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168 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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A perons hair color and eye color is determined by:
A. Genotye B. Karyotype C. Phenotype |
C. Phenotype
Genotype is your DNA Karyotype is photograph of a persons chromosomes i.e. X-Y-XX |
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How many genes does a person possess?
A. 30,000 B. 60,000 C. 10,000 |
A. 30,000
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A photograph of a persons chromosomes is an example of:
A. Genotype B. Phenotype C. Karyotype |
C. Karyotype
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Each human somatic cell has _____ pairs of different chromosomes.
A. 36 pairs B. 23 pairs C. 46 pairs |
B. 23 pairs
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What is part of the Pyrimidine bases:
A. Thymine & cytosine B. Adenine & guanine C. Adenine & thymine |
A. thymine & cytosine
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What is part of the Purine bases:
A. Thymine & cytosine B. Adenine & guanine C. Cytosine & guanine |
B. Adenine & guanine
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The genetic information carried by nitrogenous bases consists of Pyrimidine & Purine bases.
True or False |
True
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All the following are associated with single gene disorders except:
A. caused by a defective gene at a single locus B. Characterized by patterns of transmission C. Lead to abnormalities in protein synthesis and enzyme production D. Duplication in the DNA |
D. Duplication in the DNA is gene mutation
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Marfan Syndrome affects all the following except:
A. Ocular system B. Muscular system C. Cardiovascular system D. Skeletal system |
B. muscular system
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What type of disorder is Marfan Syndrome:
A. Autosomal dominant disorder B. Autosomal recessive disorder C. X-Linked disorder |
A. Autosomal dominant disorder
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You would see all the following symptoms in a patient with Marfan Syndrome except.
A. Flat nasal bridge B. Spider fingers C. Hyperextensible joints D. Kyphosis/scoliosis E. Weakness of the aorta & other arteries F. Myopia |
A. Flat nasal bridge is seen in fetal alcohol syndrome
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All the following are examples of multifactoral inheritance disorders for congenital disorders except:
A. Cleft lip/palate B. Clubfoot C. Congenital heart disease D. Urinary tract malformation E. Diabetes mellitus |
E. Diabetes Mellitus
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All the following are examples of multifactoral inheritance disorders for environmental factors except:
A. Coronary artery disease B. Diabetes mellitus C. Cancer D. Hypertension E. Bipolar disorder/Schizophrenia F. Congenital heart disease |
F. Congenital heart disease is congenital disorder
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Examples of environmental influences on fetal development teratogenic agent include all the following except:
A. Radiation B. Chemicals & drugs C. Infectious agents D. All the above |
D. all the above
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What type of chemicals and drugs are known to influence fetal development.
A. Warfarin B. Alcohol C. Cocaine D. Cancer medication E. All the above |
E. All the above
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What time period would the embryo be at most risk or vulnerable during organogenesis:
A. 1 to 15 days B. 30 to 90 days C. 15 to 60 days D. 15 to 90 days |
C. 15 to 60 days
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When a child has a flat nasal bridge and small chin he is most likely suffering from:
A. Fetal alcohol syndrome B. Marfan syndrome C. Neurofibromatosis D. Huntington chorea |
A. Fetal alcohol syndrome
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All the following are autosomal recessive disorders except:
A. Cystic fibrosis B. Sickle cell disease C. Marfan Syndrome D. Tay-Sachs disease |
C. Marfan Syndrome because it is autosomal dominant disorder
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Which of the following is a autosomal dominant disorder:
A. Sickle cell disease B. Marfan Syndrome C. Tay-Sachs disease D. Cystic fibrosis |
B. Marfan Syndrome
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The two classes of defense immune system are innate/natural immunity and acquired/specific immunity. True or False
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True
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All the following are physical barriers for the Innate/Natural Immunity except:
A. Acidity of stomach B. Skin C. Mucous membranes D. Respiratory tract/Cilia mucosa E. GI & GU tract |
A. Acidity of stomach is antibacterial agents for Innate/Natural Immunity
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All the following are antibacterial agents for the Innate/Natural Immunity except:
A. Skin B. Acidity of stomach C. GU tract D. Vagina E. Respiratory tract |
E. Respiratory tract is part of physical barriers of Innate/Natural Immunity
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The key cells of innate immunity for the inflammatory response include all of the following except:
A. Neutrophils B. Macrophages C. B cells D. NK cells E. Dendritic cells/intraepithelial |
C. B cells
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_________are important in innate immunity and acute inflammation which include acute –phase proteins, lectins and complement.
