Pathophysiology Exam 2

Front 1

the _____ nervous system moves food through the GI tract

Back 1

parasympathetic

Front 2

the ________ nervous system slows down digestion

Back 2

sympathetic

Front 3

the ________ is the layer of the GI tract that moves food through peristalsis

Back 3

muscularis

Front 4

the layers ________ provides connection points for GI tract nerves/blood vessels to run through

Back 4

serosa/adventitia

Front 5

the specific nervous system that innervates the GI system is known as the _______ (not parasympathetic)

Back 5

plexus (enteric)

Front 6

There are ______ layers of tissue in the GI tract; these are the submucosal, the myenteric, and the subserosal layers.

Back 6

three

Front 7

If a patient presents with an inflamed jaw, consider inflammation of the _____ gland. This could result from stones/staph infection.

Back 7

Parotid

Front 8

____________ lubricates food and begins to digest carbohydrates in the mouth. Another name for this is _______.

Back 8

salivary amylase; ptylan

Front 9

The neurotransmitter that affects the parasympathetic nervous system in the GI tract is ____________.

Back 9

Osteocholine

Front 10

The __________ valve relaxes to make swallowing easier. It is located at the top of the __________.

Back 10

cricopharyngeal; esophagus

Front 11

the _______ sphincter (also known as the lower esophageal sphincter) is at the top of the stomach.

Back 11

cardiac

Front 12

The _______ is sometimes referred to as the "gastric bubble" and is located at the top of the stomach. This will most often have air/gas.

Back 12

Fundus

Front 13

The muscularis of the _______ is composed of three layers: longitudinal, circular, and oblique muscular layers.

Back 13

stomach

Front 14

Gastric ulcers tend to be found in the _______ of the stomach, near the greater curvature.

Back 14

antrum

Front 15

If bile refluxes through the _______ sphincter, it can cause gastric ulcers in the stomach.

Back 15

pyloric

Front 16

The _________ sphincter prevents food from being dumped out of the stomach into the duodenum. Allows for a slower release of food.

Back 16

pyloric

Front 17

The stomach protects itself from ______ with three defense mechanisms: mucus, "tight junction," and bicarb production.

Back 17

acid / hydrochloric acid

Front 18

Parietal cells in the stomach that produce HCl also produce ________ that allows B12 to be absorbed in the small intestine.

Back 18

intrinsic factor

Front 19

Small intestines absorb iron using a substance called _________ that is produced by the stomach.

Back 19

Gastroferin

Front 20

The ______ of the stomach has pits which house the cells that produce digestive and protective enzymes.

Back 20

mucosa / mucosal layer

Front 21

PPI medications affect the ______ cells in the stomach by stopping production of HCl at the source.

Back 21

parietal cells

Front 22

Chief cells in the stomach produce ____________ that is converted to ___________. This newly created substance is a protease that breaks down protein.

Back 22

pepsinogen; pepsin

Front 23

___________ causes release of osteocholine that is an acid stimulator and encourages release of HCl and pepsinogen in the stomach.

Back 23

Gastrin

Front 24

Gastrin levels can ________ with effect of a PPI.

Back 24

increase

Front 25

_________ is a strong encourager of gastric acid secretion. (think H2 receptors)

Back 25

Histamine

Front 26

GI ___________ is an antagonist of histamine (regulates acid over-release)

Back 26

somatostatin

Front 27

The small intestine is ______ feet long (5-6 meters)

Back 27

18 feet

Front 28

The esophagus, stomach, and duodenum are all involved with ______ ulcer disease.

Back 28

Peptic

Front 29

The ligament of ________ in the duodenum is the "cutoff" point for peptic ulcer disease.

Back 29

Treitz

Front 30

The _______ valve separates the ileum from the cecum (the first part of the large intestine)

Back 30

ileocecal valve

Front 31

The peritoneal area/cavity is ________.

Back 31

sterile

Front 32

There are primarily longitudinal/circular muscles in the _________ intestine to keep things "moving"

Back 32

small

Front 33

The foldbacks of villi/microvilli in the small intestine increases the surface area. This is called the ______ border.

