Patient Care #2

Front 1

1. WHAT MORALLY BINDS YOU TO CERTAIN RESPONSIBILITIES AND RULES THAT ARE
INCLUDED IN THE SCIENCE OF HEALTH CARE ETHICS?
A. HOSPITAL CORPSMAN PLEDGE
B. HM RATE TRAINING MANUAL
C. NAVPERS 18068
D. OATH OF ALLEGIANCE

Back 1

A. HOSPITAL CORPSMAN PLEDGE

Front 2

2. WHICH OF THE BELOW WOULD BE AN EXAMPLE OF AN OBJECTIVE SYMPTOM?
A. HEADACHE
B. SWELLING
C. DIZZINESS
D. NAUSEA

Back 2

B. SWELLING

Front 3

3. THE WATER INSIDE A HOT WATER BOTTLE MUST NEVER EXCEED?
A. 110 F
B. 115 F
C. 120 F
D. 125 F

Back 3

D. 125 F

Front 4

4. ALL ARTICLES STERILIZED IN COTTON MUSLIN WRAPPERS AND SEALED IN PLASTIC MUST
BE USED WITHIN HOW MANY CALENDAR DAY’S?
A. 28
B. 30
C. 90
D. 180

Back 4

D. 180

Front 5

5. WHAT PHYSICAL METHOD OF STERILIZATION MUST ATTAIN A TEMPERATURE OF 320 F TO
160 C, AND THE TIME PERIOD MUST BE AT LEAST TWO HOURS?
A. ETO STERILIZATION
B. ETHYLENE OXIDE GAS
C. DRY HEAT
D. STEAM UNDER PRESSURE

Back 5

C. DRY HEAT

Front 6

6. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS/ARE PRACTICAL STERILIZATION TIME PERIOD(S)?
A. 3 MINUTES AT 270 F
B. 8 MINUTES AT 257 F
C. 18 MINUTES AT 245 F
D. ALL THE ABOVE

Back 6

D. ALL THE ABOVE

Front 7

7. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING GLUTARALDEHYDE, THE ONLY
LIQUID CHEMICAL STERILIZING AGENT?
A. MOST EFFECTIVE METHOD OF CHEMICAL STERILIZATION AVAILABLE
B. MUST BE TOTALLY SUBMERGED IN SOLUTION FOR 10 HOURS
C. ITEM TO BE STERILIZED MUST BE CLEANED AND RINSED WITH STERILE WATER OR
STERILE NORMAL SALINE
D. EXTREMELY TOXIC TO SKIN AND MUCOUS MEMBRANES

Back 7

A. MOST EFFECTIVE METHOD OF CHEMICAL STERILIZATION AVAILABLE

Front 8

8. WHAT TYPE OF SUTURE MATERIAL (IF OPENED) MAY BE STERILIZED?
A. ABSORBABLE
B. NON-ABSORBABLE
C. SURGICAL STAINLESS STEEL
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE

Back 8

C. SURGICAL STAINLESS STEEL

Front 9

9. WHAT IS THE LEAST DESIRABLE METHOD OF CLEANING THE OPERATING ROOM?
A. WET VACUUM
B. MOPPING
C. DUSTING WITH ANTISEPTIC GERMICIDE
D. BOTH A AND B

Back 9

B. MOPPING

Front 10

10. WHAT IS THE RECOMMENDED TEMPERATURE INSIDE AN OPERATING ROOM?
A. 50 F
B. 50 TO 64 F
C. 65 TO 74 F
D. 75 F

Back 10

C. 65 TO 74 F

Front 11

1. THE PROCEDURES FOR ASSESSING A PATIENT CONDITION UNDER VARIOUS
CIRCUMSTANCES ARE BASED ON THE RECOMMENDATION OF?
A. CHIEF OF BUMED
B. PUBLIC HEALTH SERVICES
C. JOINT COMMISSION ON ACCREDITATION OF HOSPITALS (JCAH)
D. DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION (DOT)

Back 11

D. DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION (DOT)

Front 12

2. WHAT IS THE FIELD MEDICAL TAG WHICH IS USED TO IDENTIFY CASUALTIES IN COMBAT?
A. DD-1380
B. DD-689
C. SF-539
D. DD-877

Back 12

A. DD-1380

Front 13

3. IN A NON-COMBAT SITUATION, THE CASUALTIES WHICH GENERALLY HAVE INJURIES
WHERE TREATMENT CAN BE DELAYED, WOULD BE CLASSIFIED AS PRIORITY?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

Back 13

B. II

Front 14

4. IN A COMBAT SITUATION, THOSE PERSONNEL FOR WHOM DEFINITIVE TREATMENT CAN
BE DELAYED WITHOUT JEOPARDY TO LIFE OR LOSS OF LIMB, WOULD BE PLACED IN
WHAT TRIAGE CLASS?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