A. Cytokins B. Opsonins C. Chemokines |
B. Opsonins are coating materials that bind to the microbe then activates the phagocyte.
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_______ cells are involved in the first stage of antibody production.
A. NK cells B. B cells C. T cells |
B. B cells
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_____ cells are part of the innate immune system and may be the first line of defense against viral infections.
A. B. cells B. T. cells C. NK cells |
C. NK cells
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Antigen is a substance that stimulates an immune response which is not part of the person’s body. These would include all the following except:
A. Virus/Bacteria B. Fungus C. Parasites D. Donated blood E. Proteins |
E. Proteins
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What would be an example of sensitized immunity:
A. A Cold B. Chicken pox C. Pneumonia |
B. Chicken pox (once you develop immunity you should not develop it again)
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Natural Killer cells (NK) have the ability to recognize and kill tumor cells, abnormal body cells, viruses and intracellular bacteria.
True or False |
True
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All the following are distinct sub types of lymphocytes except:
A. Natural killer cells B. T cells C. X-linked cells D. B cells |
C. X-linked cells
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The reactions of the complement system are all the following phases except:
A. The initial activation phase B. The early step inflammatory responses C. Ability to phagocitize organisms D. The late step membrane attack responses |
C. Ability to phagocitize organisms
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A ___________ immune response occurs when an antigen is first introduced in the body, where there is a latent period or lag before the antibody can be detected in the serum.
A. Primary B. Secondary C. Memory response |
A. Primary
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During the __________ response the rise in antibody occurs sooner and reaches a higher level because of available memory cells.
A. Primary B. Memory C. Secondary |
C. Secondary
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During the primary response, _______ are activated to proliferate and differentiate into antibody-secreting plasma cells and production of antibodies.
A. B cells B. T cells C. Memory cells |
A. B cells
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Humoral immunity is which type of immunity:
A. Innate/Natural immunity B. Acquired/Specific Immunity |
B. Acquired/Specific Immunity
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What cells are part of the humoral immunity:
A. B cells B. T cells C. NK cells |
A. B cells
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All the following are cell mediated immunity except:
A. Cytotoxic cells B. Killer T cells C. T cells D. Memory cells |
D. memory cells
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Which of the following combination of antigen with antibody can result in several effector responses under humoral immunity:
A. Eliminates bacterial invaders B. Neutralization of bacterial toxins C. Produce & secrete immunoglobins (antibodies) D. All the above |
D. all the above
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During the __________ response, the memory cells recognize the antigen and respond more efficiently to produce the specific antibody and secrete immunoglobulins.
A. Primary B. Secondary |
B. Secondary
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Which immunoglobulin is most abundant at 80% of the plasma antibodies and the only immunoglobulin that crosses the placenta:
A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE |
B. IgG
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Which immunoglobulin produces initial response against large antigens:
A. IgE B. IgA C. IgM D. IgG |
C. IgM (way to remember "M" for macro means large)
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Which immunoglobulin activates antigens before they enter the body and is found on mucosa barriers and secretes antibody fluids i.e. saliva, tears, nasal & respiratory secretions, & breast milk
A. IgM B. IgA C. IgE D. IgG |
B. IgA
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All the following play an important role in the first year of an infants life except:
A. IgM B. IgE C. IgA D. IgG |
B. IgE
(IgA because of breast milk, IgG because it crosses placenta/transfer immunity from mother to fetus and IgM because it’s the first antibody type made by a newborn) |
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Which immunoglobulin binds to mast cells and basophils; releases histamines and is involved in allergic and hypersensitivity reactions:
A. IgA B. IgE C. IgG D. IgD |
B. IgE
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Which immunoglobulin neutralizes toxins such as a snake bite and enters the tissues due to small size:
A. IgG B. IgE C. IgA D. IgD |
A. IgG because it’s the smallest
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All the following are immune responses referred to as cell-mediated immunity (T cells) except:
A. activation of other T cells and B cells B. Control of intracellular viral infections C. rejection of foreign tissue grafts D. Delayed hypersensitivity reactions E. Neutralization of bacterial toxins |
E. Neutralization of bacterial toxins is humoral immunity (B-cells)
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In cell-mediated immunity, T lymphocytes (T-cells), effector cells are involved in actions against antigens, activated by antigens, and directly destroy the antigens are examples of all except:
A. Cytotoxic cells B. Helper T cells C. NK cells |
B. Helper T cells
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Which type of cell searches out and destroys cells that have the potential for becoming cancerous and they are on a constant lookout known as immune surveillance
A. Natural Killer T cells B. Helper T cells C. Supressor T cells |
A. Natural Killer T cells
Helper T. cells phagocytize antigens and releases lymphokines Supressor T cells release mediators that stop the B cells and mast cells from reacting |
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What is the shape of the thymus:
A. Oval B. Round C. Elongated |
C. Elongated
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Which lymphoid organ is fully developed at birth and slowly regresses during old age.
