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92 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what is the causative factors of REFLUX ESOPHAGITIS
the action of the gastric juices is critical to the development of esophageal mucosal injury
1. decreased LES tone
2. CNS depressants
3. hypothyroidism
4. pregnancy
5. alcohol/tobacco
6. presence of sliding hiatal hernia
7. delayed gastric emptying and increased gastric vol.
what is Barrett Esophagus a major risk factor for?

what happens
1. esophageal adenocarcinoma
2. distal squamous mucosa is replaced by metaplastic epithelium
what are the TWO criteria are required for the diagnosis of Barrett Esophagus
1. columnar epithelial lining above the gastroesphageal junction
2. intestinal metaplasia of the columnar epithelium
what is a morphologically definitive diagnosis for Barrett Esophagus
1. presence of intestinal goblet among columnar epithelium
2. DYSPLASIA (pre-malignancy, adenocarcinoma)
what are the clinical characteristics of squamous cell carcinoma (esophagus)
1. dysphagia
2. obstruction
3. difficulty in swallowing
4. weight loss
5. hemorrhage/sepsis
6. aspiration of food via cancerous fistula
in esophageal squamous cell carcinoma:
what are the mutagenic compounds?
1. alcohol (polycyclic hydrocarbons, fuel oils, and nitrosamine)
2. tobacco
in esophageal squamous cell carcinoma:
where does the esophageal lesions begin
1. lesion begin as intraepithelial neoplasm (carcinoma in situ, CIS)
2. PROTRUDING most common morphological pattern
what is a characteristic of an adenocarcinoma
1. malignant epithelial tumor with GLANDULAR differentiation
2. majority of case arise from BARRETT MUCOSA (distal esophagus)
3. tobacco, obesity, H.pylori are risk factors
what is the difference between acute and chronic gastritis
inflammation of the gastric mucosa with a prodominant...

1. acute: NEUTROPHILIC infiltrate
2. chronic: LYMPHOCYTE and PLASMA CELL infiltrate
what are the etiological factors associated with ACUTE gastritis
1. HEAVY NSAID USE
2. INCREASE ALCOHOL USE
3. heavy smoking
4. severe stress
5. uremia
6. cancer chemotherapy
what are the etiological factors associated with chronic gastritis
1. H. PYLORI (90% of cases)
2. GASTRIC HYPERACIDITY
3. autoimmune
4. alcohol/tobacco
5. radiation
why is H.pylori so common in chronic gastritis?
what factors contribute to its efficiency
1. gram (-)
2. UREASE produce ammonia to buffer gastric acid
3. produces ADHESIN which allows is to bind to gastric epithelium (more significant in type O blood groups)
4. DOES NOT INVADE GASTRIC EPITHELIUM
what are the important morphological changes in chronic gastritis
1. REGENERATIVE changes are seen (increased mitosis)
2. INTESTINAL METAPLASIA (columnar absorptive cells)
3. atrophy of glandular epithelium
4. lymphocyte and plasma cells in lamina propia
what is peptic ulcer disease and how does it occur
1. breach in mucosa of the alimentary tract, extends through muscularis mucosae into the submucosa or deeper
2. occurs in the DUODENUM and STOMACH
3. most duodenal ulcers are near the pyloric ring on the anterior wall
4. gastric ulcers are located mostly along lesser curvature
what are the FOUR purposed mechanism for H.pylori role in peptic ulcers
1. produces protease, breaks down glycoproteins in gastric mucosa
2. produces phospholipase, damages surface epithelial cells
3. neutrophils releases myeloperoxidase, which produce hypochlorus acid and monochloramine which destroys mammalian cells
4. damaged mucosa release leaks nutrients for H.pylori
what are the SIX morphological signs of Crohn's Disease
1. STRING SIGN
2. SKIP LESIONS
3. LINEAR ULCER
4. superficial ulceration
5. transmural inflammation
6. noncaseating granulomas
what is the difference between Crohn's and Ulcerative Colitis?
BOTH:
relapsing inflammatory granulomatous disease

crohn's disease:
1. MAY AFFECT ANY PORTION OF THE GI TRACT
2. mostly involves small intestine and colon