Back 14

C. III

Front 15

5. WHAT TECHNIQUE FOR OPENING THE AIRWAY IS RECOMMENDED FOR A NECK INJURY?
A. HEAD TILT
B. JAW THRUST
C. EITHER A OR B
D. NEITHER A OR B

Back 15

B. JAW THRUST

Front 16

6. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING OPENING A COMPLETELY OBSTRUCTED
AIRWAY?
A. CHEST THRUST SHOULD NOT BE USED FOR OBESE OR PREGNANT VICTIMS
B. BACKSLAPS REQUIRES FOUR SHARP BLOWS BETWEEN THE SHOULDER BLADES
C. BACKSLAPS AND CHEST THRUSTS MAY BE USED TOGETHER
D. BACKSLAPS AND ABDOMINAL THRUSTS MAY BE USED TOGETHER

Back 16

A. CHEST THRUST SHOULD NOT BE USED FOR OBESE OR PREGNANT VICTIMS

Front 17

7. WHAT TYPE OF ARTIFICIAL VENTILATION IS EFFECTIVE WHEN THE VICTIM HAS
EXTENSIVE FACIAL OR DENTAL INJURIES?
A. MOUTH TO NOSE
B. MOUTH TO MOUTH
C. BACK PRESSURE ARM LIFT
D. MASK TO MASK

Back 17

A. MOUTH TO NOSE

Front 18

8. WHAT SYSTEM HAS THE ADVANTAGE OF PROVIDING GREATER AIR VOLUME AND IS
EASIER TO USE?
A. BAG-VALVE-MASK
B. MOUTH TO MASK
C. OROPHARYNGEAL
D. NASOPHARYNGEAL

Back 18

B. MOUTH TO MASK

Front 19

9. WHEN USING SUCTIONING DEVICES, YOU SHOULD NOT APPLY SUCTION FOR LONGER
THAN?
A. 5 SECONDS
B. 10 SECONDS
C. 15 SECONDS
D. 30 SECONDS

Back 19

C. 15 SECONDS

Front 20

10. HOW FAR SHOULD THE STERNUM BE DEPRESSED WHEN PERFORMING CPR ON CHILDREN?
A. 1/2 TO 3/4 INCHES
B. 3/4 TO 1- 1/2 INCHES
C. 1-1/2 INCHES
D. 1-1/2 TO 2 INCHES

Back 20

B. 3/4 TO 1- 1/2 INCHES

Front 21

11. WHEN ONE PERSON PERFORMS CPR, WHAT IS THE RATIO OF COMPRESSION'S TO
VENTILATION'S?
A. 5 TO 1
B. 10 TO 2
C. 15 TO 2
D. 20 TO 2

Back 21

C. 15 TO 2

Front 22

12. VITAL SIGNS SHOULD BE CHECKED AFTER PERFORMING HOW MANY COMPLETE CYCLES
OF CPR?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 10

Back 22

B. 4

Front 23

13. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING A CRICO THYROIDOTOMY?
A. OFTEN KNOWN AS A TRACHEOTOMY
B. SMALL LATERAL INCISION IS MADE AT THE BASE OF THE THYROID CARTILAGE
C. SHOULD ONLY BE USED AS A LAST RESORT
D. AN ALTERNATE METHOD IS TO USE A 18 TO 20 GAUGE INTERCATHETER

Back 23

D. AN ALTERNATE METHOD IS TO USE A 18 TO 20 GAUGE INTERCATHETER

Front 24

14. WHAT TYPE OF WOUND IS TORN RATHER THAN CUT AND IS USUALLY MADE BY BLUNT
RATHER THAN SHARP OBJECTS?
A. ABRASION
B. AVULSION
C. INCISION
D. LACERATION

Back 24

D. LACERATION

Front 25

15. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING THE USE OF A ROLLER BANDAGE?
A. THE FINAL TURNS OF A COMPLETED BANDAGE IS OPPOSITE THE INITIAL TURN
B. A PIECE OF ROLLER BANDAGE MAY BE USED TO MAKE A FOUR TAILED BANDAGE
C. BANDAGE THE COMPLETE ARM OR LEG OF AN EXTREMITY
D. THE INITIAL TURN OF A BANDAGE OF THE ARM SHOULD BE AT THE WRIST

Back 25

A. THE FINAL TURNS OF A COMPLETED BANDAGE IS OPPOSITE THE INITIAL TURN

Front 26

16. THE FIGURE OF EIGHT BANDAGE WOULD BE USED TO RETAIN A DRESSING ON THE?
A. ELBOW
B. CHIN
C. FOREARM
D. LEG

Back 26

A. ELBOW

Front 27

17. WHAT BANDAGE IS PARTICULARLY USEFUL IN RETAINING LARGE DRESSINGS ON THE
HAND?
A. BARTON BANDAGE
B. TRIANGULAR BANDAGE
C. FIGURE OF EIGHT
D. SPIRAL REVERSE

