True/False
The average life span for platelets is several hours to one day.

Back 41

False

Front 42

List two of the three elements that are required for a functional physiological feedback system: (a)________________, (b)________________ and (c)________________.

Back 42

Sensor or receptor
Integrator or comparator
Effector system

Front 43

What would be a normal serum level of potassium in an adult: _________________.

Back 43

3.3 to 5 mEq/L

Front 44

The concept of _______________ is the study of how inherited genetic differences can influence the individual responses to drugs and may help to individualize drug therapy in the future.

Back 44

pharmacogenomics

Front 45

A somatic cell that does NOT contain a normal complement of 23 pairs of chromosomes is called a _________________ cell. This condition is a result of (process called) (b.) _______.

Back 45

aneuploid. nondisjunction.

Front 46

A pure lipid bilayer is most permeable to _________ (polar / non-polar), and thus lipid soluble, molecules.

Back 46

non-polar

Front 47

Facilitated diffusion is a synonym for __________ (active transport / passive transport).

Back 47

passive transport

Front 48

A carrier protein that transports two solutes in opposite directions is a _________ (symport / antiport).

Back 48

antiport

Front 49

An active transport mechanism that uses energy stored in the form of ATP to transport a solute against its concentration gradient would be a __________ (primary / secondary) active transport mechanism.

Back 49

primary

Front 50

Proteins are synthesized primarily in ____________ (lysosomes / ribosomes).

Back 50

ribosomes

Front 51

In eukaryotic cells, the ____________ (nucleus / Golgi apparatus) is defined by a highly impermeable double lipid bilayer.

Back 51

nucleus

Front 52

True/False
In the study of teratogenic disorders, the fetal period of development is most prone to detrimental effects of environmental agents.

Back 52

False. Embryonic period.

Front 53

True/False
In the thalidomide tragedy of the early ‘60’s the mode of action that produced the missing or malformed limbs in children was a result of an increase in a cytokine called TNF alpha.

Back 53

False. Decrease.

Front 54

True/False
The medical term for elevated numbers of all blood-cell types is pancytopenia.

Back 54

False. Decreased.

Front 55

True/False
The average life span for erythrocytes is 120 days.

Back 55

True.

Front 56

What is considered the normal hemoglobin concentration in the blood of an adult? ______________________

Back 56

12 to 17 g/dl

Front 57

The concept of ___________________ is the study of how inherited genetic differences can influence the individual responses to drugs and may help to individualize drug therapy in the future.

Back 57

pharmacogenomics

Front 58

The term ­­­­­­­­­­­­­ ________________ is one that describes the maintenance of constant conditions within the internal environment of the body.

Back 58

homeostasis

Front 59

What is the most common of all the Medelian genetic disorders in the US?

Back 59

familial hypercholesterolemia

Front 60

Name three prenatal diagonostic testing techinques that can be used for the determination of neural tube defects: ________, ________ and _______.

Back 60

A measurement of alpha fetal protein in amnionic fluid (amniocentisis) b)
measurement of alpha fetal protein in maternal blood (triple screen blood
test) or c) ultrasound.

Front 61

Pure cell membranes are more permeant to (polar / non-polar) molecules because these molecules are (hydrophilic / hydrophobic).

Back 61

Pure cell membranes are more permeant to (non-polar) molecules because these molecules are (hydrophobic).

Front 62

If a permeant molecule traverses the cell membrane without the aid of a membrane bound protein, this process is known as ______.

Back 62

passive diffusion

Front 63

A carrier protein that transports two solutes across the membrane in the same direction is called a __________.

Back 63

symport

Front 64

An __________ is a molecule that binds to a receptor and activates it.

Back 64

agonist

Front 65

The alpha subunit of a G-protein is considered active when it is bound by (GDP / GTP).

Back 65

The alpha subunit of a G-protein is considered active when it is bound by (GTP).

Front 66

The beta-gamma complex of a G-protein is considered active when it is (bound to / not bound to) an alpha subunit.

Back 66

The beta-gamma complex of a G-protein is considered active when it is (not bound to) an alpha subunit.

Front 67

True/False
A typical young-adult female would be expected to have a higher percentage of her total body weight consist of water than a typical young-adult male.

Back 67

False

Front 68

What is considered normal in an adult human for blood sodium: ___________________.

Back 68

135 – 147 mMol/L

Front 69

True/False
Body temperature and blood pressure are two homeostatic variables that are tightly regulated by negative feedback systems in order to maintain health.

Back 69

True

Front 70

True/False
Turner’s syndrome and Trisomy 21 are two cytogenetic disorders that are typically diagnosed at birth by physical signs and confirmed by karyotyping.

Back 70

False

Front 71

True/False
Aneuploidy would constitute a condition resulting in a cytogenetic disorder.

Back 71

True

Front 72

__________ literally means ‘cell eating’. It is a process by which cells can engulf large particles or entire microorganisms for subsequent breakdown and recycling.

Back 72

Phagocytosis

Front 73

_______ literally means ‘cell drinking’. It is a process by which cells can ingest small particles or compounds in solution.

Back 73

Pinocytosis

Front 74

Both phagocytosis and pinocytosis are forms of ___________.

Back 74

endocytosis

Front 75

A/An ___________ is a differentiated structure found within eukaryotic cells that performs a specific function.

Back 75

organelle

Front 76

For example __________ are the primary site of protein synthesis, and the __________ are a primary site of energy production.

Back 76

ribosomes. mitochondrion.

Front 77

Proteins may be shuttled between intracellular compartments via a process known as _______________________.

Back 77

vesicular transport

Front 78

Imagine a cell that has 100 mM Na+ and 10 mM K+ on the outside, and just the opposite (100 mM K+ and 10 mM Na+) on the inside. Further imagine that this cell has one population of open ion channels that is permeant to Na+, and a second population of open ion channels that is permeant to potassium. Then answer the following question TRUE or FALSE. The equilibrium potential for Na+ is positive of 0 mV.