A. Heart B. Lymph Nodes C. Spleen D. Thymus |
D. Thymus
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What is the importance of the Thymus:
A. T cells multiply, mature and protects against autoimmunity B. Filters removal of foreign material from the blood stream C. Filters antigens from the blood and important to response to systemic infection |
A. T cells multiply, mature and protect against autoimmunity
Lymph Nodes: Filters removal of foreign material from the blood stream is handled by the lymph nodes Spleen: filters antigens from the blood and important to response to systemic infection |
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Where is the Thymus located:
A. In the cortex B. In the neck region of the heart C. In your esophagus |
B. in the neck region of the heart
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_________ immunity is through immunization or actually having the disease:
A. Active B. Passive C. Humoral D. Cell-Mediated |
A. Active
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_____________ immunity is transferred from another source i.e. breast milk, blood
A. Active B. Passive C. Humoral D. Cell-Mediated |
B. Passive
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The ability of the immune system to be non-reactive to self antigens while producing immunity to foreign agents and also protects from harmful autoimmune reactions is:
A. Immunity B. Adaption C. Tolerance D. Hypersensitivity |
C. Tolerance
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Why do the elderly have a decreased immune response:
A. Decrease thymus glands B. Increase thymus glands C. Decrease spleen production D. Decrease in lymph Node flow |
A. Decrease thymus glands
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What immune disorder is an under response to a disease i.e. AIDS.
A. Hypersensitivity B. Autoimmunity C. Immunodeficiency |
C. Immunodeficiency
Hypersensitivity is an over-response i.e. allergy Autoimmunity can’t recognize itself (misdirected response) i.e. lupus, diabetes, arthritis |
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AIDS is an example of Primary Acquired deficient immunity response.
True or False |
True
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All the following are defective neuroendocrine responses except:
A. Physical B. Psychosocial C. Chemical D. Environmental E. Pharmacologic |
C. Chemical
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Which of the following are transmission routes for HIV & AIDS:
A. Sexual contact B. Parenteral routes C. Perinatal routes D. All the above |
D. All the above
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The diagnosis of positive HIV means that a person has been infected with AIDS.
True or False |
False (its false because you don’t have AIDS until you have a pronounced decrease in your T cell count.
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What is the number one cause of death in patients with AIDS.
A. Lupus B. HIV C. Opportunistic infections D. Cancer |
B. HIV
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The test to diagnose HIV is:
A. CBC B. Western Blot C. ESR D. Hematocrit |
B. Western Blot
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The phases of HIV infection are all the following except:
A. Primary infection B. Latent Period C. Window Period D. Overt AIDS |
C. Window Period
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If a patient has been infected with HIV and converts from being negative to positive, this is called:
A. Seroconversion B. Primary infection C. Overt HIV D. Latent Period |
A. Seroconversion
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The time after infection and before seroconverstion is called the window period.
True or False |
True
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During the latent period a patient has symptoms of fever, fatigue, diarrhea & sweating.
True or False |
False
you do not have symptoms during latent period |
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During overt AIDs the T-cells are ____________.
A. Stable B. Decreased C. Increased |
B. Decreased
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All the following are examples of an opportunisitic infection except:
A. Lupus B. Kaposi’s sarcoma C. Pneumocystis carinii D. P. jiroveci |
A. Lupus
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Which hypersensitivity has IgE involvement and releases inflammatory mediators:
A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV |
A. Type 1
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Which type of hypersensitivity is involved with local reactions such as pollen, dander, dust, allergic rhinitis & urticaria:
A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV |
A. Type I
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Which type of hypersensitivity is involved with local reactions such as drugs, food, hives & intestinal cramps & diarrhea.