Back 33

Brush border

Front 34

Amylase, lipase, tryptin, and chymatryptin are important __________ enzymes.

Back 34

Pancreatic

Front 35

__________ make up a large portion of bile. Bile is also composed of cholesterol, bilirubin, water, bicarb, and electrolytes.

Back 35

Bile Salts

Front 36

Protease/Proteinase are the same thing. Both break down _________.

Back 36

protein

Front 37

Pancreatic _________ is involves with the emulsification of fats.

Back 37

lipase

Front 38

The ______ flexure is the point that the ascending colon becomes transverse.

Back 38

Hepatic

Front 39

The __________ flexure is the point where the transverse colon becomes the descending colon.

Back 39

Splenic

Front 40

Insufficient _______ to bowel can cause obstruction or slow peristalsis in the elderly.

Back 40

perfusion or blood flow

Front 41

The _______ arterial branch feeds blood to the stomach, liver, and intestines.

Back 41

celiac

Front 42

The ______ mesentery artery perfuses the rest of the spleen, the stomach, the liver, and the rt. part of the colon.

Back 42

Superior

Front 43

The ______ mesentery artery feeds the transverse, descending, and sigmoid colon.

Back 43

Inverse

Front 44

85 to 90% of all absorbed water is absorbed in the ________ intestine.

Back 44

small

Front 45

NSAIDs, aspirin, and alcohol are well absorbed in the _________

Back 45

stomach

Front 46

The gallbladder stores _______. The liver produces ______.

Back 46

bile

Front 47

35-75% of bile that is stored in the ________ is ejected when needed to digest food.

Back 47

gallbladder

Front 48

______ means secreting to a certain area.

Back 48

exocrine

Front 49

________ means secreting into the blood to target organs.

Back 49

endocrine

Front 50

Everything absorbed by the small intestine that goes into the blood first passes through the _______ before it goes to the heart.

Back 50

liver

Front 51

All of the blood from the "gut" drains into _______ veins.

Back 51

portal

Front 52

_______ sided heart failure is a common cause of portal HTN.

Back 52

Right

Front 53

Bile salts are made from ____________.

Back 53

cholesterol

Front 54

Bile salts emulsify _______.

Back 54

fat

Front 55

HMG CoA reduction inhibitor is a statin. It works by dropping circulating amounts of cholesterol by upregulating _____ receptors in the liver.

Back 55

LDL

Front 56

_______ detoxification is a function of the liver.

Back 56

Metabolic

Front 57

The gallbladder holds approximately _______ ml of bile.

Back 57

90 ml

Front 58

A ______ or stimulated _______ will measure amount of gallbladder output. Do not necessarily discount gallbladder dysfunction w/ a negative ultrasound result.

Back 58

hydascan

Front 59

The left/right bile ducts from the liver come together with the cystic duct from the gallbladder at the _________ bile duct.

Back 59

Common

Front 60

Pancreatic ducts release into the common bile duct. The area where the pancreatic ducts meet the common bile duct is known as the ________.

Back 60

ampulla of vater

Front 61

The sphincter of _________ is at the end of the ampulla of vater. It releases pancreatic enzymes/bile into the small intestine.

Back 61

Odi

Front 62

_____ people can have a depressed thirst center (they may be closer to dehydrated levels before they recognize need for H2O)

Back 62

elderly/old

Front 63

In Crohn's disease and Ulcerative Colitis, ________ stools are common.

Back 63

Bloody

Front 64

consider lifestyle improvements in elderly before prescribing ______ laxative for constipation.

Back 64

stimulant

Front 65

Pain in the ___________ is sharp, well localized. (r/t GI complaints)

Back 65

peritonium (parietal cavity)

Front 66

_______ pain comes from within an organ and is "dull, heavy, not well localized" r/t few pain receptors in organ

Back 66

Visceral

Front 67

___________ pain radiates to other parts of the body (example: gallbladder pain can present under rt. shoulder)

Back 67

Referred

Front 68

Bleeding in the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum is consider an ______ GI bleed.

