Pathology Test 1 08/11/09

Front 1

to decrease pt. dose while performing a computed chest radiograph, which technical factor can be increased

Back 1

kvp

Front 2

which of these anatomic structures listed is not located in the mediastinum

Back 2

lungs

Front 3

which of the following pt. positioning factors assists in increasing the size of the cardiac shadow

Back 3

AP

Front 4

to evaluate a pleural effusion in the left lung which decub position will be required

Back 4

left lateral decub

Front 5

what is a common complaint of the radiologists when reading chest radiographs

Back 5

poor inspiration

Front 6

what projection may better visualize TB, which has a predisposition to be in the apices of the lungs.

Back 6

apical lordotic

Front 7

what anatomical structure presents radiographically as a sail sign?

Back 7

thymus gland

Front 8

what pathological condition occurs as a result of disruption of the esophagus or trachea and air becoming trapped in the mediastinum

Back 8

mediastinal emphysema

Front 9

which imaging modality is preferred when evaluating pulmonary adneopathy

Back 9

CT

Front 10

which imaging modality can distinguish between benign and malignant pulmonary lesions

Back 10

nuclear medicine

Front 11

which type of tube would be inserted into the pt. with a hemothorax

Back 11

chest tube

Front 12

diagnosis and management of heart failure resulting from myocardial infartion and cardiogenic shock represents the most common use of what type of catheter

Back 12

swan-ganz

Front 13

cystic fibrosis is classified as a.....

Back 13

hereditary disease

Front 14

what is deficient in the premature infant affected by hyaline membrane disease

Back 14

surfactant

Front 15

what is the most common lethal disease for white children

Back 15

cystic fibrosis

Front 16

what is the most common bacterial pneumonia

Back 16

pneumococcal pneumonia aka lobar pneumonia

Front 17

what type of pnuemonia is frequently caused by infuenza

Back 17

viral pneumonia

Front 18

what pathological condition is a permanent abnormal dialation of one or more large bronchii as a result of the destruction of the elastic and muscular components of the bronchial wall

Back 18

bronchiectasis

Front 19

the condition in which pus accumulates in the pleural space is termed

Back 19

empyema

Front 20

hyperinflation or the overdistention of the alveoli with air is called

Back 20

emphyzema

Front 21

a _____ tube is inserted into the nose or mouth into the trachea and used to manage the patient's airway

Back 21

endotracheal

Front 22

the most frequent type of lung infection is

Back 22

pneumonia

Front 23

an inflamation of the pleura that is not visible on the radiograph is?

Back 23

pleuresy

Front 24

the most common pathologies associated with COPD is?

Back 24

chronic bronchitis and emphysema

Front 25

the predominent risk factor associated with COPD is?

Back 25

smoking

Front 26

what pathology presents radiographically as a depressed or flattened diaphragm abnormally radiolucent lungs and increased retro sternal air spaces

Back 26

emphyzema

Front 27

a solitary radiopaque lung nodule consistent with brochogenic carcinoma is a?

Back 27

coin lesion

Front 28

the procedure performed under sonographic guidance that removes excess fluids from the pleural cavity is?

Back 28

pluero centesis
****however, on page 83 it looks like correct answer is thoracocentesis

Front 29

which of the following is not a method of pulmanary metasesis?
bronchogenic metasesis
air born droplets
direct implantation from biopsis

Back 29

air born droplets

Front 30

cystic fibrosis requires what type of technical factor

Back 30

increase

Front 31

would sinisitus be a additive or ________ (increase or decrease technique)

Back 31

increase

Front 32

would emphyzema be increase or decrease in technique

Back 32

decrease

Front 33

would pnuemonia be increase or decrease in technique

Back 33

increase

Front 34

would COPD be an increase or decrease in technique

Back 34

decrease

Front 35

would plueral infusion be an increase or decrease in technique

Back 35

increase

Front 36

what type of cells are responsible for bone growth and thickening,

Back 36

osteoblasts

Front 37

what anatomic structures are responsible for the production of eurythocites and leukocytes?

Back 37

red bone marrow

Front 38

what prortion of the long bone is the primary site of ossification?

Back 38

diaphysis

Front 39

diploe is specific to calceous bone located in what anatomic structure

Back 39

skull

Front 40

what pathalogic condition is fairly common form of osteosclorotic osteoperosis

Back 40

albers shonberg disease

Front 41

the most common sites for metastatic bone cancer are?
breast, lung or brain?

Back 41

breast AND lung

Front 42

lesions shorter than 10 cm are characteristic of what kind of bone cancer?

Back 42

secondary

Front 43

evidence of soft tissue masses are characteristic of what kind of bone cancer

Back 43

primary

Front 44

the modality of choice for demonstrating vertebral fractures or other bone anomoles is?

Back 44

CT

Front 45

spondylolysis is a result of a cleft or defect in the vertebral what?