A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV |
A. Type I
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A patient has Type I Hypersensitivity is having a systemic reactions which is life threatening. What type of reaction might he be experiencing:
A. Allergic rhinitis B. Hives C. Urticaria D. Anaphylaxis |
D. Anaphylaxis
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All the following are common allergens that can lead to Anaphylaxis EXCEPT:
A. Drugs (penicillin) B. Pet dander C. Insect bites (bees/wasps) D. Foods (Peanuts, strawberries) |
B. Pet dander
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All the following vascular events take place in anaphylaxis except:
A. Hypertension B. Histamine release C. Increased capillary permeability D. Systemic edema |
A. Hypertension
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All the following vascular events take place in anaphylaxis except:
A. Vasodilation of vessels B. Hypotension C. Vasoconstriction D. Reduced cardiac output E. Circulatory failure |
C. Vasoconstriction
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All the following respiratory events take place in anaphylaxis except:
A. Spasms of bronchial muscles B. Histamine release C. Increased capillary permeability D. Decreased capillary permeability |
D. decreased capillary permeability
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All the following respiratory events take place in anaphylaxis except:
A. Dyspnea B. Suffocation C. Edema of larynx D. Decreased capillary permeability E. Spasm of bronchial muscles |
D. Decreased capillary permeability
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Which immunoglobins are involved in Type II Hypersensitivity:
A. IgD & IgA B. IgG & IgM C. IgE & IgA |
B. IgG & IgM
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An example of a mismatched blood transfusion reaction is a type of what antibody mediated mechanism:
A. Complement and antibody mediated cell destruction B. Complement and antibody mediated inflammation C. Antibody mediated cellular dysfunction |
A. complement and antibody mediated cell destruction
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If a patient is suffering from glomerulonephritis which results in tissue inflammation & destruction which type of hypersensitivity would he be suffering from:
A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV |
C. Type III
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All the following are Type III hypersensitivity except:
A. Glomerulonephritis B. Systemic Lupus Erytheromatosus C. Diabetes Mellitus |
C. Diabetes Mellitus
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Autoimmunity is when the body attacks itself.
True or False |
True
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Which type of hypersensitivity is antigen-antibody complex deposition in tissues:
A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV |
C. Type III
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Which type of hypersensitivity is delayed and direct cell mediated cytotoxicity:
A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV |
D. Type IV
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A person suffering from inflammatory response due to poison ivy, dyes, chemical reaction or contact hypersensitivity is which type of hypersensitivity:
A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV |
D. Type IV
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Examples of autoimmune disorders is all the following except:
A. Lupus B. Rheumatoid Arthritis C. Genetic Factors D. Kaposi’s sarcoma E. Environmental Triggers |
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
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Which of the following is a bronchodilator?
A. Guaifenesin B. Theophylline C. Acetylcysteine D. Epinephrine |
B. Theophylline
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Which of the following types of immuglobins is the most responsible for promoting allergic reactions:
A. IgA B. IgG C. IgE D. IgM |
C. IgE
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Potassium sparing diuretics have the primary effect upon the ______ found in the kidney.