Back 68

upper

Front 69

_________ is bright red blood in stool.

Back 69

Hematochezia

Front 70

______ is black/tarry stool that is usually associated with an upper GI bleed because the blood has been digested.

Back 70

melena

Front 71

_________ strictures and dysphagia is common in the elderly.

Back 71

Esophageal

Front 72

A ______ obstruction is an inability to move food r/t peristaltic or nerve issue.)

Back 72

functional

Front 73

A ________ obstruction is an inability to move food r/t mechanical blockage, like a stricture.

Back 73

mechanical

Front 74

____________ is denervation of smooth muscle in esophagus and failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax.

Back 74

Achalesia

Front 75

______ is the reflex of chyme from the stomach into the esophagus. If ______ causes inflammation of esophagus, this is called 'reflex esophagitis.'

Back 75

GERD

Front 76

Obesity, tight clothing, meds (calcium channel blockers, nicotine, and nitrates) can ________ esophageal pressure and cause GERD.

Back 76

lower

Front 77

______ open the esophagus and lower pressure, allowing the person to burp after a large meal.

Back 77

Mints

Front 78

A _______ should be taken 30 min to 1 hr before the largest meal of the day.

Back 78

PPI

Front 79

A _______ hernia is when parts of the stomach bulge past the diaphragm into the chest cavity; it is painful when full w/ food. Pain may come and go.

Back 79

hiatal

Front 80

In a ________ hiatal hernia, the pain comes and goes.

Back 80

Sliding

Front 81

In a _________ hiatal hernia, pain is permanent and persistent without treatment. It is caused when the hernia is "stuck"

Back 81

Paraesophageal

Front 82

"tingly" bowel sounds, pain, and pressure are _____ symptoms of intestinal obstruction.

Back 82

Early

Front 83

An upper GI problem has a higher chance of causing _______ r/t emesis.

Back 83

alkalosis

Front 84

A lower GI problem has a higher chance of causing _______ r/t diarrhea.

Back 84

acidosis

Front 85

The causes of __________ include H. Pylori (highly associated, will stimulate inflammation and produce an alk. environment) and NSAIDs (block prostaglandin production).

Back 85

peptic ulcer disease

Front 86

Eating food may worsen ______ ulcer symptoms.

Back 86

gastric

Front 87

Eating food may relieve ________ ulcer symptoms.

Back 87

duodenal

Front 88

_____ may be the #1 cause of peptic ulcers in elderly.

Back 88

NSAID use

Front 89

_______ breath test is used to assess for H. Pylori infection.

Back 89

urea

Front 90

Ulcers that are down to the muscular layer (past the mucosa) are known as "_______" ulcers

Back 90

"deep"

Front 91

_______ ulcers are most common peptic ulcer.

Back 91

Duodenal

Front 92

_______ is a drug r/t smoking that causes increased gastric acid production.

Back 92

nicotine

Front 93

The two most common side effects for _________ are edema and constipation.

Back 93

calcium channel blockers

Front 94

____________ is a contiguous inflammation, beginning from the rectum, upward. It causes urgency of stool, bloody stool, and watery stool.

Back 94

ulcerative colitis

Front 95

_______________ tends to not be a contiguous inflammation; there are patches of healthy tissue and patches of inflamed tissue. Can occur mouth to anus.

Back 95

Crohn's disease

Front 96

_________ is a herniation of intestinal mucosa between muscle r/t pressure from some source. It is not infected/inflamed.

Back 96

Diverticulosis

Front 97

In ______ the patient will feel like they need to poop but can't produce stool, may have fever, will have specific LLQ pain, and may have a slightly elevated white count.

Back 97

diverticulosis/diverticulitis

Front 98

__________ tends to affect adolescents, teens, and young 20's. The patient will have specific rebound tenderness.

Back 98

Appendicitis

Front 99

The most serious complication of appendicitis is _________.