Back 78

True

Front 79

Imagine a cell that has 100 mM Na+ and 10 mM K+ on the outside, and just the opposite (100 mM K+ and 10 mM Na+) on the inside. Further imagine that this cell has one population of open ion channels that is permeant to Na+, and a second population of open ion channels that is permeant to potassium. Then answer the following question TRUE or FALSE. The equilibrium potential for K+ is 0 mV.

Back 79

False

Front 80

Imagine a cell that has 100 mM Na+ and 10 mM K+ on the outside, and just the opposite (100 mM K+ and 10 mM Na+) on the inside. Further imagine that this cell has one population of open ion channels that is permeant to Na+, and a second population of open ion channels that is permeant to potassium. Then answer the following question TRUE or FALSE. The resting membrane potential for the cell equals the equilibrium potential for K+.

Back 80

False

Front 81

The smaller of the two major fluid compartments of the body is the _________________ compartment.

Back 81

Extracellular

Front 82

List the triad of signs and symptoms that are part of the characteristic syndrome for Type I Diabetes:

Back 82

Polydipsia, or polyphagia, and polyuria

Front 83

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
A. Cell membranes are constructed from phospholipid bilayers.
B. Phospholipids have a non-polar head and a polar tail.
C. Polar molecules are hydrophilic, while non-polar molecules are
hydrophobic.
D. Water is a polar solvent.
E. Both B and D are false.

Back 83

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
B. Phospholipids have a non-polar head and a polar tail.

Front 84

True/False
The approximate ratio of intracellular K+ to extracellular K+ is 1 to 30.

Back 84

False. 30 to 1.

Front 85

True/False
Of the body-fluid compartments, the intracellular compartment has the largest volume.

Back 85

True

Front 86

True/False
The total body liquid of a "typical young adult 70 Kg male" represents about 60% of his body weight.

Back 86

True

Front 87

True/False
Before one can determine if a laboratory value is "normal" one needs to know some facts about the patient and know how and when the variable under consideration was obtained.

Back 87

True

Front 88

True/False
A complication is a new or separate disease process that may arise secondarily because of some change produced by the original disease. It is not an essential part of the original disease.

Back 88

True

Front 89

True/False
If a disease is coined "congenital" this means that the manifestations of the disease will be expressed at birth.

Back 89

False

Front 90

True/False
One possible reason that heart attacks and strokes occur more frequently in the morning hours is the circadian rhythm of platelets are such that they are more "sticky" at this time of the day.

Back 90

True

Front 91

True/False
Trisomy 21, the most common of all autosomal cytogenetic live births, has numerous physical signs and symptoms, which allow for a tentative diagnosis at birth that is confirmed by karyotyping.

Back 91

True

Front 92

True/False
An individual can survive with one less autosomal chromosome than the normal 44; however, that individual will be severely handicapped.

Back 92

False. Can not survive.

Front 93

True/False
Pharmacogenomics is a science that uses genome-wide approaches to explain the inherited basis of differences between individuals and their response to drugs.

Back 93

True

Front 94

True/False
A homozygote condition is required for a recessive trait to be expressed.

Back 94

True

Front 95

True/False
An individual or tissue with at least two cell lines, differing in genotype and derived from single zygote is called mosiac.

Back 95

True

Front 96

True/False
Turner's syndrome is a condition characterized by short stature, phenotypic female with ovarian dysgenesis.

Back 96

True

Front 97

True/False
A heterozygote individual with familial hypercholesterolemia could have plasma cholesterol 2-3 fold higher than normal, which then would be about 300-400 mg/dL.

Back 97

True

Front 98

True/False
Any person who inherits an autosomal dominant gene for a disease will definitely show the phenotype of the disease.

Back 98

True

Front 99

True/False
Thalidomide, a drug was found to be teratogenic, is still used today and its mechanism of action is to increase a cytokine, TNF (tumor necrosis factor)-alpha.

Back 99

False. decrease.

Front 100

True/False
A woman underwent amniocentesis during the 16th week of gestation. The test results showed no abnormalities, thus the physician was correct in assuring the woman that her child would be born normal.

Back 100

False

Front 101

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE with regard to the concept of homeostasis or how the body maintains homeostasis:
a. Normally accomplished by the use of negative feedback systems,
b. There are three requirements for a feedback system: sensors, integrators and effectors.
c. A positive feedback system is one in which the input produces a response in the same direction,
d. Homeostasis is basically the maintenance of a constant internal environment despite the various external conditions one encounters.
e. All of the above are true
f. Only b and d are correct

Back 101

e. All of the above are true

Front 102

Which of the following statement, related to single gene defects, is FALSE?
a. A father can never pass an X-linked trait to his son.
b. A deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase results in phenylketonuria, an autosomal dominant disorder.
c. Cystic fibrosis, the most common lethal autosomal recessive disorder in North America, alters exocrine secretions throughout the body.
d. Individuals with familial hypercholesterolemia, the most common of all Mendelian disorders, is a condition resulting from lack of an LDL surface receptor,
e. For autosomal recessive disorders, if two heterozygote carriers mate there is a 25% chance that one offspring will be affected with the disorder and 50 % will be carriers.

Back 102

b. A deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase results in phenylketonuria, an autosomal dominant (recessive) disorder.

Front 103

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about Folic acid?
a. The daily recommended intake of folic acid in women of childbearing age is 400 mg and it is recommended that women increase their daily intake of folic acid to 600 mg a day once pregnancy is confirmed.
b. Most women cannot obtain enough folic acid from their diet alone.
c. If all women consumed the recommended amount of folic acid before and during early pregnancy, up to 70 percent of all NTDs could be prevented.
d. Folic acid is crucial to support the rapid growth of the placenta and fetus.
e. All of the statements are True.
f. Only a, c, and d are True

Back 103

e. All of the statements are True.