Back 45

pars interarticularis

Front 46

the condition causes the forward slipage of vertebral column off of the vertebral body?

Back 46

spondylolisthesis (p 36)

Front 47

a common radiographic finding w/ patients suffering from whiplash is?

Back 47

loss of lordosis

Front 48

the most common imaging modality used for lower back pain?

Back 48

radiography

Front 49

which of the following radiographic projections of the spine will decrease dose to the breast and thyroid gland?
left lateral, right lateral, PA or AP

Back 49

PA

Front 50

which disease is congential?
osteogenisis imperfecta, pagets disease, or ??? disease

Back 50

osteogenesis imperfecta

Front 51

osteoma would most commonly be found on the? skull, vertebrae or femur?

Back 51

skull

Front 52

being generally larger than 2cm in dimension is a characteristic of which neoplasm?

Back 52

osteoblastoma

Front 53

osteoartheritis requires what kind of technical factor change?

Back 53

decrease

Front 54

osteoid osteoma requires what kind of technical factor change?

Back 54

decrease

Front 55

this type of arheritis may be caused by strepdaccoi staphlaccoci, ?

Back 55

acute arthritis

Front 56

this type of artheritis usually occurs between the ages of 30 and 40?

Back 56

RA- rheumatoid

Front 57

This artheritis usually occurs in peripherial joints?

Back 57

RA- rheumatoid

Front 58

this type of arthritis includes the presence of auto antibody against gamaglobulin?

Back 58

RA

Front 59

This type of atheritis may be classified as a degenerative disease? acute, RA or both

Back 59

both

Front 60

When you have a disease that has a quick onset and last a short period of time is known as a?

Back 60

acute

Front 61

A group of spinal symptoms that charactorizes specific abnormalities known as a?

Back 61

syndrome.

Front 62

The study of the cause and origin of disease

Back 62

etiology.

Front 63

______ is the study of a disease?

Back 63

pathology.

Front 64

objective manifestation is known as ____ while a patients perception is known as ____?

Back 64

sign, symptom.

Front 65

a disease that does not produce symptoms especialy in the early stages?

Back 65

asymptomatic.

Front 66

multiple sclerosis is considered a ____ condition?

Back 66

chronic.

Front 67

the name of a disease an individual is believed to have is known as the?

Back 67

diagnosis.

Front 68

the investigation of diseases in large groups is called?

Back 68

epidimiology.

Front 69

proper infection control factors are important in healthacare environment to prevent what kind of desease?

Back 69

nosicomial.

Front 70

an abnormal disturbance in body function or structure as a result of some type of injury is an example of?

Back 70

disease.

Front 71

when a doctor identifies a disease he or she is presenting a?

Back 71

diagnosis.

Front 72

morbidity rate is defined as what?

Back 72

the number of lives altered by a particular desease.

Front 73

a ___ disease results from the body's reaction to a localized injurious agent?

Back 73

Inflamatory desease

Front 74

diseases caused by developmental disorders genetically transmited from either parent to child through abnormalities of induvidual genes and chromasomes are dirived from ancestors are called?

Back 74

hereditary.

Front 75

pneumonia is a type of ____ desease?

Back 75

inflamitory.

Front 76

disease present at birth?

Back 76

congenital

Front 77

diseases that cause deterioration of the body are known to be?

Back 77

degenerative

Front 78

the type of disease classification of diabeties?

Back 78

metabolic.

Front 79

deseases caused by disturbance of the normal physiologic functions of the body?

Back 79

metobolic.

Front 80

pathology not attributed to the process of aging?

Back 80

osteomylitis

Front 81

removal of the dead cells and material is called?

Back 81

debridement

Front 82

hereditary, ____ and enviornmental factors are known to effect the rate of aging?

Back 82

diet

Front 83

which desease process results in new abnormal tissue growth?

Back 83

neoplastic.

Front 84

the term which used when cancer cells travel to distance sites.

Back 84

seeding.

Front 85

the type of cancer that arrises from epithelial tissue is?

Back 85

carcinoma.

Front 86

what is the most common disturbance of fluid balance?

Back 86

dehydration.

Front 87

what is it called when cancer cells travel via the lymphatic system?

Back 87

lymphatic spread.

Front 88

The ___ is the type of cancer that is derived from connective tissue?

Back 88

Sarcoma

Front 89

the abnormal growth of cells that leads to the neoplasm that continues to grow and spread and invade other tissue?

Back 89

malignant neoplasm

Front 90

for a cancer treatment to be considered curritive the patient must be cancer free for?

Back 90

at least 5 years

Front 91

The spread of malignant tumor cells to a distant site is known as?

Back 91

matastisis

Front 92

the classification of diseases that is a result of mechanical forces or exposure to extreme temperatures?

Back 92

traumatic

Front 93

a patient placed in a long cast for a period of 4 months would experience what kind of alteration in his quadracept femorus muscel?

Back 93

atrophy