Back 27

B. TRIANGULAR BANDAGE

Front 28

18. WHAT BANDAGE IS USED TO CONTROL BLEEDING FROM THE SCALP OR FOREARM?
A. ROLLER
B. SPIRAL REVERSE
C. MODIFIED BARTON
D. CRAVAT

Back 28

D. CRAVAT

Front 29

19. WHAT PRESSURE POINT SHOULD BE USED TO CONTROL BLEEDING ON THE FACE
BELOW THE REGION OF THE EYES?
A. TEMPORAL
B. SUBCLAVIAN
C. FACIAL
D. COMMON CAROTID

Back 29

C. FACIAL

Front 30

20. WHAT IS THE TERM USED TO DESCRIBE EXCRETION OF BRIGHT RED BLOOD FROM THE
RECTUM?
A. HEMATEMESIS
B. HEMATOCHEZIA
C. HEMATURIA
D. MELENA

Back 30

B. HEMATOCHEZIA

Front 31

21. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT A TRUE STATEMENT CONCERNING RABIES?
A. IT IS ONLY TRANSMITTED BY THE BITE OF A RABID ANIMAL
B. ANIMAL SHOULD BE IMPOUNDED FOR A MINIMUM OF 8 TO 10 DAYS
C. RABIES IS SOMETIMES REFERRED TO AS HYDROPHOBIA WHICH IS CAUSED BY A VIRUS
D. DO NOT ATTEMPT WOUND CLOSURE AFTER AN ANIMAL BITE

Back 31

A. IT IS ONLY TRANSMITTED BY THE BITE OF A RABID ANIMAL

Front 32

22. WHAT TEMPERATURE SHOULD MOIST HOT SOAK DRESSING BE WHEN APPLIED TO AN
ABSCESS FOR 40 MINUTES, 3-4 TIMES A DAY?
A. 100F
B. 105F
C. 110F
D. 120F

Back 32

C. 110F

Front 33

23. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING THE REMOVAL OF A FOREIGN BODY
FROM THE EYE?
A. DO NOT ATTEMPT TO REMOVE AN OBJECT THAT IS EMBEDDED IN THE EYEBALL
B. DIRECT THE FLOW OF WATER TO THE INSIDE CORNER OF THE EYE, AND LET IT RUN DOWN
TO THE OUTSIDE CORNER
C. FREELY MOVING OBJECTS IN THE EYE MAY BE REMOVED WITH A DRY STERILE COTTON
WHICH WILL CAUSE THE FOREIGN BODY TO STICK TO IT
D. IF AFTER SEVERAL ATTEMPTS YOU ARE UNSUCCESSFUL, PLACE A LOOSE BANDAGE OVER
THE EYES

Back 33

C. FREELY MOVING OBJECTS IN THE EYE MAY BE REMOVED WITH A DRY STERILE COTTON
WHICH WILL CAUSE THE FOREIGN BODY TO STICK TO IT

Front 34

24. WHAT IS NOT RECOMMENDED IN THE TREATMENT OF A SUCKING CHEST WOUND?
A. IMMEDIATELY SEAL THE WOUND WITH AN I.D. CARD
B. PLACE THE VICTIM IN A FOWLER'S OR SEMI FOWLER'S POSITION
C. DURING COMBAT LAY THE VICTIM ON A STRETCHER ON THE AFFECTED SIDE
D. GIVE SMALL AMOUNTS OF WATER

Back 34

D. GIVE SMALL AMOUNTS OF WATER

Front 35

25. WHAT TYPE OF SUTURE NEEDLE MAY EITHER HAVE A CUTTING EDGE OR TAPER POINT
AND HAVE THE SUTURE FIXED ON THE NEEDLE BY THE MANUFACTURER TO CAUSE THE
LEAST TISSUE TRAUMA?
A. TAPER POINT
B. CUTTING EDGE POINT
C. ATRAUMATIC (ATRALOC, WEDGED)
D. EITHER A OR B

Back 35

C. ATRAUMATIC (ATRALOC, WEDGED)

Front 36

26. WHAT TYPE NONABSORBABLE SUTURE MATERIAL IS PREFERRED OVER SILK FOR THE
FACE AND LIP AREAS BECAUSE SILK CAUSES TISSUE REACTION TOO OFTEN?
A. CATGUT
B. NYLON
C. COTTON
D. LINEN

Back 36

B. NYLON

Front 37

27. WHAT TYPE OF CHROMIC CATGUT IS MEDIUM CHROMIC AND ABSORPTION TAKES PLACE
IN THIRTY DAYS?
A. TYPE- A
B. TYPE- B
C. TYPE- C
D. TYPE- D