Front 104

Which of the following is/are TRUE concerning prenatal diagnosing?
a. High chorionic gonadotropin levels in the mother's serum is suggestive for Down's syndrome.
b. Level 2 ultrasonic scans can be used in the detection of cytogenetic disorders.
c. Elevated alpha fetal protein levels in the amniotic fluid are suggestive for neural tube defects.
d. Amniocentesis and chorionic villi testing can be used for the detection of neural tube defects and cytogenetic disorders.
e. All of the above are true statements
f. Only a, b, and c are true
g. Only a and c are true

Back 104

f. Only a, b, and c are true

Front 105

Which of the following statements is/are correct about teratogenesis
a. It is the study of factors related to developmental defects arising during the fetal period of development,
b. Fetal alcohol syndrome is characterized by specific craniofacial, growth and CNS abnormalities,
c. Fetal alcohol syndrome causes malnutrition and the resulting decrease in growth of the fetus,
d. Fetal alcohol syndrome, a preventable condition, is the most known teratogenic cause of mental deficiency in the western world,
e. All the above statements are true
f. Only a, and c are true
g. Only b and d are true

Back 105

g. Only b and d are true

Front 106

Which of the following are central tenants of the Cell Theory?
a. All living things are made of cells.
b. All cells are made of phospholipids.
c. Living cells come only from other living cells,
d. All cells have a nucleus that contains genetic material,
e. A and B.
f. A and C.
g. A-D are all correct.

Back 106

f. A and C.

Front 107

Which of the following are features common to all cells?
a. All cells have a membrane,
b. All cells contain genetic material,
c. All cells require energy,
d. All cells contain membrane bound organelles.
e. All of the above, except B.
f. All above E, except C.
g. All above E, except D.

Back 107

g. All above E, except D.

Front 108

Which of the following statements concerning the permeability of a pure lipid bilayer is/are TRUE? A pure lipid bilayer has :
a. High permeability to lipid soluble compounds,
b. High permeability to water soluble compounds.
c. All else being equal, greater permeability to polar vs. non-polar molecules,
d. All else being equal, greater permeability to non-polar vs. polar molecules,
e. A and D.
f. B and C.
g. A and C.

Back 108

e. A and D.

Front 109

O2, CO2, Ni, and benzene are all good examples of:
a. Hydrophobic non-polar molecules,
b. Small polar molecules.
c. Things that will not pass through the membrane via passive diffusion,
d. Things that will pass through the membrane via active transport,
e. Things that smell bad.

Back 109

a. Hydrophobic non-polar molecules.

Front 110

28. Which of the following represents a correct list of compounds arranged by decreasing permeability to a pure lipid bilayer? (i.e. compound 1 > compound 2 > compound 3' means compound 1 is the most permeable to a pure lipid bilayer (i.e with no membrane bound proteins) and compound 3 is the least permeable):
a. Glucose > H20 > O2
b. Na+>O2>glycerol
c. O2 > sucrose > Na+
d. N2>Na+>CO2
e. All the above are wrong.

Back 110

c. O2 > sucrose > Na+

Front 111

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
a. Simple diffusion of solutes through the lipid bilayer requires membrane bound proteins.
b. Facilitated diffusion requires energy.
c. Active transport involves moving a solute across the membrane against its concentration gradient,
d. A and B.
e. B and C.

Back 111

c. Active transport involves moving a solute across the membrane against its
concentration gradient.

Front 112

Which of the following is a membrane bound protein capable of moving two solutes across the membrane in the same direction?
a. Uniport
b. Multiport
c. Symport
d. Antiport
e. Superport

Back 112

c. Symport

Front 113

Which of the following is an example of primary active transport:
a. Transport of glucose into the gut using the glucose carrier,
b. Transport of Na+ out of the cell and K+ into the cell using the Na+ / K+ pump,
c. Transport of ions into or out of the cell through an open ion channel (and
according to their electrochemical gradient).
d. Transport of your body from your home to the classroom.

Back 113

b. Transport of Na+ out of the cell and K+ into the cell using the Na+ / K+ pump.

Front 114

Which of the following is the best definition of an osmotically active particle?
a. Something that can permeate the lipid bilayer, but is impermeant to ligand gated ion channels.
b. Something that is small, non-polar, and lipid permeable,
c. Something that interacts with water, but is impermeable to the membrane,
d. Something that interacts with the membrane but is insoluble in water,
e. A ligand that binds and unbinds from a receptor very rapidly.

Back 114

c. Something that interacts with water, but is impermeable to the membrane.

Front 115

Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. A hypertonic solution has a high solute concentration.
b. A hypotonic solution has a low solute concentration.
c. If the extracellular solution is hypertonic, water will leave a cell causing it to shrink.
d. If an extracellular solution is hypotonic, water will enter the cell causing it to swell.
e. All of the above.
f. None of the above.
g. A and B, but not C or D.

Back 115

e. All of the above.

Front 116

Which of the following statements are accurate concerning ways that endocytosis and exocytosis differ from diffusion, passive transport, and active transport?
a. Endocytosis and exocytosis require energy, while none of the transport mechanisms do.
b. Endocytosis and exocytosis require membrane bound proteins to transfer impermeant molecules across the cell membrane, like active transport, but unlike simple diffusion,
c. Endocytosis and exocytosis do not use membrane bound proteins to directly transport molecules through the lipid bilayer, while both passive and active transport mechanisms do.
d. Endocytosis and exocytosis only occur in humans and higher primates, while transport mechanisms are found in all types of multicellular organisms

Back 116

c. Endocytosis and exocytosis do not use membrane bound proteins to directly transport molecules through the lipid bilayer, while both passive and active transport mechanisms do.

Front 117

The process by which large particles or even entire microorganisms may be engulfed by eukaryotic cells is called (NOTE; choose the most specific answer).
a. Exocytosis
b. Endocytosis
c. Pinocytosis
d. Phagocytosis
e. Synaptotosis

Back 117

Phagocytosis

Front 118

Binding of LDL to LDL receptors in the cell membrane increases the affinity of the LDL receptors for:
a. LDL
b. Phospholipids (i.e. the membrane)
c. Each Other
d. cAMP
e. DAG

Back 118

c. Each Other

Front 119

Which of the following statements is/are accurate concerning the differences between constitutive and regulated exocytotic pathways?
a. Constitutive exocytotic pathways release all of the constituents that are stored inside vesicles, while regulated exocytotic pathways release some constituents from inside the vesicles and retain others,
b. Constitutive exocytotic pathways require an external signal before exocytosis
occurs, while regulated exocytotic pathways do not.
c. Regulated exocytotic pathways require an external signal before exocytosis occurs, while constitutive exocytotic pathways do not.
d. AandC
e. AandB

Back 119

c. Regulated exocytotic pathways require an external signal before exocytosis occurs, while constitutive exocytotic pathways do not.