Back 99

peritonitis

Front 100

__________ sign is pain in the LRQ of abdomen r/t sudden pressure on heel. May indicate appendicitis.

Back 100

Markle's sign

Front 101

If you are seeing an elderly patient and they have unexplained GI symptoms, consider ________ insufficiency.

Back 101

vascular

Front 102

Portal thrombosis is a good example of ________ pressure increase.

Back 102

pre-hepatic

Front 103

Hepatitis/cirrhosis are examples of conditions that can cause ______ pressure increases.

Back 103

intra-hepatic

Front 104

Rt. sided heart failure is an example of a condition that may cause _________ pressure increase.

Back 104

post-hepatic

Front 105

_______ HTN can cause esophageal varices, splenomegaly, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy

Back 105

Portal HTN

Front 106

An _______ blockage is when the left/right bile ducts are backed up.

Back 106

Extra-Hepatic

Front 107

An _________ blockage is when cancer/cirrhosis/hepatitis blocks liver ducts from within.

Back 107

Intra-Hepatic

Front 108

______ jaundice is r/t breakdown of RBC from a large hematoma.

Back 108

Hemolytic

Front 109

Hep A is transmitted by the __________ route. Risk factors for Hep A are ________ conditions. Common in a third world country.

Back 109

Fecal/Oral; unsanitary

Front 110

Hep B is transmitted by _________. 15 to 30% of Hep B becomes ________.

Back 110

blood/body fluids/needles/mother-to-fetus; chronic

Front 111

Hep D requires Hep ___ to replicate.

Back 111

Hep B

Front 112

Hep C is caused by ______________; It is responsible for most post-infectious hepatitis. 60-80% of Hep C becomes chronic.

Back 112

blood/body fluid/needles

Front 113

Hep E is transmitted by ____________ route. It is common in developing countries.

Back 113

fecal/oral

Front 114

The ________ phase of hepatitis (the time that the person begins to experience symptoms until jaundice sets in) is roughly 2 weeks.

Back 114

prodromal

Front 115

The _______ phase of Hepatitis is the phase that the person actively has jaundice/acute symptoms.

Back 115

Icteric

Front 116

The ___________ phase of Hepatitis varies depending on the type.

Back 116

Incubation

Front 117

________ hepatitis is when hepatitis is actively killing the person, causing coma, necrosis, encephalopathy.

Back 117

Fulminate

Front 118

The #1 cause of liver failure is ___________ overdose.

Back 118

tylenol overdose

Front 119

Hepatitis A was formally known as _________ Hepatitis.

Back 119

Infectious

Front 120

Hepatitis B was formally known as _______ Hepatitis.

Back 120

Serum

Front 121

_________ can be caused by alcohol, biliary/bile duct blockage or impairment, or chronic disease.

Back 121

Cirrhosis

Front 122

_________ is commonly caused by alcohol. It is very painful.

Back 122

Pancreatitis

Front 123

Amylase / Lipase are elevated in pancreatitis. ________ is more sensitive to pancreatitis and will increase earlier.

Back 123

Lipase

Front 124

The most common cause of bowel obstruction in children is ________________.

Back 124

intersusseption

Front 125

_________ stenosis occurs in 7-8% of population and might be hereditary. The muscles in the stomach must enlarge to push contents through a narrow opening. Child will often projectile vomit.

Back 125

Pyloric

Front 126

________ are the "parynchyma" or "acini" of lung tissue. This is the functional part or where action happens (gas exchange).

Back 126

Alveoli

Front 127

Nasopharyngeal airways are tolerated better than oropharyngeal airways r/t _______ reflex.

Back 127

gag

Front 128

The _____ is where the "vocal cords" are. The opening of the larynx is the __________ region.

Back 128

Larynx; glottis/glottic

Front 129

The ________ is the bifurcation of the trachea and occurs at about T5 or just below the angle of Louis (the point where the manubrium and sternum meet)

Back 129

Corina

Front 130

The ____ lung mainstem is more gradual in bifurcation than the _____ mainstem. This is where most problems/obstructions occur.