Back 37

C. TYPE- C

Front 38

28. WHAT SIZE SUTURE MATERIAL SHOULD BE USED ON THE FACE OF AN ADULT?
A. 3.0
B. 4.0
C. 5.0
D. 6.0

Back 38

C. 5.0

Front 39

29. ALL SUTURES IN THE FACE SHOULD BE COMPLETELY REMOVED AFTER HOW MANY
DAYS?
A. 2 DAYS
B. 3 DAYS
C. 5 DAYS
D. 7 DAYS

Back 39

C. 5 DAYS

Front 40

30. WHAT TYPE SHOCK IS THE MOST FREQUENTLY ENCOUNTERED AND MOST IMPORTANT
TYPE FOR THE CORPSMAN TO UNDERSTAND?
A. HEMORRHAGIC
B. NEUROGENIC
C. ANAPHYLACTIC
D. CARDIGENIC

Back 40

A. HEMORRHAGIC

Front 41

31. SHUT DOWN OF WHAT ORGAN IS AN EVER PRESENT DANGER IN SHOCK VICTIMS?
A. KIDNEY
B. LIVER
C. BRAIN
D. HEART

Back 41

A. KIDNEY

Front 42

32. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING A SHOCK VICTIM?
A. SHOCK SHOULD BE SUSPECTED WITH A BURN OF MORE THAN 10%
B. THE PULSE RATE IN HEMORRHAGIC SHOCK MAY REACH 160 OR HIGHER
C. THE PULSE RATE IS SLOWED, OFTEN BELOW 60 IN NEUROGENIC SHOCK
D. THERE ARE FREQUENT COMPLAINTS OF THIRST

Back 42

C. THE PULSE RATE IS SLOWED, OFTEN BELOW 60 IN NEUROGENIC SHOCK

Front 43

33. INTRAVENOUS FLUID ADMINISTRATION IS THE SINGLE MOST IMPORTANT FACTOR IN THE
TREATMENT OF ANY TYPE OF SHOCK EXCEPT?
A. CARDIOGENIC
B. NEUROGENIC
C. OLIGEMIC
D. VASOGENIC

Back 43

A. CARDIOGENIC

Front 44

34. WHAT DEGREE OF SHOCK IS INDICATED IN AN INDIVIDUAL WITH A THREADY PULSE OF
120, SYSTOLIC BP BELOW 60, INCREASED DIAPHORESIS, OBTUNDATION, AND NO URINARY
OUTPUT?
A. 500 - 1200 ML DEFICIT - MILD
B. 1200 - 1800 ML DEFICIT - MODERATE
C. 1800 - 2500 ML DEFICIT - SEVERE
D. 2500 - 3500 ML DEFICIT - EXTREMELY SEVERE

Back 44

C. 1800 - 2500 ML DEFICIT - SEVERE

Front 45

35. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING MILITARY ANTI-SHOCK TROUSERS
(MAST)?
A. SHOULD BE USED IF SYSTOLIC BP IS LESS THAN 80mm Hg
B. REMOVAL SHOULD BE UNDER THE DIRECT SUPERVISION OF A PHYSICIAN
C. THE ONLY ABSOLUTE CONTRAINDICATION IN THEIR USE IS PULMONARY EDEMA
D. IV FLUIDS SHOULD BE USED WITH EXTREME CAUTION

Back 45

D. IV FLUIDS SHOULD BE USED WITH EXTREME CAUTION

Front 46

36. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING THE ADMINISTRATION OF MORPHINE?
A. IT MAY NOT BE GIVEN FOR WOUNDS OF THE NASAL PASSAGES, ORAL CAVITY OR JAWS
B. ADMINISTRATION BY SUBCUTANEOUS OR IM ROUTES MAY NOT BE ABSORBED
C. MUST NOT BE USED IN MASSIVE HEMORRHAGE
D. MUST ONLY BE GIVEN INTRAVENOUS

Back 46

D. MUST ONLY BE GIVEN INTRAVENOUS

Front 47

37. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING A FRACTURE OF THE LOWER ARM?
A. CAREFULLY STRAIGHTEN THE FOREARM
B. APPLY TWO WELL PADDED SPLINTS
C. THERE IS A DEFORMITY WHEN EITHER THE RADIUS OR THE ULNA IS FRACTURED ALONE
D. SUPPORT THE FOREARM WITH A WIDE SLING OR CRAVAT

Back 47

C. THERE IS A DEFORMITY WHEN EITHER THE RADIUS OR THE ULNA IS FRACTURED ALONE

Front 48

38. THE SPLINT SHOULD BE SECURED IN HOW MANY PLACES WHEN IMMOBILIZING A
FRACTURED FEMUR?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