Front 120

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE regarding cytosolic / nuclear receptors?
a. Generally bind to small, polar, hydrophilic molecules,
b. Generally bind to small, nonpolar, hydrophobic molecules,
c. Are often bound by neurotransmitters.
d. Are often bound by hormones,
e. Open a pore for ions to go through,
f. AandC.
g. BandD.
h. None of the above.

Back 120

g. B and D.

Front 121

Which type of receptor is usually constructed from five distinct subunits, each of which is an independent gene product?
a. lonotropic receptors,
b. Metabatropic receptors,
c. Cytosolic / Nuclear receptors,
d. Enzyme linked receptors,
e. None of the above.

Back 121

a. lonotropic receptors

Front 122

When is the alpha subunit of a G-protein active?
a. When it is attached to the beta-gamma complex,
b. When it is attached to the G-protein receptor,
c. When it is bound by GDP.
d. Only when all of the above are true,
e. None of the above is correct.

Back 122

e. None of the above is correct.

Front 123

When is the beta-gamma complex of a G-protein potentially active?
a. When it is attached to an active alpha subunit.
b. When it is attached to an inactive alpha subunit.
c. When it is not attached to the alpha subunit.
d. Choice A is true, but only if that active alpha subunit is also attached to a G-
protein receptor,
e. None of the above is correct.

Back 123

c. When it is not attached to the alpha subunit.

Front 124

Which of the following statements accurately describes events that might occur subsequent to activation of PLC?
a. cAMP concentration will increase, leading to activation of PKA.
b. cAMP concentration will decrease, leading to reduction in concentration of active PKA.
c. Phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate will be broken down into two active signaling molecules : cAMP and IP3.
d. Phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate will be broken down into two active signaling molecules : IP3 and DAG
e. Phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate will be broken down into two active signaling molecules : cAMP and DAG.

Back 124

d. Phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate will be broken down into two active signaling molecules : IP3 and DAG

Front 125

Which of the following G-protein receptors ultimately cause changes in cytosolic levels of cAMP?
a. Gs and Gq
b. Gs and Gi
c. Gq and Gt
d. Gs only.

Back 125

b. Gs and Gi

Front 126

Which intracellular signaling molecule is capable of motivating release of calcium from intracellular calcium stores (e.g. like those in the smooth ER)?
a. DAG
b. cAMP
c. IP3
d. PKA
e. XYZ

Back 126

c. IP3

Front 127

Imagine a cell that has only one type of membrane bound protein, a constitutively open ion channel, selective for just one ion, a cation called I+. Now imagine that the concentration of I outside the cell ([I+]o) is 10 fold higher than the concentration of I+ inside the cell ([I+]i).
Given the above information, the equilibrium potential for I+ (e.g. ei*) will be :
a. Greater than 0 mV.
b. Less than 0 mV.
c. Equal to OmV.
e. Unknown. It's not possible to calculate the equilibrium potential for I+ using the information provided.

Back 127

a. Greater than 0 mV.

Front 128

Imagine a cell that has only one type of membrane bound protein, a constitutively open ion channel, selective for just one ion, a cation called I+. Now imagine that the concentration of I outside the cell ([I+]o) is 10 fold higher than the concentration of I+ inside the cell ([I+]i).
What would happen if we suddenly doubled the number of channels for I+?
a. The equilibrium potential for I+ would get more positive,
b. The equilibrium potential for I+ would get more negative,
c. The conductance for I+ would be greater but the equilibrium potential wouldn't change,
d. The resistance to current carried by I+ would be greater AND the equilibrium potential would be 0 mV.
e. All the I+ would evaporate and the solutions would become hypotonic.

Back 128

c. The conductance for I* would be greater but the equilibrium potential wouldn't change,

Front 129

Imagine a cell that has only one type of membrane bound protein, a constitutively open ion channel, selective for just one ion, a cation called I+. Now imagine that the concentration of I outside the cell ([I+]o) is 10 fold higher than the concentration of I+ inside the cell ([I+]i). Now imagine a second type of membrane bound protein is added to the membrane, a constitutively open ion channel selective for just one cation, Z+. Further imaging that Z+ has a concentration gradient exactly opposite that of I+. In other words [Z*]j = [I^o and [Z+]0=[I+]i. Note: this also means that [Z?]\\ is ten times greater than [Z?]0.
Given all the information above, what can you say about the resting membrane potential of the cell?
a. It will be closer to the equilibrium potential for I+ (e.g. ei+) than to the
equilibrium potential for Z+ (e.g. Ez4).
b. It will be closer to ez+ than to ei+.
c. It will be the average of Ez+ and ei+.
d. It will be OmV.
e. C and D are correct,
f. This question can't be answered with the information provided.

Back 129

f. This question can't be answered with the information provided.

Front 130

Early theories about excitable cells involved the notion that upon excitation cell membranes became generally permeable, resulting in a large but transient voltage drop across the membrane. When an action potential was first recorded, there was one simple feature that, above all others, provided an extremely strong argument that the 'general permeability theory' of excitation was wrong. What was that feature?
a. The resting potential was very close to the equilibrium potential for K+.
b. The threshold was around -40 mV.
c. There was an afterhyperpolarization that was more negative than rest,
d. There was a peak that was more positive than 0 mV.
e. The whole thing took less than 30 msec.

Back 130

d. There was a peak that was more positive than 0 mV.

Front 131

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE regarding permeability of the
membrane to Na+ and K+ during an action potential? Note pK+ means permeability
of the membrane to K+, and pNa+ means permeability of the membrane to Na+.
a. At rest pNa+ is much greater than pK+.
b. At rest pK+ is much greater than pNa+.
C. At peak pNa+ is much greater than pK+.
d. At peak pK+ is much greater than pNa+.
e. BandC.
f. AandD.
g. BandD.

Back 131

e. BandC.