Back 130

right; left

Front 131

The __________ permit air to pass through from alveolus to alveolus. This allows pressure to be equalized if alveoli are blocked. Collateral ventilation / equal air distribution is goal.

Back 131

Pores of Kohn

Front 132

There are _____ million alveoli at birth and _____ by adulthood.

Back 132

25;300

Front 133

______ circulation has lower pressure than systemic pressure. (about 18 mmHg less)

Only 1/3 of vessels are filled with blood at any time

Back 133

Pulmonary

Front 134

The pulmonary artery divides and enters lung at the _______.

Back 134

hilus

Front 135

Central venous pressure and Right atrial pressure is the _____.

Back 135

same

Front 136

Left atrial pressure and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure are the ______.

Back 136

same

Front 137

We normally breath under _______ pressure.

Back 137

negative

Front 138

The usual tidal volume is _____ to _____ mL.

Back 138

400 to 800

Front 139

Accessory muscles for _______ are: sternocleidomastoid/scalene muscles

Back 139

inspiration

Front 140

Accessory muscles for ________ are abdominal/internal intercostal muscles

Back 140

expiration

Front 141

_________ is what keeps the alveoli from collapsing. It also prevents substances, such as protease from collecting in the alveoli.

Back 141

Surfactant

Front 142

Elastin is a _______ in the lungs that keeps them stretchy/recoilable.

Back 142

protein

Front 143

The total pressure of air at sea level is about ________ mmHg. 21% of this is oxygen and we only use about 4% of the o2 we breathe in.

Back 143

760 mmHg

Front 144

True or False: the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is a linear relationship?

Back 144

False.

Front 145

On the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, _______ can go from 60-100 and _______ can go from 90-100%.

Back 145

PaO2; O2 sat

Front 146

Alkalosis will cause oxyhemoglobin to ______ on to O2.

Back 146

Hold on to; Increased affinity for O2

Front 147

Acidosis will cause oxyhemoglobin to _______ of O2.

Back 147

Let go of; Decreased affinity for O2

Front 148

If your patient is ________, an O2 sat is an innaccurate measure to determine if the person is receiving enough O2. Blood gases/PaO2 is more accurate.

Back 148

anemic

Front 149

_________ may be subtle, but is a notable, early sign for hypoxemia.

Back 149

confusion

Front 150

Patient needs at least 5g of unsaturated hemoglobin to show signs of ________.

Back 150

cyanosis

Front 151

If the patient has chronic pulmonary HTN r/t disease like COPD, you may see ________ or _______.

Back 151

peripheral edema or JVD

Front 152

In an acidotic patient, there may be pulmonary constriction which can cause __________ HTN.

Back 152

pulmonary

Front 153

__________ decreases as patient ages r/t loss of recoil, flow resistance, stiff chest wall, and alterations in gas exchange.

Back 153

Ventilation

Front 154

__________ (low Co2) is rare unless the patient is hyperventilating.

Back 154

Hypocapnia

Front 155

__________ breathing is r/t traumatic head injury or ICP. It is a panting type of breathing.

Back 155

Cheyne-Stokes

Front 156

Normal VQ level is?

Back 156

Around 1.0

Front 157

If a patient has a ______ VQ level, the patient has a problem with _____. Example: asthma.

Back 157

lower (~0.5); air intake

Can be seen in asthma

Front 158

If a patient has a ______ VQ level, the patient has a problem with _____. Example: Pulmonary embolism, circulation issue.

Back 158

higher (~1.6); circulation

Front 159

A low VQ is a lack of ___________.

Back 159

airation

Front 160

A high VQ is a lack of _______.

Back 160

blood flow

Front 161

_______ breathing disorders make it harder to get air into lungs.

Back 161

Restrictive

Front 162

_________ breathing disorders make it harder to get air out of lungs.

Back 162

Obstructive

Front 163

Pulmonary edema usually is r/t problems on the _______ side of heart.

Back 163

left

Front 164

True or False: Pulmonary Edema with afib is possible?