A. Loop of Henle B. Distal convoluted Tubule C. AV Node |
B. Distal convoluted Tubule
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If a patient has a potassium level of 5.5 then they would have:
A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hypermagnesium |
A. Hyperkalemia
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If a patient had calcium level of 7.0 mg/dL they would have:
A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hypercalcemia |
C. Hypocalcemia
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What is the main organ that magnesium works with:
A. Heart B. Thymus C. Kidney D. Spleen |
C. Kidney
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Which of the following types of immuglobins is located on the surface of most B lymphocytes:
A. IgA B. IgE C. IgG D. IgD |
D. IgD
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__________ immunodeficiency disorder are congenital or inherited abnormalities of immune function that render a person susceptible to diseases normally prevent by an intact immune system:
A. Primary B. Secondary |
A. Primary
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HIV infection is diagnosed using the ________ or __________, both of which are antibody detection tests:
A. INR & EIA B. Western Blot & INR C. Western Blot & EIA D. BNP & EIA |
C. Western Blot & EIA
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An advantage of salmeterol (Proventil) is:
A. shorter acting B. time released C. longer duration of action |
C. longer duration of action
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All the following are phases of HIV infection except:
A. Primary infection B. Window period C. Latent Period D. Overt AIDS |
B. Window period
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Which stage of HIV infection would the person have mononucleosis, fever, fatigue, myalgias, sore throat:
A. Window Period B. Primary Infection C. Latent Period D. Secondary Infection |
B. Primary Infection
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Which stage of HIV infection would the person have CD4+ cell count of less than 200 cells/uL or an AIDS defining illness:
A. Overt AIDS B. Window Period C. Latent Period D. Primary Infection |
A. Overt AIDS
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In the United States, the most common opportunistic infection presenting manifestation of AIDS during the first decade of the epidemic was:
A. Kaposi Sarcoma B. Graves disease C. Myathesia gravis D. Pneumocystis Carinii |
D. Pneumocystis Carinii
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One of the first opportunistic cancers associated with AIDS and still most frequent malignancy related to HIV infection (cancerous lesions of the skin):
A. Kaposi Sarcoma B. Pneumocystis Carinii C. Glomerulonephritis D. Lupus |
A. Kaposi Sarcoma
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The most common type of allergy reacton to latex gloves is a contact dermatitis caused by:
A. Type II B. Type III C. Type IV |
C. Type IV
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All the following are Type II Hypersensitivity Antibody mediated mechanisms except:
A. Antigen-antibody complex deposition in tissues B. complement and antibody mediated cell destruction C. complement and antibody mediated inflammation D. antibody mediated cellular dysfunction |
A. Antigen-antibody complex deposition in tissues
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An example of an autoimmune disease is all the following except:
A. Lupus B. Rheumatoid Arthritis C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Graves disease E. Fibromyalgia |
E. Fibromyalgia
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If sodium level was less than 135 mEq/L then the patient would have:
A. Hyperkalemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypernatremia D. Hypokalemia |
B. Hyponatremia
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Which of the following is NOT an autoimmune disease?
A. Graves disease B. Alzeimers disease C. Myathesia gravis D. Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus |
B. Alzeimers disease
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Which of the following is NOT an underlying cause of hypercalcemia:
A. Pagets disease B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Hartnup disease D. Sarcoidosis |
C. Hartnup disease
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What is accumulation of fluid in the abdomen and is common in people with liver disease?
A. Diaphoresis B. Ascites C. Hypodipsia |
B. Ascites
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Normal perspiration is called insensible whereas abnormal "drenched in sweat" is called __________.
A. Diaphoresis B. Fluid Overload C. Hypodipsia |
A. Diaphoresis
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When would you likely see someone with diaphoresis?
A. High blood sugar B. Low blood sugar C. Walk around the block D. diabetic |
B. Low blood sugar
Low blood sugar would cause excessive sweating |
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When an elderly is unable to ask for or drink fluids, what would this be called?
A. diaphoresis B. Hypodipsia C. Thirst deficit |
B. Hypodipsia
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__________ is the regulator of water output.
A. Aldactone B. Loop of Henle C. ADH (anti-diuretic hormone) |
C. ADH (anti-diuretic hormone)
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What is the most common electrolyte found in intracellular fluid?
A. Magnesium B. Calcium Gluconate C. Sodium D. Potassium |
D. Potassium
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What is hydrostatic pressure?
A. outward movement of fluid from the capillary B. pushing force exerted by a fluid C. pulling force created when particles can't pass through the pores of the capillary membrane. |
B. pushing force exerted by a fluid
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What is colloidal osmotic pressure:
A. pulling force created when particles can't pass through the pores of the capillary membrane. B. pushing force exerted by a fluid C. outward movement of fluid from the capillary membrane. |
A. pulling force created when particles can't pass through the pores of the capillary membrane.
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What is interstitial pressure:
A. pulling force created when particles can't pass through the pores of the capillary membrane. B. pushing force exerted by a fluid C. outward movement of fluid from the capillary membrane. |
C. outward movement of fluid from the capillary membrane.
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What is the movement of water from an area of lower concentration to an area of greater concentration of solutes (electrolytes)?