Front 132

Which of the following list of features is/are NOT TRUE regarding the parasympathetic nervous system?
a. Generally associated with features described as "rest and digest",
b. Preganglionic neurons release ACh onto muscarinic acetylcholine receptors expressed by the postganglionic neurons,
c. Targets a wide range of visceral organs,
d. Sometimes is referred to as the craniosacral nervous system,
e. A-D are all false,
f. A-D are all true.

Back 132

b. Preganglionic neurons release ACh onto muscarinic acetylcholine receptors expressed by the postganglionic neurons,

Front 133

Which of the following list of features is NOT TRUE regarding the sympathetic nervous system?
a. It is more generally targeted than the parasympathetic nervous system,
b. Some postganglionic neurons release ACh.
c. Axons of preganglionic neurons are long compared to axons of parasympathetic preganglionic neurons,
d. Innervates the sweat glands,
e. A-D are all false,
f. A-D are all true.

Back 133

c. Axons of preganglionic neurons are long compared to axons of parasympathetic preganglionic neurons,

Front 134

Which of the following statements about noradrenergic systems is FALSE?
a. Norepinephrine is an agonist for adrenergic receptors,
b. Epinephrine is an agonist for adrenergic receptors,
c. Norepinephrine is synaptically released from postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system,
d. Epinephrine is synaptically released from postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system.
e. Norepinephrine is released from the adrenal medulla,
f. Epinephrine is released from the adrenal medulla.

Back 134

d. Epinephrine is synaptically released from postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system.

Front 135

Which of the following statements regarding adrenergic receptors is/are TRUE?
a. a-l is expressed postsynaptically and activates PLC.
b. a-l is expressed postsynaptically and activates adenylyl cyclase.
c. a-2 is often expressed presynaptically on noradrenergic terminals and acts to reduce subsequent release of norepinephrine.
d. B-2 receptors are expressed primarily in the heart,
e. a-l, a-2, B-1, and B-2 are all metabotropic
f. A, C and E are true,
g. B and D are true.

Back 135

f. A, C and E are true,

Front 136

Chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla release certain compounds into the bloodstream in response to :
a. Synaptic input from parasympathetic preganglionic fibers,
b. Synaptic input from sympathetic preganglionic fibers,
c. Synaptic input from parasympathetic postganglionic fibers,
d. Synaptic input from sympathetic postganglionic fibers,
e. ACh released from a-motor neurons.

Back 136

b. Synaptic input from sympathetic preganglionic fibers,

Front 137

In addition to acetylcholine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine, there is another major class of signaling molecules that have an enormous role in autonomic function. These molecules are often co-released in vesicles with synaptically released transmitter. They are broadly referred to as:
a. Vitamins.
b. Autonomic agents.
c. Heavy metals.
d. Neuropeptides.
e. Protein kinases.
f. Protein phosphatases.

Back 137

d. Neuropeptides.

Front 138

Which organelle contains acid hydrolases?

Back 138

Lysosomes

Front 139

Which organelle is sometimes considered the 'traffic center' of the cell, especially with regards to exocytotic pathways?

Back 139

Golgi Apparatus

Front 140

Which organelle has a membrane composed of two lipid bilayers, punctuated by large but tightly regulated pores.

Back 140

Nucleus

Front 141

Which organelle is closely associated with ribosomes, and involved in the synthesis of membrane bound, lysosomal, and secretory proteins?

Back 141

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

Front 142

Which of the following statements regarding folic acid is/are TRUE:
a. The body more readily absorbs folic acid from vitamin supplements and fortified foods than folate from food,
b. All breakfast cereals are now fortified to contain 100 percent of the
recommended daily intake of folic acid.
c. Cooking and storage can destroy some of the folate found in legumes and leafy
green vegetables,
d. Nearly 2 of every 3 women of childbearing age in the United States take the recommended amount of folic acid daily,
e. All of the above statements are True
f. Only a and c are true
g. Only b and d are true

Back 142

f. Only a and c are true

Front 143

Asthma displays a distinctive day/night pattern of occurrences and exacerbations. Which of the following possible reasons may be responsible for this observation?
a. Cortisol is at its circadian high level when attacks are most severe,
b. There is a circadian secretion for catecholamines. These levels are down when attacks are most severe.
c. The mucociliary clearance system is most active when attacks are most severe,
d. There is no day/night pattern for asthma.

Back 143

b. There is a circadian secretion for catecholamines. These levels are down when attacks are most severe.

Front 144

If the equilibrium potential on a monovalent cation (such as Na+ or K+) is -60 mV, which of the following is the best estimate of the equilibrium potential for a divalent cation (such as Mg2+ or Ca2+) with the exact same concentration gradient? NOTE: Assume that for both these ions there are selective ion channels present in the membrane with non-zero conductance.
a. -60 mV
b. -30 mV
c. -90 mV
d. -120 mV
e. 0 mV

Back 144

b. -30 mV

Front 145

As the diameter of an unmyelinated axon increases propagation of an action potential along an axon will get faster. Considered in more detail this is because: Note: ra = axial resistance Cm = capacitance of the membrane.
a. ra decreases, Cm decreases, ra*Cm decreases,
b. ra increases, Cm increases, ra*cm increases,
c. ra decreases, Cm increases, ra*Cm decreases,
d. ra decreases, Cm increases, ra*Cm increases,
e. ra increases, Cm decreases, ra*Cm decreases.

Back 145

c. ra decreases, Cm increases, ra*Cm decreases,

Front 146

True/False
The prevertebral nuclei contain some cell bodies of presynaptic sympathetic neurons.

Back 146

False

Front 147

True/False
Interneurons are any neuron in a chain of neurons that is situated between a primary sensory neuron and the final motorneuron.

Back 147

True

Front 148

True/False
Chromaffin cells are stimulated via adrenergic receptors.

Back 148

False. sympathetic preganglionic fibers.

Front 149

True/False
Cholinergic stimulation of the iris causes constriction of the pupil.

Back 149

True

Front 150

True/False
The sensory neurons of the autonomic nervous system consists of the visceral sensory neurons.

Back 150

False

Front 151

True/False
alpha-adrenergic receptors are more powerfully activated by norepinephrine (NE) than
by epinephrine.