ulcerative colitis:
1. LIMITED TO COLON
2. affecting only mucosa and submucosa (except in severe cases)
what are the complications associated with Chronic Crohn's Disease
1. fibrosing strictures
2. protein losing enteropathy
3. pernicious anemia and steatorrhea
4. increased incidence of cancer of the GI tract
what are the morphological characteristics of Ulcerative colitis
1. pseudopolyps
2. serosal surface is NOT involved
3. crypt abscesses formed by collections of neutrophils in crypt lumens
4. mucosal ulceration extending into submucosa
5. epithelial dysplasia may be present
what are the clinical features of ulcerative colitis
1. BLOODY MUCOID DIARRHEA
2. abdominal cramps relieved by defecation
3. marked by emotional/physical stress
4. toxic megacolon
5. perforation
6. long term complication of UC is GI CANCER!!
what is a polyp?
what are the two types of polyps that are associated with the colon and rectum
polyp: tumorous mass that protrudes into the lumen of bowel

1. hyperplastic: formed as a result of abnormal mucosal maturation, inflammation or architecture
2. adenomatous polyps: results from proliferation, exhibit dysplasia and are precursors of carcinomas
what are the malignant risk associated with adenomatous polyp
1. cancer is rare in tubular adenomas smaller than 1cm in diameter
2. cancer risk high in sessile villous adenomas more than 4cm in diamter
3. severe dysplasia, when present, is often found in villous areas
what are the factors that cause a high incidence rate in Colorectal Carcinomas
1. excess energy intake relative to requirement
2. low content of unabsorbable fibers
3. diet high in refined carbohydrates
4. INTAKE OF RED MEAT
5. lack of protective micronutrients
in respect to colorectal carcinoma where does tumors in the PROXIMAL colon portion grow as...?

DISTAL?
1. proximal portion tumors tend to grow as POLYPOID EXOPHYTIC masses
2. distal portion tumors tend to grow as ANNULAR, ENCIRCLING lesions (NAPKIN RING constriction around bowel)
what is the structural characteristic of the invasive tumors in colorectal carcinoma
incite DESMOPLASTIC (fibrous tissue) stromal response making these tumors FIRM and HARD
what are the clinical features of colorectal carcinomas (5)
1. can be asymptomatic for years
2. DISTAL tumors present with melena, diarrhea, and constipation
3. PROXIMAL tumors present with fatigue, weakness, Fe def anemia
4. tumors of rectum and sigmoid are HIGHLY invasive (BAD!!)
5. Fe deficiency in older males means GI CANCER until proven otherwise
when does JAUNDICE occur (5)
1. excessive production of bilirubin
2. reduced hepatic uptake
3. impaired conjugation
4. decreased hepatic excretion
5. impaired bile flow