A. Osmosis B. Pleural effusion C. Pericardial effusion D. Ascites |
A. Osmosis
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What is most common medication given for Hypocalcemia?
A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin K C. Calcium gluconate D. Potassium Chloride |
C. Calcium gluconate
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If a patient had a mild case of isotonic fluid volume deficit, what might the doctor prescribe?
A. IV of 0.9 saline B. 3% solution of sodium C. Potassium w/0.9 saline D. IV of dextrose 5% in water (D-5-W) |
A. IV of 0.9 saline
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If a patient had a severe case of fluid volume deficit, would might you see the doctor prescribe?
A. IV of 0.9 saline B. 3% solution of sodium C. Potassium w/0.9 saline D. IV of dextrose 5% in water (D-5-W) |
B. 3% solution of sodium
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All fluid that surrounds the cells and fluid contained in the vascular system are:
A. Intracellular fluid B. Interstitial fluid C. Extracellular fluid |
C. Extracellular fluid
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All the following are third spacing of fluids except:
A. Pleural effusion B. Pericardia effusion C. Ascites D. Extracellular fluid |
D. Extracellular fluid
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Osmolarity of the blood plasma (serum) is determined by ________ contained in the plasma?
A. Potassium B. Magnesium C. Calcium D. Sodium |
D. Sodium
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A patient with an elevated serum Sodium (Na+) would have:
A. hyperosmolarity B. hypoosmolarity C. Osmosis D. Homestasis |
A. hyperosmolarity
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What is the major source of water loss:
A. exercise B. perspiration C. lungs D. kidneys |
D. kidneys
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Kidneys continue to produce urine as a means of ridding the body of metabolic wastes. This urine output is called obligatory urine output. How much would you expect to see a patient lose per day:
A. 200 to 500 mL/day B. 300 to 500 mL/day C. 500 to 900 mL/day |
B. 300 to 500 mL/day
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Where is the hydrostatic pressure the highest, arterial end or venous end ?
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Arterial end
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All the following are causes of isotonic fluid volume deficit EXCEPT:
A. vomiting B. diarrhea C. misuse of diuretics D. loss of thirst |
D. loss of thirst
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All the following are signs & symptoms of hypotonic fluid volume deficit EXCEPT:
A. diarrhea B. poor skin turgor C. decreased urine output D. BP decreased E. Heart rate increase F. Dry Skin |
A. Diarrhea
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All the following are causes of fluid volume excess (fluid overload) EXCEPT:
A. Impaired kidney function B. Heart failure C. Vomiting D. Fluid retention related to stress E. Excessive intake of water and sodium |
C. Vomiting
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In a patient with dehydration (fluid volume deficit) the Hct is increased because:
A. Impaired kidney failure B. Excessive intake of water C. Blood Pressure rises D. Blood compoents such as RBC's and BUN become more concentrated. |
D. Blood compoents such as RBC's and BUN become more concentrated.
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What does the hematocrit (Hct) blood test show?
A. density of urine B. % or proportion of RBC's to the plasma (fluid) C. determines if kidneys are functioning properly |
B. % or proportion of RBC's to the plasma (fluid)
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If a male patient has a hematocrit (Hct) level of 60% what would you expect he could be suffering from:
A. Low blood sugar B. Kidney Failure C. Dehydration |
C. Dehydration
In a patient with dehydration (fluid volume deficit) the hematocrit (Hct) is increased Normal values for males: 42% to 54% |
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What is the normal range for adults for specific gravity of urine?
A. 1.010-1.025 B. 1.000-1.025 C. 1.025-1.050 |
A. 1.010-1.025
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If glucose or protein are in urine, what will happen to the specific gravity of urine?
A. slightly decreases B. becomes elevated C. does not change |
B. becomes elevated
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When specific gravity of urine is "fixed" what happens?
A. slightly decreases B. becomes elevated C. does not change |
C. does not change
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Where does Furosemide (Lasix) work within the kidneys?
A. Extracellular space B. Distal convoluted tubule C. Loop of Henle |
C. Loop of Henle
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What would a concern be for a patient taking Spironlactone (aldactone):
A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypocalcemia |
A. Hyperkalemia
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What side effect would you expect to see in a patient taking a potassium sparing diuretic like hydrochlorothiazide or spironolactone (Alactone):
A. Hypokalemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hyperkalemia |
D. Hyperkalemia
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An individual has a serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. The nurse anticipates treatment will involve administration of which medication?