Back 151

True

Front 152

True/False
Parasympathetic stimulation causes contraction of the piloerector muscles.

Back 152

False. Sympathetic.

Front 153

True/False
Cranial nerve X (ten) contains postganglionic axons of the parasympathetic nervous
system.

Back 153

False. preganglionic.

Front 154

True/False
The total body liquid of a "typical young adult 70 kg male" represents about 40% of his body weight.

Back 154

False

Front 155

True/False
The hematocrit for an average male is usually higher than for an average female.

Back 155

True

Front 156

True/False
Pathophysiology would be the term that best describes the course that a disease takes (or its evolution) from start to finish.

Back 156

False. Pathogenesis.

Front 157

True/False
A characteristic of health is the ability of the body to respond to threats against the homeostasis of the system

Back 157

True

Front 158

True/False
Respiratory rate and body temperature are two variables that are regulated and contain all the components of a negative feedback system.

Back 158

False

Front 159

True/False
Before one can determine if a laboratory value is "normal" one needs to know some facts about the patient and know how and when the variable under consideration was obtained.

Back 159

True

Front 160

True/False
An example of a complication of a disease would be bacterial pneumonia following influenza.

Back 160

True

Front 161

True/False
All the following are considered symptoms: nausea, earache, pain with urination,
high blood pressure, rash.

Back 161

False

Front 162

True/False
One reason that the risk of heart attacks and stroke are higher in the morning is that there is a circadian rhythm in coronary flow and oxygen demand, with coronary flow lower in the arm and oxygen demand higher (since BP and HR are elevated).

Back 162

True

Front 163

True/False
The number of white blood cells (WBC) may vary by as much as 50% over a 24 hour
period. Knowledge of this circadian fluctuation is very important in the susceptibility to disease, diagnosis of a disease and the response to therapy.

Back 163

True

Front 164

True/False
While taking a patient history, the nurse notes that a patient has brown eyes and brown hair. This is an example of a phenotype.

Back 164

True

Front 165

True/False
The most lethal autosomal recessive genetic disorder is familial hypercholesterolemia, which is characterized by a defective membrane receptor.

Back 165

False

Front 166

True/False
Preganglionic parasympathetic nerve cell bodies involved with the urinary and reproductive systems are located in sacral nuclei of spinal cord segments S2 to S4.

Back 166

True

Front 167

True/False
The sympathetic nervous system is also called the thoracosacral nervous system.

Back 167

False

Front 168

True/False
The preganglionic axons of the sympathetic nervous system leave the CNS with somatic spinal nerves T-1 thru L-2.

Back 168

True

Front 169

In real excitable cells, the action potential is based on rapidly changing and selective ionic conductances such that:
a. At peak, the permeability to Na+ exceeds the permeability to K .
b. At rest, the permeability to K+ exceeds the permeability to Na+ .
c. At peak, the permeability to K+ exceeds the permeability to Na+ .
d. A and B.
e. B and C.

Back 169

d. A and B.

Front 170

Which of the following statements about amniocentesis and chorionic villi testing are TRUE:
a. Both techniques can have the capability of determining some single gene defects.
b. Both are prenatal techniques that are used to diagnose neural tube defects.
c. Both tests can be performed effectively in the first 12-14 weeks of pregnancy.
d. Both tests can provide the parents answers for the cytogenetic testing within 24 hours.
e. Only a and c are true statements.

Back 170

a. Both techniques can have the capability of determining some single gene defects.

Front 171

Which of the following statement(s) is/are FALSE:
a. Turner's syndrome and Trisomy 21 are examples of cytogenetic disorders that are diagnosed at birth by physical signs and confirmed with a karyotyping.
b. An individual or tissue with at least two cell lines, differing in genotype and derived from single zygote is called mosaic.
c. Down's syndrome is associated with a decrease in AFP and an increase in the placental hormone human chorionic gonadotropin.
d. Pharmacogenomics is the study of how inherited genetic differences in humans influence individual responses to drugs.
d. Individuals that are heterozygose for familial hypercholesterolemia have cholesterol levels that are about 2-3 fold higher than normal.

Back 171

a. Turner's syndrome and Trisomy 21 are examples of cytogenetic disorders that are diagnosed at birth by physical signs and confirmed with a karyotyping.

Front 172

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true:
a. Nondisjunction is the process by which chromosomes fail to separate normally in mitosis or meiosis and can result in a cytogenetic disorder.
b. Teratogenic agents have their most pronounced effect during the embryonic period of development.
c. Individuals with Down's syndrome are at an increased tendency for developing Alzheimer's disease and/or leukemia.
d. All the above are true
e. Only a and c are true

Back 172

d. All the above are true

Front 173

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true:
a. If a person inherits an autosomal dominant gene for a disease, they will always exhibit the phenotype of the disease.
b. A genetically normal male is always hemizygous for genes on the X chromosome.
c. Marfan's syndrome is a cytogenetic disorder characterized by cardiovascular and skeletal disorders.
d. All the above are correct
e. Only a and b are correct

Back 173

e. Only a and b are correct

Front 174

The infectious agents most frequently implicated in fetal abnormalities are:
a. Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C
b. Tetanus, measles, mumps and rubella
c. Polio and diarrheal diseases.
d. Toxoplasmosis, rubella, cytomegalovirus and herpes

Back 174

d. Toxoplasmosis, rubella, cytomegalovirus and herpes

Front 175

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true:
a. Children born with fetal alcohol syndrome are smaller than normal but with adequate nutrition will obtain normal size during the first few years of life.
b. Most autosomal dominant disorders are characterized by a defect in a structural gene.
c. A triple screen blood test performed in the 10-12th week of gestation measures the concentrations of alpha fetal protein, chorionic gonadotropins, and testosterone in the fetal blood.
d. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by a defect in a transmembrane conductance regulator and is considered an endocrine disorder.
e. None of the above are true.

Back 175

b. Most autosomal dominant disorders are characterized by a defect in a structural gene.