Back 48

C. 5

Front 49

39. WHAT BANDAGE MAY BE USED TO IMMOBILIZE A FRACTURED CLAVICLE?
A. WIDE ROLLER BANDAGE
B. FIGURE OF EIGHT
C. BARTON
D. EITHER A OR B

Back 49

D. EITHER A OR B

Front 50

40. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING A VICTIM WHO HAS BRAIN DAMAGE
RESULTING FROM AN INJURY?
A. MAY BE CONFUSED AND DISORIENTED
B. ASPIRIN MAY BE GIVEN FOR SEVERE HEADACHE
C. POSITION MAY BE EITHER HEAD LOWERED OR RAISED
D. PUPILS ARE UNEQUAL IN SIZE

Back 50

B. ASPIRIN MAY BE GIVEN FOR SEVERE HEADACHE

Front 51

41. WHAT IS THE PRIMARY SYMPTOM(S) FOR A FRACTURED SPINE?
A. PAIN
B. SHOCK
C. PARALYSIS
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE

Back 51

D. ALL OF THE ABOVE

Front 52

42. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM NUMBER OF PERSONNEL REQUIRED TO LIFT A PATIENT WITH A
SUSPECTED SPINAL INJURY?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6

Back 52

C. 4

Front 53

43. EXAMINATION OF A PATIENT REVEALS SHORTENING OF THE LEG, INABILITY TO MOVE
THE LEG AND AN ABNORMAL OUTWARD POSITION OF THE LEG. FIRST AID TREATMENT
SHOULD BE ADMINISTERED FOR A?
A. FRACTURED FEMUR
B. FRACTURED TIBIA AND FIBULA
C. FRACTURED PELVIS
D. DISLOCATED PATELLA

Back 53

A. FRACTURED FEMUR

Front 54

44. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING REDUCTION OF A DISLOCATION?
A. ALWAYS ATTEMPT TO REDUCE A DISLOCATED SHOULDER WITH THE PATIENT IN THE
SUPINE POSITION
B. REDUCE A DISLOCATED JAW BY PRESSING DOWN ON THE LOWER MOLARS AND LIFTING
UP ON THE CHIN
C. A DISLOCATED FINGER SHOULD BE SPLINTED, SLIGHTLY FLEXED
D. DO NOT ATTEMPT TO REDUCE A DISLOCATED FINGER OR SHOULDER MORE THAN THREE
TIMES

Back 54

A. ALWAYS ATTEMPT TO REDUCE A DISLOCATED SHOULDER WITH THE PATIENT IN THE
SUPINE POSITION

Front 55

45. WHAT TYPE OF INJURY IS CAUSED BY OVER STRETCHING OR TEARING OF A MUSCLE OR A
TENDON?
A. SPRAIN
B. STRAIN
C. DISLOCATION
D. CONTUSION

Back 55

B. STRAIN

Front 56

46. WHAT COLOR DOES THE SKIN APPEAR SEVERAL DAYS AFTER SUSTAINING A CONTUSION?
A. RED
B. BLACK AND BLUE
C. PALE AND ASHEN
D. YELLOWISH AND GREENISH

Back 56

D. YELLOWISH AND GREENISH

Front 57

47. WHICH OF THE AGENTS LISTED BELOW IS CLASSIFIED AS A NONCORROSIVE POISON?
A. ACIDS
B. ALKALIES
C. MERCURY
D. PHENOLS

Back 57

C. MERCURY

Front 58

48. WHAT IS THE PREFERRED METHOD OF EMPTYING THE CONTENTS OF THE STOMACH IF A
PERSON IS SUFFERING FROM STRYCHNINE POISONING?
A. TICKLE THE THROAT WITH YOUR FINGER
B. GIVE AN EMETIC (IPECAC 15 ML)
C. GASTRIC LAVAGE
D. ANY OF THE ABOVE

Back 58

C. GASTRIC LAVAGE

Front 59

49. AN EMETIC SHOULD BE USED ON WHICH OF THE BELOW LISTED POISONING?
A. IODINE
B. AMMONIA
C. CREOSOL
D. RED FURNITURE POLISH

Back 59

A. IODINE

Front 60

50. WHAT TYPE OF INHALATION POISONING IS ASSOCIATED WITH SOLVENTS, IN DRY
CLEANING FLUID, ELECTRICAL EQUIPMENT CLEANERS, DEGREASING AGENTS AND FIRE
EXTINGUISHERS?
A. CARBON DIOXIDE
B. TRICHLORETHYLENE
C. CHLORINE
D. ETHER

Back 60

B. TRICHLORETHYLENE

Front 61

51. WHAT MEDICAL EMERGENCY CAN BE TREATED WITH 10ML OF CALCIUM GLUCONATE
(10%) SOLUTION GIVEN INTRAVENOUSLY?
A. BLACK WIDOW SPIDER
B. BROWN RECLUSE SPIDER BITE
C. SCORPION STING
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE

Back 61

C. SCORPION STING

Front 62

52. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING A FEMALE BLACK WIDOW SPIDER BITE?
A. THEIR BITES ARE SERIOUS BUT RARELY FATAL
B. IDENTIFIED BY THE HOUR GLASS SHAPED RED SPOT ON IT'S BELLY
C. BOARD LIKE RIGIDITY OF THE ABDOMINAL MUSCLES IS COMMON
D. ALL BITE VICTIMS MUST BE HOSPITALIZED IMMEDIATELY

Back 62

D. ALL BITE VICTIMS MUST BE HOSPITALIZED IMMEDIATELY

Front 63

53. EARLY DIAGNOSIS OF WHAT BITE IS EXTREMELY IMPORTANT WITHIN THE FIRST EIGHT
HOURS, SINCE THE MEDICAL OFFICER HAS THE OPTION OF EXCISING THE LESION AND
STARTING CORTICOSTEROID THERAPY?
A. BROWN RECLUSE SPIDER
B. CENTRUROIDES SCULPTURATUS
C. SCORPION
D. SNAKE BITE

Back 63

A. BROWN RECLUSE SPIDER

Front 64

54. POISONOUS SNAKES ARE FOUND IN EVERY STATE EXCEPT?
A. ALASKA
B. HAWAII
C. MAINE
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE

Back 64

D. ALL OF THE ABOVE

Front 65

55. WHICH OF THE SNAKES LISTED BELOW IS OF THE FAMILY ELAPIDAE?
A. RATTLE SNAKE
B. MOCCASIN
C. COPPER HEAD
D. CORAL

Back 65

D. CORAL

Front 66

56. WHICH OF THE SNAKES LISTED BELOW IS ONLY FOUND IN INDIA?
A. KRAIT
B. COBRA
C. CORAL
D. MAMBA

Back 66

A. KRAIT

Front 67

57. IF THE SNAKEBITE VICTIM CANNOT REACH A MEDICAL TREATMENT FACILITY WITHIN 30
MINUTES AFTER BEING BITTEN, AN INCISION SHOULD BE MADE IN WHAT MANNER?
A. X OVER EACH FANG MARK, 1/2" LONG, 1/4" DEEP LENGTHWISE
B. \ \ OVER EACH FANG MARK, 1/4" LONG, 1/2" DEEP LENGTHWISE
C. \ \ OVER EACH FANG MARK, 1/2" LONG, 1/4" DEEP LENGTHWISE
D. INCISION AND SUCTION IS NOT RECOMMENDED

Back 67

C. \ \ OVER EACH FANG MARK, 1/2" LONG, 1/4" DEEP LENGTHWISE

Front 68

58. WHAT IS USED TO NEUTRALIZE THE VENOM FOR A PERSON STUNG BY A SPINY FISH, CONE
SHELLS, SEA URCHINS OR STINGRAY?
A. COLD SEA WATER
B. HOT WATER
C. DILUTED AMMONIA
D. VINEGAR

Back 68

B. HOT WATER

Front 69

59. WHAT DRUG IS CLASSIFIED AS A NARCOTIC, BUT ACTS AS A STIMULANT?
A. METHADONE
B. COCAINE
C. DARVON
D. TALWIN

Back 69

B. COCAINE

Front 70

60. A PATIENT WITH SLURRED SPEECH, UNCOORDINATION, CONFUSION, TREMORS,
DROWSINESS, AGITATION, NAUSEA, VOMITING, RESPIRATORY DEPRESSION,
HALLUCINATIONS AND POSSIBLE COMA WOULD BE SUFFERING FROM ALCOHOL
INTOXICATION OR INTOXICATION FROM?
A. BARBITURATES
B. SEDATIVES
C. HYPNOTICS
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE

Back 70

D. ALL OF THE ABOVE

Front 71

61. IF A MAN IS BURNED ON THE COMPLETE LEFT LEG, THE RIGHT ARM (JUST ANTERIOR)
AND ON THE HEAD AND NECK (JUST ANTERIOR), HE WOULD HAVE WHAT PERCENTAGE OF
HIS BODY BURNED?
A. 18%
B. 27%
C. 31%
D. 36%

Back 71

B. 27%

Front 72

62. START IV THERAPY WITH RINGERS LACTATE IN AN UNBURNED AREA FOR ALL SERIOUS
AND EXTENSIVE BURNS OVER?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%

Back 72

C. 20%

Front 73

63. AN ALKALI BURN OF THE EYE SHOULD BE FLUSHED WITH WATER FOR HOW LONG?
A. 20 MINUTES
B. 15-30 MINUTES
C. 30-45 MINUTES
D. 45-60 MINUTES