*all unconjugated (insoluble in water, tightly bound to albumin, TOXIC, not excrete in urine)
what are some causes of neonatal jaundice
1. hereditary hyperbilirubinemias: immature hepatic machinery
2. Crigler-Najjar type 1: gene defect for protein that encodes UDP glucoronsyltransferase (death with 18months)
3. Gilbert syndrome: reduced hepatic bilirubin glucoronidating activity. benign
4. Dubin-Johnson: no cannalicular transfer protein
what are the serological diagnosis of HAV
1. IgM HAV (antibody in serum appears at ONSET and CONFIRMS diagnosis)
2. IgM decreases after a few months
3. IgG HAV (antibody appears as patient recovers and persist throughout life. conferring resistance)
what the characteristic of cirrhosis in the liver?
what is the #1 cause?
1. bridging fibrous septa
2. parenchymal nodules
3. total disruption of liver architecture
4. alcoholic liver disease (60-70%) and viral hepatitis (10%)
stimuli for synthesis and deposition of collagen in pathogenesis of liver cirrhosis
1. inflammatory mediators
2. cytokines
3. disruption of extracellular matrix
4. direct stimulation of stellate cell by toxin (alcohol)
what is the major source of excess collagen in cirrhosis
perisinusoidal hepatic STELLATE CELLS (Ito cell)
what are the three stages of alcoholic liver disease.
1. hepatic steatosis
2. alcoholic hepatitis
3. alcoholic cirrhosis
what are the clinical features of alcoholic liver disease
1. portal hypertension
2. hepatorenal syndrome
3. hepatocellular carcinoma
4. hypoalbuminemia
5. gynocomastia
6. spider angioma
what is acute pancreatitis
abdominal pain resulting from ENZYMATIC NECROSIS and INFLAMMATION of the pancreas
what are the three possible pathways of pancreatic enzyme activation
1. pancreatic duct obstruction
2. primary acinar cell injury
3. defective intracellular transport of Proenzymes within Acinar Cell
what is the morphology of acute pancreatitis
1. interstitial EDEMA
2. fat/parachymal NECROSIS
3. acute inflammatory infiltrate
4. HEMORRHAGE
in acute pancreatitis, what will you find in the serum?
what will that lead to...
increased serum lipase and amylase:
1. abdominal pain
2. severe pancreatitis
3. DIC
4. fluid sequestration
5. RDS
6. peripheral vascular collapse, SHOCK
7. acute renal tubular necrosis
what is chronic pancreatitis
1. repeated bouts of pancreatic inflammation
2. continued loss of parenchyma and replacement by fibrous tissue
what are the important factors involved in the development of chronic pancreatitis
1. protein and cellular debris form DUCTAL PLUGS (calcium carbonate to form stones)
2. alcohol induced oxidative stress leads to protein secretion, cell necrosis and inflammation
3. fibrosis replaces damaged pancreatic tissues
what are the clinical features of chronic pancreatitis
1. caused by alcohol and overeating
2. mild increase in serum amylase
3. abdominal pain
4. jaundice
5. pseudocyst
6. interstitial fibrosis
what are the clinical features of Pancreatic Carcinoma?
what are the two signs?
what is found in the serum?
1. Trousseau sign: migratory thrombophlebitis, excess platelet aggregating factors and procoagulants from the tumor
2. Carvoisier Sign: palpable distend gallbladder
3. elevated CA 19-9 and CEA in serum

60% occur in head of pancreas and causes an obstructive jaundice
what are the MORPHOLOGICAL characteristics of Pancreatic Carcinoma
1. practically all are adenocarcinoma, moderate to poor, aggressive and infiltrative
2. may secrete mucin
3. desmoplastic reaction
4. grey-white gritty tissue mass
in pancreatic carcinoma what is suppressed at intermediate stages?
late stages?
inactivation of...
1. intermediate: p16 tumor suppressor gene
2. late: p53, SMAD4 (DPC4), BRCA2 tumor suppressor gene
what is an atheroma?
where do they occcur?
1. elevated focal intimal fibrofatty plaque
2. yellow-white in appearance
3. protruding into lumen

occur at point of arterial branching and around Ostia of branches of aorta
what are some complications of atheroma
1. calcification
2. ulceration
3. thrombosis
4. intraplaque hemorrhage

may cause embolization, total occlusion, or aneurysm
what is a theory of development of atheroma
reaction to injury due to hypertension, DM, hyperlipidemia, smoking, etc.

1. increase permeability to plasma lipids, foam cell infiltration of subintimal space and collagen deposition
what are THREE clinical features of atherosclerosis
1. narrowing of lumen (ischemia)
2. predisposed to thrombosis (occlusive or emboli)
3. weakening of wall (aneurysm of abdominal aorta)
what are the three diseases that is defined by thickening and loss of elasticity of arterial walls
1. atherosclerosis
2. arteriolosclerosis
3. Monckeberg's arteriosclerosis
what are some clinical pathologies that can be seen with ischemic heart disease
1. angina pectoris
2. MI
3. silent ischemia (no angina, no pain)
4. chronic ischemic heart disease
5. sudden cardiac death (SCD)
what is angina pectoris?
what are the THREE types of angina?
angina pectoris: chest pain due to myocardial ischemia, WITHOUT FRANK INFARCTION