Back 164

True

Front 165

True or False: Compression atelectasis is when something like a tumor prevents the alveoli from expanding?

Back 165

True

Front 166

True or False: Absorption atelectasis occurs when air can't move in/out of sacs. The body absorbs the remaining air and the alveoli collapse. The sacs don't fill back up because the passage is blocked.

Back 166

True

Front 167

When you listen to a patient with ____________, you may only hear the "snap, crackle, and pop" (ralls) on inspiration and NOT on expiration.

Back 167

atelectasis

Front 168

In _____________ you will hear the "snap, crackle, pop" or pulmonary ralls on inspiration and expiration.

Back 168

pulmonary edema

Front 169

A _______ is an inflammation in pleural space between parietal pleura and visceral pleura. It causes a grating sound.

Back 169

Pleurisy

Front 170

A _______ chest is an instable chest wall; it will collapse inward with a deep breath and move independently from other parts of chest.

Back 170

flail chest

Front 171

_________ is the prime finding in ARDS, a condition caused by damage to alveoli which causes them to become fibrotic and collapse. In this condition, the patient cannot respire adequately. You will usually just hear inspiratory ralls/crepitus on this patient.

Back 171

Atelectasis

Front 172

Chronic __________ is a productive cough that lasts 3 months or more for at least 2 years.

Back 172

Chronic bronchitis

Front 173

90% of adult bronchitis is __________.

Back 173

viral

Front 174

Emphysema is an _______ airway disease.

Back 174

Obstructive (can't get air out)

Front 175

The biggest risk for TB is __________.

Back 175

immunocompromised

Front 176

_____ causes a seal-like barking cough in children 6 months to 3 years. It can cause collapse of airway.

Back 176

Croup

Front 177

___________ is a severe, life threatening infection caused by Haemophilus Influenzae. It has decreased incidence with Hib vaccine. Can cause inspiratory stridor and severe respiratory distress.

Back 177

Acute Epiglottitis

Front 178

The most common ages for aspiration of foreign bodies are: _________ years old.

Back 178

1 to 3

Front 179

_________ of Newborn is also called hyaline membrane disease. It is caused by a lack of adequate surfactant in lungs. Primarily a disease of preterm infants.

Back 179

Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS) of Newborn

Front 180

Infants and young children get more ________ infections.

Back 180

Viral

Front 181

_______________ is a disease in the infant population that is of an unknown cause. It is more common in males. Peak incidence at 3-4 months. Increased risk with maternal smoking during pregnancy.

Back 181

Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)

Front 182

Cor Pulmonale is a pulmonary _____ disease. It is secondary to pulmonary HTN and an enlarged rt. ventricle is common.

Pulmonary HTN creates chronic pressure overload in rt. ventricle

Back 182

Heart

Front 183

The primary function of the _____ system is to:

Maintain a stable internal environment foroptimal cell and tissue metabolism, Balance solute and water transport, Excrete metabolic waste products, Conserve nutrients, Regulate acids and bases.

Back 183

Renal

Front 184

The hormone _________ is involved with regulation of blood pressure. It increases systemic arterial pressure, andincreases sodium reabsorption.

Back 184

Renin

Front 185

The hormone ____________ is involved with production of erythrocytes.

Back 185

Erythropoietin

Front 186

The hormone 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 is involved with the metabolism of _________.

Back 186

calcium

Front 187

Gluconeogenesis is the synthesis of ________ from amino acids.

Back 187

glucose

Front 188

The renal ________ surrounds each kidney; each kidney is embedded in a mass of fat.

Back 188

capsule

Front 189

The renal ______ is composed of fibrous tissue that attaches each kidney to the posterior abdominal wall.

Back 189

Fascia

Front 190

The renal ______ is the area where the renal blood vessels, nerves, lymphatic vessels, and ureter enter and exit the kidneys.

Back 190

Hilum

Front 191

The renal _______ is the outer layer of the kidney. It contains the glomeruli, proximal tubules, and segments of distal tubule.