A. Potassium Chloride B. ADH (Anti-diuretic hormone) C. Calcium gluconate (Kalcinate) D. Spironlactone (Aldactone) |
C. Calcium gluconate (Kalcinate)
This patient has hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate can offset the effects of hyperkalemia on the heart |
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Oral calcium should not be administered with which food?
A. Spinach B. Bananas C. Cereals D. Avacados |
A. Spinach
Certain foods suppress calcium absorption. Oxalic acid, found in spinach, rhubarb, & beets is depressant. |
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All the following statements about Benedryl are true except:
A. reduces symptoms of seasonal allergic rhinitis B. reduces redness, itching & edema in patients with acute urticaria C. blocks release of epinephrine D. inhibits the dilator properties of histamine. |
C. blocks release of epinephrine
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The action of hypercorticoid steroids such as hypercortisone cream include:
A. produces prostaglandins, leukotrienes & histamine B. reduction in capillary dilation & permeability C. Excel production of lymphocytes |
B. reduction in capillary dilation and permeability
It actually inhibit the production of chemical mediators such as prostaglandins, leukotrienes & histamine It also slows down the production of lymphocytes. |
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A patient comes to the emergency room having difficulty breathing immediately after eating strawberries. The nurse should immediately suspect he is suffering from:
A. Systemic Anaphylaxis B. Allergic rhinitis C. Delayed-Type Hypersensitivity Disorder |
A. Systemic Anaphylaxis
Allergic rhinitis is local reaction from pollens, dander & dust Delayed-Type Hypersensitivity Disorders is from dyes, chemicals & cosmetics |
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What are the physiological events that occur in anaphylaxis shock that could be life threatening:
A. Loss of intravascular volume & Hypervolemic Shock B. Increase heart rate C. overload of fluid in vascular system D. relaxation of bronchial smooth muscles D. Circulatory failure |
A. Loss of intravascular volume & Hypervolemic Shock
Decreased intravascular volume results in decreased venous return to the heart and a decreased CVP (central venous pressure) which could cause veins to collapse |
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The most common cause of hypercalcemia is:
A. insufficient intake of calcium B. Pancreatitis C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Decreased Renal absorption |
C. Hyperparathyroidism
Other causes are vitamin D OVERconsumption; bone tumors & INCREASED intestinal absorption of calcium secondary to large amounts of vitamin D |
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Functions of the T-lymphocytes include all the following except:
A. Produce antibodies B. Activate B cells C. Do not produce antibodies |
C. Do not produce antibodies
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Humoral immunity depends on maturation of B lymphocytes into plasma cells. Which of the following is an effector response to the combination of antigen with antibody:
A. Cytotoxic cells destroy antigens B. NK cells destroy cancer cells C. neutralization of bacterial toxins and viruses D. Recruit & activate other cytotoxic T cells |
C. neutralization of bacterial toxins and viruses
Under Cell-mediated immunity effector cells: NK T cells destroy cancer cells; recruit & activate other cytotoxic T cells & cytotoxic cells destroy antigens |
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In Type I hypersensitivity release of mast cell mediators occurs. All the following mediators are released except:
A. thyroxine B. histamine C. acetylcholine D. adenosine E. Enzymes such as Chymase & Trypsin |
A. thyroxine
Type II hypersensitivity reactions include this. |
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Type III, immune complex-mediated disorders are mediated by all the following except:
A. Glomerulonephritis B. complement fixation C. tissue destruction D. tissue inflammation E. Cellular dysfunction |
E. cellular dysfunction
This is Type II Hypersensitivity |
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Autoimmune diseases are conditions which the immune system:
A. initiates responses which attack and damage the body tissue B. produces antibodies to block damaging cells C. recognizes self |