Back 73

A. 20 MINUTES

Front 74

64. AN ACID BURN SHOULD BE NEUTRALIZED BY FLUSHING WITH WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING
SOLUTIONS?
A. VINEGAR
B. BAKING SODA
C. ALCOHOL
D. CASTOR OIL

Back 74

B. BAKING SODA

Front 75

65. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING EMBEDDED WHITE PHOSPHORUS
PARTICLES?
A. THE WOUND MUST BE DRESSED WITH A 1% COPPER SULFATE DRESSING
B. COMBUSTION OF WHITE PHOSPHORUS MAY CAUSE SEVERE PULMONARY IRRITATION
C. MEDICAL PERSONNEL SHOULD PLACE A MOIST CLOTH OVER THE NOSE AND MOUTH
DURING DEBRIDEMENT
D. DEBRIDEMENT SHOULD BE CONDUCTED IN A DARKENED ROOM

Back 75

A. THE WOUND MUST BE DRESSED WITH A 1% COPPER SULFATE DRESSING

Front 76

66. WHAT IS THE MOST COMMON CONDITION CAUSED BY WORKING OR EXERCISING IN A HOT
ENVIRONMENT?
A. HEAT CRAMPS
B. HEAT STROKE
C. SUNSTROKE
D. HEAT EXHAUSTION

Back 76

D. HEAT EXHAUSTION

Front 77

67. WHICH OF THE SYMPTOMS LISTED BELOW IS COMMON TO HEAT EXHAUSTION?
A. PULSE FAST AND STRONG
B. MOIST, CLAMMY SKIN
C. ELEVATED TEMPERATURE
D. PUPILS CONSTRICTED

Back 77

B. MOIST, CLAMMY SKIN

Front 78

68. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS THE TREATMENT FOR A MAN SUFFERING FROM HEAT
PROSTRATION?
A. REPLACE SALT AND WATER LOSS
B. PLACE WET CLOTHS TO THE HEAD, GROIN, AXILLA AND ANKLES
C. TREAT FOR SHOCK
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE

Back 78

D. ALL OF THE ABOVE

Front 79

69. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING THE PREVENTION OF HEAT EXPOSURE
INJURIES?
A. IT'S A COMMAND RESPONSIBILITY
B. THE MEDICAL DEPARTMENT IS RESPONSIBLE FOR EDUCATION OF ALL HANDS
C. PREVENTION CENTERS SHOULD MAINTAIN WBGT AND PHEL
D. SALT TABLET DISPENSERS SHOULD BE DISPERSED THROUGHOUT THE COMMAND

Back 79

D. SALT TABLET DISPENSERS SHOULD BE DISPERSED THROUGHOUT THE COMMAND

Front 80

70. A PATIENT REPORTS TO SICK BAY COMPLAINING OF TINGLING AND NUMBNESS OF THE
AFFECTED AREA, SWELLING OF THE FEET, LEGS, OR HANDS, BLUISH DISCOLORATION OF
THE SKIN, AND PAINFUL BLISTERS WOULD BE SUFFERING FROM?
A. IMMERSION FOOT
B. CHILBLAINS
C. HYPOTHERMIA
D. FROSTBITE

Back 80

A. IMMERSION FOOT

Front 81

71. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING COLD INJURIES?
A. DEATH RESULTS WHEN THE BODY TEMPERATURE APPROACHES 80 F
B. IMMERSION FOOT RESULTS FROM PROLONGED EXPOSURE TO WETNESS AT 32 F-0 C TO 50
F-10 C
C. UNDER NO CIRCUMSTANCES ALLOW A DEEP FROSTBITE PATIENT TO WALK
D. MAKE NO ATTEMPT TO THAW A FROSTBITTEN PART OUT IF THE PATIENT WILL BE
EXPOSED TO THE COLD AGAIN

Back 81

C. UNDER NO CIRCUMSTANCES ALLOW A DEEP FROSTBITE PATIENT TO WALK

Front 82

72. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING COMMON MEDICAL EMERGENCIES?
A. DIABETICS ALMOST ALWAYS WEAR A MEDICAL ALERT ID SYMBOL
B. FAINTING IS ALSO CALLED SYNCOPE
C. TOO OFTEN A DIABETIC PATIENT IS TREATED AS A DRUNK
D. A PATIENT WHO HAS FAINTED SHOULD ALWAYS BE KEPT IN A SUPINE POSITION

Back 82

D. A PATIENT WHO HAS FAINTED SHOULD ALWAYS BE KEPT IN A SUPINE POSITION

Front 83

73. WHAT IS THE MOST COMMON CAUSATIVE AGENT IN ANAPHYLACTIC REACTIONS?
A. ASPIRIN
B. BEE STING
C. FOOD SUBSTANCES
D. ANY INJECTION