Front 176

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding folic acid:
a. All women of childbearing age are recommended to consume 0.4 mg of folic acid in order to reduce the incidence of births with neural tube defects.
b. Once pregnant, it is recommended that women increase their daily intake of folic acid to 600 mcg a day.
c. Studies have shown that women who have had a previous child with a neural tube defect that consumed 4 mg of folic acid daily during their pregnancy, reduced the risk of having another affected pregnancy by nearly 70%.
d. Foods such as orange juice, leafy green vegetables, and red meat all contain high concentrations of folates.
e. Several studies suggest that folic acid may prevent birth defects by correcting a nutrition deficiency or compensate for some inborn error involved in the processing of folates.

Back 176

d. Foods such as orange juice, leafy green vegetables, and red meat all contain high concentrations of folates.

Front 177

A cell is the basic structural unit of all living things. Which of the following statements is true with respect to all living cells?
a. All cells have a cell membrane.
b. All cells have a nucleus.
c. All cells require a supply of energy.
d. All cells contain genetic material.
e. All of the above are true, except B.

Back 177

e. All of the above are true, except B.

Front 178

Cell membranes are made of phospholipids. Which of the following statements regarding membrane structure is true?
a. Phospholipids have a polar head and a non-polar tail.
b. Phospholipids have a non-polar head and a polar tail.
c. The head of a phospholipid is hydrophilic.
d. The tail of a phospholipid is hydrophobic.
e. All of the above are true, except B.

Back 178

e. All of the above are true, except B.

Front 179

Phospholipid bilayers are relatively permeable to some solutes and relatively impermeable to others. Consider the following statements regarding relative permeability of a pure lipid bilayer to various solutes via simple diffusion. Which is true?
a. Phospholipid bilayers are highly permeable to small non-polar molecules.
b. Phospholipid bilayers are highly permeable to ions in solution.
c. Phospholipid bilayers are highly permeable to small polar molecules.
d. All other things being equal, phospholipid bilayers are more permeable to polar solutes than non-polar ones.
e. All of the above are true, except B.

Back 179

a. Phospholipid bilayers are highly permeable to small non-polar molecules.

Front 180

Which of the following processes is capable of moving a solute across the membrane against its concentration gradient?
a. Simple Diffusion.
b. Passive Transport.
c. Active Transport.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

Back 180

c. Active Transport.

Front 181

Which of the following statements is true regarding the Na+/K+ pump?
a. It uses metabolic energy stored in ATP to transport 3 Na+ ions out of the cell for every 2 K+ ions transported into the cell.
b. It is an example of an active transport mechanism.
c. It plays an important role in regulating osmolarity.
d. It is necessary for long term maintenance of the normal Na+ and K+ gradients.
e. All of the above.

Back 181

e. All of the above.

Front 182

The glucose carrier uses energy stored in the Na+ gradient to transport glucose against its concentration gradient. This mechanism of transport may be described as:
a. Complex diffusion.
b. Secondary active transport.
c. Primary active transport.
d. Facilitated diffusion.
e. Simple diffusion.

Back 182

b. Secondary active transport.

Front 183

Which of the following organelles has a highly specialized membrane that consists of two lipid bilayers?
a. The endoplasmic reticulum.
b. The Golgi Apparatus.
c. Ribosomes
d. The nucleus.
e. A and B.

Back 183

d. The nucleus.

Front 184

Which of the following statements are true regarding lysosomes?
a. They are the principle sites of intracellular digestion.
b. They contain enzymes that break down macromolecules, but only at acidic pH.
c. Lysosomal enzymes are delivered to lysosomes from the Golgi apparatus via vesicular transport.
d. All of the above are true.
e. None of the above are true.

Back 184

d. All of the above are true.

Front 185

Which type of signaling between cells is best suited to allow very specifically targeted and very rapid delivery of highly concentrated signaling molecules at a large
distance from the cell body of the source cell?
a. Paracrine signaling.
b. Endocrine signaling.
c. Synaptic signaling.
d. Contact Dependent signaling.
e. A and C both meet these parameters.

Back 185

c. Synaptic signaling.

Front 186

Which type of receptor is activated primarily by small, nonpolar, hydrophobic signaling molecules such as steroid hormones, thyroid hormones, and vitamin D?
a. Ion channel linked.
b. G-Protein linked.
c. Enzyme linked.
d. Cytosolic / Nuclear.
e. A, B and C.

Back 186

d. Cytosolic / Nuclear

Front 187

Which type of receptor creates a pore in the membrane when open?
a. Ion channel linked.
b. G-Protein linked.
c. Enzyme linked.
d. Cytosolic / Nuclear.
e. A and C.

Back 187

a. Ion channel linked.

Front 188

Which type of receptor is usually constructed of a single long membrane bound protein with 7 membrane spanning regions?
a. Ion channel linked.
b. G-Protein linked.
c. Enzyme linked.
d. Cytosolic / Nuclear.
e. None of the above.

Back 188

b. G-Protein linked.

Front 189

When activated, trimeric G-proteins dissociate into:
a. An alpha subunit with GTP bound, a beta subunit, and a gamma subunit.
b. An alpha subunit with GDP bound, a beta subunit, and a gamma subunit.
c. An alpha subunit with GTP bound, and a beta-gamma complex.
d. An alpha subunit with GDP bound, and a beta-gamma complex.
e. G-proteins are active as trimeric complexes (no dissociation necessary).

Back 189

c. An alpha subunit with GTP bound, and a beta-gamma complex.

Front 190

Activity of G-proteins is terminated by:
a. Hydrolysis of GTP bound to the alpha subunit, and subsequent binding of the inactive alpha subunit to the beta-gamma complex.
b. Binding of GTP to the alpha subunit and subsequent binding of the alpha subunit to the beta-gamma complex.
c. Phosphorylation of serine andlor threonine residues on a target protein.
d. Breakdown of cyclic AMP by cyclic AMP phosphodiesterases.
e. Reassociation of the beta subunit and the gamma subunit.

Back 190

a. Hydrolysis of GTP bound to the alpha subunit, and subsequent binding of the inactive alpha subunit to the beta-gamma complex.

Front 191

What is cyclic AMP?
a. A second messenger activated by G-proteins.
b. A nearly ubiquitous, small, intracellular signaling molecule synthesized from ATP by protein kinase A, and capable of activating adenylyl cyclase.
c. A nearly ubiquitous, small, intracellular signaling molecule synthesized from ATP by adenylyl cylcase, and capable of activating protein kinase A.
d. A first messenger capable of activating G-protein linked receptors.
e. A and C.