Back 191

Cortex

Front 192

The renal _______ is the inner part of each kidney. It contains tubules and collecting duct. It consists of regions called "pyramids."

Back 192

medulla

Front 193

The renal _______ extend from cortex down between the renal pyramids.

Back 193

Columns

Front 194

The renal ________ joins the proximal end of the ureter.

Back 194

pelvis

Front 195

The ________ is the functional unit of the kidney. Each kidney contains approximately 1.2 million.

Back 195

nephron

Front 196

_________ nephrons make up 85% of all nephrons.

Back 196

Superficial cortical nephrons

Front 197

_________ nephrons have short/long loops.

Back 197

Midcortical

Front 198

_______ nephrons lie close to and extend deep into the medulla. These are important for concentrating urine and secrete renin.

Back 198

Juxtamedullary

Front 199

________ filtration membrane filters selected blood components through it's three layers.

Back 199

Glomerular

Front 200

The urethra is 3 to 4 cm long in ________.

Back 200

Females

Front 201

The urethra is 18 to 20 cm long in _______.

Back 201

males

Front 202

__________ fibers innervate the bladder and internal urethral sphincter.

Back 202

Parasympathetic

Front 203

__________ motor neurons in the pudenal nerve innervate the external urethral sphincter.

Back 203

Skeletal

Front 204

Micturation is ________.

Back 204

urination

Front 205

The urge to void is felt at around ______ to ______ mL of urine.

Back 205

250 to 300 mL

Front 206

The kidneys receive approximately 1000 to 1200 mL/min of _______. 600 to 700 mL of this is _______.

Back 206

Blood;plasma

Front 207

The _________ filtration rate (GFR) is the filtration of plasma into the Bowman space. This is approximately 20% of Renal Plasma Flow and is directly r/t the perfusion pressure in the glumerular capillaries.

Back 207

Glomerular

Front 208

If mean arterial pressure decreases or vascular resistance increases, the ________ decreases.

Back 208

Renal Blood Flow

Front 209

A strict autoregulation of 80 to 180 mmHg of pressure in the kidneys provides constant _______.

Back 209

Glomerular Filtration Rate

Front 210

The ___________ mechanism in the kidneys controls GFR with smooth muscle stretching/contracting.

As arterial pressure declines, stretch on theafferent arteriolar smooth muscle decreases, theafferent arteriole relaxes and glomerular perfusionincreases.

An increase in arteriolar pressure causes theafferent arteriole smooth muscle to contract anddecreases glomerular perfusion.

Back 210

Myogenic

Front 211

An _______ in arteriolar pressure causes theafferent arteriole smooth muscle to contract anddecreases glomerular perfusion.

Back 211

increase

Front 212

As arterial pressure ________ , stretch on the afferent arteriolar smooth muscle decreases, the afferent arteriole relaxes and glomerular perfusion increases.

Back 212

declines

Front 213

________ feedback in the kidneys is r/t sodium content.

Back 213

Tubuloglomerular

Front 214

When sodium filtration _______, GFR needs to bedecreased. ______ cells stimulate afferent arteriolarvasoconstriction.

Back 214

increases; macula densa

Front 215

When sodium filtration _______, the opposite istrue—GFR needs to be increased.

Back 215

decreases

Front 216

Any sympathetic stimulation (exercise, change of bodyposition, etc.) causes __________ to occur whichdiminishes GFR.

Back 216

vasoconstriction

Front 217

Severe hypoxia: Stimulation of chemoreceptors... _______ RBF by means of sympathetic stimulation.

Back 217

decreases

Front 218

Baroreceptor reflex: Vasoconstriction of afferentarterioles with activation of α1-adrenoreceptors... _________ glomerular perfusion and GFR.

Back 218

decreases

Front 219

_____ and _____ are natriuretic peptides that... Inhibit sodium and water absorption by kidney tubules, Inhibit secretion of renin and aldosterone, Vasodilate the afferent arterioles; constrict the efferentarterioles, Increase urine formation, leading to decreased blood volumeand blood pressure; promote sodium and water loss.

Back 219

ANP; BNP