Back 83

B. BEE STING

Front 84

74. THE EMERGENCY TREATMENT OF CONGESTIVE HEART FAILURE IS BASICALLY THE SAME
AS FOR?
A. CEREBROVASCULAR ACCIDENT (CVA)
B. ANGINA PECTORIS
C. MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION
D. ANY HEART CONDITION

Back 84

C. MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION

Front 85

75. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING EMERGENCY CHILD BIRTH?
A. DELIVERY IS APPROACHING IF CONTRACTIONS ARE LESS THAN 3 MINUTES APART
B. ONCE THE CHIN EMERGES SUCTION THE NOSTRILS AND MOUTH
C. USE TWO CLAMPS, 2 INCHES APART, WITH THE FIRST 6-8 INCHES FROM THE NAVAL
D. MASSAGING THE MOTHER'S LOWER ABDOMEN WILL AID IN THE DELIVERY OF THE
PLACENTA WITHIN 30 MINUTES TO AN HOUR

Back 85

D. MASSAGING THE MOTHER'S LOWER ABDOMEN WILL AID IN THE DELIVERY OF THE
PLACENTA WITHIN 30 MINUTES TO AN HOUR

Front 86

76. WHAT PROTECTIVE EQUIPMENT IS BEST FOR PERSONS WHO MUST ENTER VOIDS, OR
COMPARTMENTS WITH A HIGH CONCENTRATION OF OIL OR GAS VAPORS, OR OTHER
SPACES THAT HAVE VERY SMALL ACCESS HATCHES?
A. HOSE (AIRLINE) MASKS
B. OXYGEN BREATHING APPARATUS (OBA)
C. PROTECTIVE (GAS) MASK
D. ANY OF THE ABOVE

Back 86

A. HOSE (AIRLINE) MASKS

Front 87

77. WHAT TYPE OF DEVICE IS USED TO TEST THE ATMOSPHERE IN CLOSED OR POORLY
VENTILATED SPACES FOR DETECTING OXYGEN DEFICIENCY?
A. COMBUSTIBLE GAS INDICATOR
B. FLAME SAFETY LAMP
C. TOXIC GAS INDICATOR
D. ANY OF THE ABOVE

Back 87

B. FLAME SAFETY LAMP

Front 88

78. WHAT STAGE IN THE EXTRICATION OF VICTIMS IS PREPARING THE MAN FOR REMOVAL,
WITH SPECIAL EMPHASIS ON THE PROTECTION OF POSSIBLE FRACTURES?
A. 2 ND
B. 3 RD
C. 4 TH
D. FINAL STAGE

Back 88

C. 4 TH

Front 89

79. WHAT SHOULD NOT BE TAKEN INTO A COMPARTMENT THAT MAY CONTAIN
EXPLOSIVE VAPORS?
A. OXYGEN BREATHING APPARATUS
B. PROTECTIVE MASK
C. LIFE LINE
D. FLASHLIGHT

Back 89

D. FLASHLIGHT

Front 90

80. WHAT TYPE STRETCHER SHOULD BE USED FOR SHIP TO SHIP TRANSFER OR TO TRANSFER
INJURED PERSONS TO AND FROM BOATS?
A. ARMY LITTER
B. STOKES
C. NEIL ROBERTSON
D. SHIP LITTER

Back 90

B. STOKES

Front 91

81. WHAT CARRY IS PARTICULARLY USEFUL IN TRANSPORTING A VICTIM UP OR DOWN
STAIRS, OR THROUGH NARROW, WINDING PASSAGE WAYS?
A. CHAIR
B. ONE PERSON ARM
C. TWO PERSON ARM
D. PACKSTRAP

Back 91

A. CHAIR

Front 92

82. WHAT TYPE OF ANESTHESIA IS FREQUENTLY USED WHEN CONTINUOUS ANESTHESIA IS
DESIRED FOR A PROLONGED PERIOD OF TIME?
A. CAUDAL BLOCK
B. SADDLE BLOCK
C. EPIDURAL BLOCK
D. NERVE BLOCK

Back 92

C. EPIDURAL BLOCK

Front 93

83. WHAT IS THE MAJOR CLASSIFICATION(S) OF ANESTHESIA?
A. REGIONAL
B. GENERAL
C. SPINAL
D. BOTH A AND B

Back 93

D. BOTH A AND B

Front 94

84. WHAT STAGE OF ANESTHESIA DOES THE PATIENT EXPERIENCE DIZZINESS, A SENSE OF
UNREALITY AND A LESSENING SENSITIVITY TO TOUCH AND PAIN?
A. 1ST
B. 2ND
C. 3RD
D. 4TH

Back 94

A. 1ST

Front 95

85. WHAT IS THE STREET NAME FOR HALLUCINOGENIC DRUG PEYOTE?
A. YELLOW JACKETS
B. RED DEVILS
C. SPEED
D. BUTTONS

Back 95

D. BUTTONS