1. stable: short duration (15min), exertion induced and relieved with rest
2. unstable: more severe pain and longer, attacks occur at rest
3. prinzmetal angina: pain occurs at rest, may be caused by ECG change and coronary artery spasm
what does ischemia indicate in MI
1. coagulative necrosis of myocardial fibers
2. leads to loss of normal conduction and contraction
3. MI usually involve LV
4. RV is involved if LV infarct is SEVERE
what are the lab diagnosis for MI
1. CARDIAC TROPONIN I: as sensitive and more specific than CK-MB. (rises within 4-8hrs of attack, remains elevated for 7-8days)
2. CK-MB: marker for MI, (rises 4-8 hrs of attack, normal within 48hrs)
3. elevated LDH and SGOT
what are the TWO criteria for classifying MI
1. Depth: TRANSMURAL (full thickness of wall, associated with thrombosis) and SUBEPITHELIAL (inner 1/3 or 1/2 of wall, NO thrombosis)

2. location/coronary artery involvement
what is the usual cause of sudden cardiac death?

what is the most common cause of death among hospital patients with acute MI?
1. ventricular arrhythmias

2. cardiogenic shock
what does CHF cause
1. >40% of LV infarcted
2. decreased contractility
3. abnormal LV wall motion
4. REDUCE CARDIAC OUTPUT
what are the TWO causes of cardiac failure
1. inefficiency of myocardial contraction (pump failure)
2. abnormal load (increased work)
what are FOUR complications leading to intrinsic pump failure
1. myocardial ischemia (CAD)
2. cardiomyopathy
3. myocarditis
4. impaired compliance myocardium
5. rhythm disorders (severe)
what are THREE complications leading to increased load
1. increased pressure load
2. increased volume load
3. increase debit of general circulation
what are FOUR the compensatory mechanism in heart failure
1. hypertrophy of myocardium
2. increased blood volume (RAA)
3. increased sympathetic tone
4. compensatory increase in RBC
what causes clinical manifestations of heart failure
1. increased intravascular VOLUME and PRESSURE
2. extravasation of fluid in LUNGS, other organs and periphery
what are the FOUR different types of aneurysms
1. fusiform
2. saccular
3. dissecting
4. berry
what type of aneurysm is common with atherosclerotic aneurysms
1. fusiform and saccular
2. usually in abdominal aorta
3. may produce thrombi and emboli
4. renal artery flow and blood flow to lower limbs may be occluded
what happens during syphilitic aneurysm?
type of aneurysm?
1. saccular or fusiform
2. ischemic injury of elastic fibers and smooth muscle of media of aorta
3. dilatation of AV ring leading to LV overload and hypertrophy (cor bovinum)
4. obliterative endarteritis of vasa vasurum (perivascular cuff of plasma cell infiltrates)
what happens during dissecting aneurysm?
what is a more common cause in patients?
1. medial necrosis in muscular layer of aorta
2. marfan syndrome and lathyrism

idiopathic cystic medial necrosis
what are the TWO types of dissecting aneurysms?

what are the effects of dissecting aneurysm
type A: ascending aorta
type B: descending aorta ONLY

1. rupture (hemorrhage)
2. extension of dissection (renal and mesenteric infarct)
3. disruption of aortic valve (regurgitation)
what is giant cell arteritis
1. granulomatous inflammation of med/sm arteries (cranial and temporal arteries usually affected)
2. thick/fibroses vessel walls and narrowing of lumen
3. causes headache, fever, anemia, musculoskeletal symptoms

SUDDEN BLINDNESS!!
what is Takayasu disease (pulseless disease)
1. granulomatous inflammation of med/lg arteries. strong predilection for aortic arch and branches (narrow and destruction)
2. common in women
3. ischemic symptoms in arms and neck
4. DIMINISHED upper extremity PULSES
what is polyarteritis nodosa
1. necrosis of small and medium arteries throughout body (ischemia of multiple organs and tissue)
2. FIBRINOID NECROSIS
3. NEUTROPHIL INFILTRATE
4. fibrotic thickening and aneurysm formation
what is anti neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies?
how is it used to diagnose?
1. auto-antibodies directed against enzymes mainly found within granules in neutrophils
2. cytoplasmic-ANCAs: target antigen is proteinase 3 (wegeners)
3. perinuclear-ANCAs: target is myeloperoxidase (PAN and Churgs-Strauss)
what is Churg Strauss Syndrome
1. allergic and granulomatous vasculitis
2. mainly lesions of the lungs
3. eosinophilia and association with asthma and allergic rhinitis
what is wegeners granulomatosis
1. vasculitis with necrotizing granulomas in URT, lungs and kidneys
2. saddle nose deformation
3. lungs: cough, dyspnea, HEMOPTYSIS
4. kidneys: necrotizing glomerulitis and crescentic glomerulonephritis
what is thromboangiitis obliterans (buergers)
1. segmental inflammation of med/sm arteries and veins (extremities w/ adj nerves...no pain)
2. intermittent claudication
3. ischemia cause tissue ulcer and gangrene
what is mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome (kawasaki)
1. acute febrile illness in children
2. 20% associated with coronary arteritis and aneurysm formation
3. causes producing thrombosis, rupture and CHILDHOOD MI
what is phlebo-sclerosis
1. chronic varicosity causes fibrosis and calcification of veins
what is the difference between phlebothromobosis and thrombophlebitis?
etiology?
1. phlebothromobosis: thrombus in veins
2. thrombophlebitis: inflammation of veins