Back 191

e. A and C.

Front 192

What is phospholipase C?
a. A membrane bound enzyme activated by a G-protein called Gq.
b. An enzyme that breaks down phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphateto form IP3.
c. An enzyme that leads to activation of protein kinase A.
d. A and B.
e. A and C.

Back 192

d. A and B.

Front 193

Which of the following is an incorrect representation of Ohm's Law?
a. Voltage = Current * Resistance
b. Current = Voltage * Resistance
c. Current = Voltage * Conductance
d. Voltage = Current / Conductance
e. Conductance = Current / Voltage

Back 193

b. Current = Voltage * Resistance

Front 194

All other things being equal, the speed of action potential propagation down an axon may be increased by:
a. Decreasing the axial resistance of the axon.
b. Decreasing the capacitance of the membrane.
c. Myelination of the axon.
d. A and C.
e. All of the above.

Back 194

e. All of the above.

Front 195

Imagine a cell that has 100 mM Na+ and 10 mM K+ on the outside, and just the opposite (100 mM K+ and 10 mM Na+) on the inside. Further imagine that this cell has one
population of open ion channels that is permeant to Na+, and a second population of open ion channels that is permeant to potassium.
Given the conditions described above, which of the following statements is true?
a. The equilibrium potential for Na+ equals the resting membrane potential for the cell.
b. The equilibrium potential for Na+ is negative (smaller than zero).
c. The equilibrium potential for Na+ will be reached only when the concentration gradient for Na+ becomes zero.
d. The equilibrium potential for Na' is best predicted by the Goldman equation.
e. None of the above are true.

Back 195

e. None of the above are true.

Front 196

Imagine a cell that has 100 mM Na+ and 10 mM K+ on the outside, and just the opposite (100 mM K+ and 10 mM Na+) on the inside. Further imagine that this cell has one population of open ion channels that is permeant to Na+, and a second population of open ion channels that is permeant to potassium. Given the conditions described above, plus the additional information that the permeability to Na+ is 10X greater than the permeability to potassium, which of the following statements is true?
a. The resting membrane potential for the cell is closer to the equilibrium potential for Na+ than it is to the equilibrium potential for K+.
b. The resting membrane potential for the cell is closer to the equilibrium potential for K+ than it is to the equilibrium potential for Na+.
c. The resting membrane potential for the cell may be accurately predicted with the Nernst equation.
d. A and C are true.
e. B and C are true.

Back 196

a. The resting membrane potential for the cell is closer to the equilibrium potential for Na+ than it is to the equilibrium potential for K+.

Front 197

Imagine a cell that has 100 mM Na+ and 10 mM K+ on the outside, and just the opposite (100 mM K+ and 10 mM Na+) on the inside. Further imagine that this cell has one
population of open ion channels that is permeant to Na+, and a second population of open ion channels that is permeant to potassium. How could you modify the conditions described above to ensure that the resting membrane potential will be precisely equal to the equilibrium potential for K+?
a. Increase both the external and internal K+ concentration.
b. Double the number of membrane bound ion channels that are permeant to K+.
c. Remove all the Na+ permeant ion channels from the membrane.
d. Decrease both external and internal Na' concentration.
e. A, B, and D.

Back 197

c. Remove all the Na+ permeant ion channels from the membrane.

Front 198

The ratio of intracellular to extracellular potassium is about:
a. 1 to 10
b. 10 to 1
c. 30 to 1
d. 1 to 30
e. none of the above

Back 198

c. 30 to 1

Front 199

The fluid that bathes the cells of the body is referred to as:
a. intravascular fluid
b. interstitial fluid
c. transcellular fluid
d. plasma
e. synovial fluid

Back 199

b. interstitial fluid

Front 200

Concerning the parasympathetic division of the ANS, which of the following is FALSE:
a. it is a less widely distributed motor system
b. preganglionic axons in cranial nerves 111, VII, and IX synapse on postganglionic neurons in the cranial nerve ganglia
c. preganglionic axons in cranial nerve X synapse on ganglia in or near the walls of target organs
d. some preganglionic axons synapse on neurons of the enteric nervous system
e. all of the above are true (this is not a double negative)

Back 200

e. all of the above are true (this is not a double negative)

Front 201

Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning preganglionic sympathetic axons. Upon reaching the paravertebral sympathetic ganglia:
a. some synapse on postganglionic neurons
b. some turn and run in the sympathetic chain to synapse on a ganglion at another
c. some continue through a splanchnic nerve to synapse in a prevertebral (collateral) ganglion
d. some continue through a splanchnic nerve to synapse on a chromaffin cell
e. all of the above are true (not a double negative)

Back 201

e. all of the above are true (this is not a double negative)

Front 202

Which of the following is NOT part of the autonomic reflex elicited in response to exposure to cold:
a. input from higher centers of the CNS concerning surface and core temperature
b. piloerection
c. cutaneous vasoconstriction
d. shivering to increase heat production
e. all of the above (not a double negative)

Back 202

d. shivering to increase heat production

Front 203

When counseling a patient regarding alpha-fetal protein (AFP) testing and folic acid, the nurse would be correct in stating:
a. Cooking and storage can destroy some of the folate in foods
b. AFP is normally measured in the maternal urine
c. Increased AFP indicates the fetus has Down's Syndrome
d. All cereals are now fortified with folic acid so that one bowl of any cereal will contain 100% of the daily requirement of folic acid.
e. A and C are correct

Back 203

a. Cooking and storage can destroy some of the folate in foods

Front 204

Sympathetic stimulation of organs/tissues of the head is via postganglionic sympathetic neurons that have their cell bodies located in:
a. a cranial nerve ganglia
b. superior cervical ganglion
c. paravertebral ganglia
d. celiac ganglion
e. none of the above

Back 204

b. superior cervical ganglion

Front 205

True/False
It has been suggested that folic acid, in addition to its action to prevent certain birth defects, can help produce the additional blood cells needed during pregnancy.

Back 205

True