A. initiates responses which attack and damage the body tissue.
Autoimmune diseases are caused by a breakdown in the ability of the immune system to differentiate between self and nonself antigens. |
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A person initially infected with HIV has an acute mononucleosis like syndrome known as primary infection. What commom symptom might you expect to see in a patient with primary infection:
A. diarrhea B. fever C. Dyspena |
B. fever
The acute phase known as the primary infection phase would show signs of fever, fatigue, myalgias, sore throat, night weats, GI problems, lymphadenophaty, maculopapular rash and headache. MOST COMMON SYMPTOMS: Fever and Malaise (feeling tired) |
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A 25 year old male is suspected of having AIDS. Which test would most likely be used to confirm this finding:
A. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) B. Western blot assay C. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) |
B. Western Blot
All are test used to detect AIDS but Western Blot is confirmatory test. |
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The most common causes of respiratory disease in persons with HIV infections are all the following except:
A. bacterial pneumonia B. Pneumocystis carinii (P. jiroveci) C. Kaposi's sarcoma D. Pulmonary TB |
C. Kaposi's sarcoma
Pneumocystis carinii (P. jiroveci) was the most common presenting manifesation of AIDS during the first decade of the epidemic. It's caused by an organism that is common in soil, houses, and environment. |
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Albuterol (Proventil) is used in the treatment of asthma to:
A. decrease inflammation B. promote bronchodilation C. decrease airway mucus production D. suppress the effects of leukotriene compounds |
B. promote bronchodilation
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Which type of patient teaching would you give your client taking Theophylline (Theolair-SR):
A. Advise the client to take when he has an acute asthma attack. B. Advise the client to take this medication once daily at bedtime C. Client should avoid caffine when using this oral medication D. Client can take this every 12 hrs. |
C. Client should avoid caffine when using this oral medication
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All the following are common adverse reactions would you expect to see in a patient taking Albuterol (Proventil) except:
A. Tachycardia B. Bradycardia C. Angina D. Tremors E. Anxiety & Relessness |
B. Bradycardia
This woud not be side effect you would see |
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Hydrochlorothiazide has just been prescribed for a client with hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in client teaching?
A. "Your diet should include foods high in potassium." B. "Take the medication right before bedtime." C. "You may notice some swelling in your feet." D. "Avoid drinking liquids early in the morning." |
A. "Your diet should include foods high in potassium."
Clients taking hydrochlorothiazide are at risk for potassium loss. Eating foods like bananas, cantaloupe, white potatoes help. Diuretics should be taken in the morning. Clients should notice decrease swelling and fluids are best taken in the morning. |
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Which of the following side effects should a client taking furosemide (Lasix) for hypertension be assessed for?
A. Visual disturbances B. Hearing Loss C. Tremors D. Restlessness |
B. Hearing Loss
Lasix is ototoxic and may cause hearing loss. None of the others are side effects. |
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A client taking spironolactone (Aldactone) should be observed for which of the following adverse effects?
A. Hyponatremia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hyperglycemia |
C. Hyperkalemia
Spionolactone has potassium sparing effect |
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A client receiving IV magnesium sulfate is being evaluated for toxicity. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?
A. Calcium gluconate B. Potassium chloride C. Sodium bicarbonate D. Sodium polystyrene sulonate |
A. Calcium gluconate
Calcium gluconate is antidote for hypermagnesimia Potassium chloride is given for hypokalemia |
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Which of the following signs of toxicity should a client be monitored for when receiving magnesium sulfate by the IV route?
A. constipation B. increased respiratory rate C. depressed deep tendon reflexes D. peripheral edema |
C. depressed deep tendon reflexes
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What would the nurse expect to see prescribed for anemia in a client with chronic renal failure?
A. Albumin B. Potassium C. Epoetin Alfa (Erythropoietin) D. Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxzole (Bactrim) |
C. Epoetin Alfa (Erythropoietin
Used for anemia of chronic renal failure |
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What immediate drug treatment would you see in a patient in anaphylactic shock:
A. Epinephrine (Adrenaline) B. Clonidine (Catapres) C. Hydrocortisone |
A. Epinephrine (Adrenaline)
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What would the medication of choice be for urinary tract infections caused by Pneumocystis carinii.
A. Epoetin Alfa (Procrit) B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Batrim) |
C. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Batrim)
Procrit is for anemic patients with chronic renal failure Hydrochlorothiazide is used to treat hypertension and edema associated w/heart failure |
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An early symptom of acute hypoxemia is:
A. nausea B. confusion C. fatigue D. abdominal cramping |
B. confusion
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Albuteroil is useful for treatment of asthma because of its ____________ effects:
A. Bronchodilation B. Vasoconstriction C. Bronchoconstriction D. Anti-coagulant |
A. Bronchodilation
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