etiology:
1. venous stasis
2. hypercoagulable states
what is telangiectasias
1. developmental anomaly
2. present as central dilated vessel with radiating fine capillaries
3. not true tumor appearing as abnormal dilatation of preexisting small vessels
what are the FOUR type of vascular growths
1. nevus flammeus
2. port wine stain: sometimes associated with encephalo-trigeminal angiomatosis
3. hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia: skin, mucous membrane mouth, GI, respiratory and urinary tract
4. spider telangiectasia: liver disease association
what is a hemangioma?
what are the two types
benign tumor of capillaries

1. capillary hemangioma
2. cavernous hemangioma (cystic hygroma)
what is a Kaposi sarcoma
low grade malignant tumor

1. pleomorphic spindle shaped cells
2. slit like vascular spaces filled RBC

*classic, transplant KS, AIDS KS
what is the most damaging aspect of rheumatic heart disease
endocarditis: platelets and fibrin in the endocardium (vegetation)

fibrinoid necrosis
what is the pathognomonic (specific) feature of acute rheumatic carditis
myocarditis: myocyte necrosis with development of ASCHOFF BODIES

(found in interstitial fibrous tissue of heart, joints, tendons, and other)
what is present in the early and late stages of rheumatic heart disease
1. early: aschoff nodule consists only of fibrinoid necrosis and inflammatory cells
2. late: becomes nonspecific hylinized scar
what are the etiology of hypertension
essential HTN: 90% cases no cause found

secondary HTN: 10% well known causes
1. cardiovascular
2. renal
3. endocrine
4. pregnancy
5. sleep apnea
6. drug induced
morphologically what is seen in myocarditis
1. macro: pale and flabby myocardium with FOUR chamber dilatation and diffuse hemorrhagic mottling (mural thrombi)
2. micro: interstitial edema/fibrosis, mononuclear cell infiltrates (degeneration and necrosis)

chronic: DILATED CARDIOMYOPATHY
what is the definition of cardiomyopathy
disorder of the heart MUSCLE in the ABSENCE of ischemic, hypertensive, valvular, pericardial or congenital mechanisms of the myocardial disease
what is the most common type of cardiomyopathy
dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM): congestive cardiomyopathy

1. FOUR chamber dilatation
2. systolic and diastolic dysfunction
3. scattered myocyte atrophy, interstitial fibrosis, mononuclear infiltrate
what is the definition of aortic stenosis?

morphology
obstruction of LV outflow during SYSTOLE caused by valvular obstruction

HYPERTROPHY
fibrosis and calcification after RHD (thickened)
what are the hemodynamic affects of aortic stenosis
1. low arterial BP
2. concentric hypertrophy of LV
3. MI and CHF
4. thromboembolism
5. arrhythmia and sudden death
what are the signs and diagnosis of aortic stenosis
1. angina pectoris
2. dyspnea
3. syncope

systolic murmur and thrill
what is the definition of aortic regurgitation
abnormal leak or retrograde flow of blood from aorta back into LV during DIASTOLE
what are the hemodynamic effects of aortic regurgitation
1. LV volume overload
2. DIALATATION of ascending aorta
3, regurgitated stream of blood cause JET LESIONS
4. eventually will lead to MR and PHT